Question Bank Q’s Flashcards

1
Q

“Tuck under” (Mach tuck) is due to induced shock at?

A

When the airspeed over the wing reaches Mach 1, it creates a shock wave pushing the nose downwards.
(at the crest?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If you were to raise flaps, in order to maintain level flight, which way would you trim the aircraft?

A

You would trim the aircraft nose up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of trailing edge flap is attached to the bottom of the wing?

A

A split flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of tab aids the pilot by moving in the opposite direction of the control surface?

A

A balance tab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do spoilers affect drag and lift?

A

Spoilers induce drag and aerodynamic lift decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The speeds between mach 0.8 and mach 1.2 are known as?

A

Transonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The critical mach number can be increased by?

A

Sweptback wings, the camber and reducing the thickness of the aerofoil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What characteristic effects the speed of sound?

A

Air temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A ‘Hi-lok’ is what sort of fastener?

A

It is a two part rivet.

They are usually only used to withstand shear loads (special types for tension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What form of anodising is used in folded and riveting joints?

A

Chromic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cleco Clamps and their colours.

A

Silver = 3/32
Copper = 1/8
Black = 5/32
Brass/Yellow = 3/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Formers and Frames carry what sort of stress in a monocoque structure?

A

Hoop stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What effect does heating the windscreen have in regards to strength?

A

It increases the windows impact resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Internal doors carry what sort of loads?

A

Never pressure loads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should you check when inspecting a cargo door?

A

Drift pins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Wing bending loads are catered for by?

A

Spars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is purpose of winglets?

A

They increase fuel efficiency by reducing aerodynamic drag and vortices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a cantilever wing?

A

A cantilever wing is one with NO external supports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The horizontal stabiliser gives what type of stability?

A

The horizontal stab gives longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vertical stabiliser skin panels can be strengthened by using what sort of material?

A

Primary structural components of the stabs can be made from laminations such as CFRP or GFRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is another name for the tail section?

A

The empennage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the purpose of aerodynamic balancing of a control surface?

A

It assists in moving the surface and prevents flutter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The centre of gravity of a control surface is where?

A

It is forward of the hinge line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are “engine nacelles”?

A

They are the outer casing and support structure of the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What structure class are engine nacelles?

A

Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ground air supply is connected through what duct?

A

Using an 8’ fitting into the bleed air manifold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is the engine bleed air at its hottest temperature?

A

The compressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What could be a possible cause of no cool air from a vapour cycle cooling system?

A

Refrigerant level is low or there is an issue with the thermal expansion valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What regulates the speed of the ACM?

A

The position of the air temperature control valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bubbles in the sight glass of the vapour cycle cooling system means?

A

The refrigerant level is low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If you are running the air conditioning at full cold on a hot day, what could over-stressing the system cause?

A

An ACM runaway/overspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

As the cabin altitude increases, cabin pressure will?

A

Decrease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

An aircraft at 30,000ft descends to 4000ft. What effect will this have on the cabin pressure?

A

It will increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A difficult to control and fluctuating cabin pressure could mean what?

A

A sticky outflow valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

During a cabin pressure check, the cabin altitude indicator will read?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is air supplied if the coalescer bag becomes excessively contaminated?

A

The bypass valve opens when there is an increased pressure differential caused by clogging or freezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What causes the cabin positive relief valve to open during flight?

A

Typically, to protect the structure from excessive dx, two safety relief valves provide an opening when a pressure of 8.5 ± 0.15 PSID is met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What causes the cabin negative relief valve to open during flight?

A

A cabin differential px of -1.0 PSID
(The CPC maintained a lower than acceptable pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The cabin altitude warning is controlled by what?

A

A cabin pressure switch will initiate a warning between 9,000-11,000ft cabin altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In relation to gyros, the angle of dip is?

A

Measured on the vertical plane, downward of the horizon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The rate of procession in a gyro is?

A

90 degree displacement in the direction of rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What instrument uses the theory of square law compensation?

A

Airspeed indicators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Electroluminescent displays (ELDs) brightness is controlled by?

A

Potentiometers or light sensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A radiometer temperature indicator can be checked for calibration by?

A

Disconnecting the bulb and replacing it with a decade resistance box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of loads are produced by an AC generator system when load sharing?

A

Real and Reactive loads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When aircraft generators are selected, ground power should not?

A

Be supplying AC power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What effect will constant current charging have on a Ni-cad battery?

A

Constant current charging takes a longer time than voltage charging but, it keep the batteries cells in a balanced condition hence, less chance of thermal runaway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A constant speed drive speed regulator failure is detected by?

A

A change in the generators frequency and voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

An IDG fault light indicates what?

A

Low oil pressure or high oil temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is an IDG disconnect triggered?

A

The IDG disc pushbutton must be pressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When are the emergency generators activated?

A

When all hydraulics fail and the RAT is deployed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When a full load is applied to generator, how will the voltage be effected?

A

The voltage will reduce.
Current will increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A dual loop system fire warning is caused by?

A

Loop A fire, Loop B fault.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A thermocouple fire sensor is triggered by?

A

Higher temp in one thermocouple compared to the others in the system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A false fire warning can be triggered by?

A

Ingress of moisture,
Faulty installation,
Chaffing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Ionising smoke detectors work on what principle?

A

They can detect visible & invisible smoke.
Smoke increases resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When testing continuous wire fire detectors, current is passed through where?

A

Through the centre electrode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When carrying out a full range check of flight control, where should you move them from?

A

The flightdeck control column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In a fly by wire aircraft , speed brakes are deployed, No. 2 fails to deploy. What happens next?

A

A failure is indicated, and the opposite spoiler remains in the down position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In a fly by wire aircraft, if both control sticks are moved in an opposite direction, what input will the aircraft react to?

A

Both inputs are cancelled out and an aural “dual input” warning sounds.

61
Q

Feel differential pressure switch gives a warning when?

A

30% pressure difference for 5 seconds.

62
Q

What incorrectly set flight controls trigger a takeoff warning?

63
Q

Ailerons were 5 degrees deflected downwards on a FBW aircraft during approach, what caused this?

A

It is called ‘Aileron Undroop’ which raise the Ailerons like spoilers to reduce lift just the reciprocal of ‘Aileron Droop’ which droops the Ailerons down by 6 degrees when flaps are deployed increasing lift on that part of wing.

64
Q

What activates automatic ground speed brakes?

A

Spoilers in the armed, weight on wheels and thrust reverser/ idle thrust.

65
Q

On a FBW aircraft, if a spoiler fails on one side, the opposite spoiler will?

A

Not be deployed.

66
Q

missing 65-81

67
Q

What happens to the output of a constant displacement hydraulic pump when the desired pressure is reached?

A

A pressure regulator or unloading valve is used to unload or relieve the pump when the desired pressure is reached.

pressure reduces but volume the same

68
Q

In a hydraulic system, 60psi is indicated with no pumps operating. What is the issue?

A

There is none. 60psi is the head of pressure.

69
Q

Heat damage on a pneumatic anti-ice’d L/E slat could be caused by?

A

An external leak on the pneumatic bleed system.

70
Q

Why are pneumatic de-icer boots coated with a conductive material?

A

To dissipate static build up

71
Q

Where is the cowl anti-ice air supplied from?

A

Compressor discharge/ bleed air

72
Q

Why are ice detectors heated?

A

If ice forms on the detector, there needs to be a way to remove it so it may detect again.

73
Q

How can you clean an aircraft tyre contaminated with oil?

A

Water & detergent and dry post cleaning.

74
Q

How do you collapse a strut for servicing?

A

Jack the aircraft,

release air pressure through air charging valve

compress,
check fluid,
extend & compress to remove any air from the system,
add air

75
Q

If a wheel speed transducer fails, what systems will no longer be able to operate correctly?

A

Autobreak/ anti-skid

76
Q

What would cause a landing gear shock strut to be over extended?

A

Too much air/ too little oil

77
Q

There is excessive vibration from the nose landing gear after landing. What may be the cause?

A

Faulty shimmy damper or a flat spotted tyre

78
Q

When does the auto-break system work?

A

When selected & engines at idle.
Anti-skid must be functional

79
Q

If the landing gear is down and locked but, the red/amber light is still illuminated, what is the possible cause?

A

An out of rig position sensor (micro-switch)

80
Q

Post gear swings, the green landing gear down and locked green lights are illuminated as well as the amber transit light. What could cause this fault?

A

The landing gear doors have not closed.

81
Q

What precaution should you take when installing a strobe light?

A

Do not touch the bulb with bare skin and allow the capacitor to discharge before touching.

82
Q

What type of lights are operated by high voltage?

A

Xenon flash tubes

83
Q

Electro-luminescence lights are operated on what voltage?

A

They operate via a static inverter from an AC power source.

84
Q

What position should the emergency lights switch be in when removing power from the aircraft?

85
Q

Why would pax oxy masks activated send a signal to the PA amplifier?

A

For the emergency announcements.

86
Q

How would you check to see if a chemical oxygen generator has been deployed?

A

Heat sensitive tape

87
Q

Where is the pneumatic system pre-cooler located?

A

Upstream of the PRSOV and fan air valve.

88
Q

What does the pneumatic dehydrator unit contain?

A

Activated Alumina

89
Q

Where does the pneumatic pressure regulating valve sense pressure from?

A

Both upstream and downstream in the bleed system.

90
Q

Which unit offloads the compressor in order to regulate air pressure?

A

IGV’s/ Px regulating valve/ Bleed air valve

91
Q

When using a pneumatic ground cart, what precautions should be observed?

A

Ensure the aircraft is supplied with electrical power.

92
Q

What is the water pressure maintained at in an aircraft?

93
Q

What is the capacity of the water heater?

A

1.5 litres.

94
Q

What type of extinguisher is used in a lavatory?

A

Red Class A water

95
Q

How is the toilet motor protected from overheating?

A

An automatically resetting thermal switch.

96
Q

What are the main components of a Centralised Maintenance System (C.M.S)?

A

A centralised maintenance computer and printer

97
Q

In relation to the CMS, what mode of operation is available when on the ground?

A

Interactive mode.

98
Q

What function is performed by an LRU when power is first applied?

A

A power up BITE test.

99
Q

What type of data transfer is capable through Arinc 664?

A

Bi-directional, full duplex switched ethernet.

100
Q

What specification of avionics databus uses ethernet?

A

Arinc 664/AFDX

101
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate of a C.A.N bus?
(Controller Area Network)

102
Q

What is a servo tab? (R)

A

An auxiliary flight control surface.

103
Q

Bulging in a lap joint could be resultant of? (R)

A

Corrosion.

104
Q

What form of protection for aircraft skin involves washed primer? (R)

105
Q

What is the purpose of fillet sealant in a fuel tank? (R)

A

It prevents the sealant under it from cracking from flex.

105
Q

What type of coatings are used for aluminium structure on folded or riveted joints? (R)

A

Chromate coatings using chromic acid.

106
Q

How would you strengthen a composite structure? (R)

A

Stringers and laminated ribs

107
Q

How would you prevent flutter in a flight control surface? (R)

A

Move the surfaces C/G closer to the hinge line.

108
Q

What does the flow control valve control? (R)

A

The volumetric airflow.

109
Q

Where is precession at its maximum? (R)

A

The poles.

110
Q

Electrical vibrating at a constant rate (R)

A

Parallel with a pair of contacts

111
Q

What would happen if both B and C were shorted on a three phase system? (R)

A

Differential protection would cause the generator control relay and the generator power relay to trip.

112
Q

What radioactive material would you find in a ionising smoke detector? (R)

113
Q

What sort of detector could you find in the flight deck? (R)

A

A carbon monoxide detector.

114
Q

Where is the test lamp in a photoelectric detector located? (R)

A

Opposite of the photocell.

115
Q

What should you remember to do following a flap asymmetry condition on an A320. (R)

A

Reset the asymmetry break unit.

116
Q

Why is it important that the yaw damper is linked to the flight controls? (R)

A

So the yaw damper does not oppose turn commands given.

117
Q

What triggers the stick pusher? (R)

A

A pre-determined speed above stall.

118
Q

What could be the possible cause of micro-logical contamination is one compartment of a fuel tank? (R)

A

An inoperative sump pump.

119
Q

What is the purpose of the trim fuel tank (Horizontal stab)? (R)

A

It reduces drag by adjusting the aircrafts C/G.

120
Q

How would you prevent biological growth in a fuel tank? (R)

A

Additives and draining water.

121
Q

What does the fuel totaliser read? (R)

A

The total amount of fuel remaining.

122
Q

What could be an indication that two different hydraulic fluids have mixed? (R)

A

A swelling of seals.

123
Q

What could be the cause of a slow moving hydraulic pump? (R)

A

An internal leakage in the pump.

124
Q

Why is it necessary a variable displacement axial piston type pump has internal leakage? (R)

A

Internal leakage is necessary for cooling and lubrication of bearings.

125
Q

What is the advantage of an electrically driven hydraulic pump over an engine driven pump? (R)

A

An electric pump can receive power from more than one source.

126
Q

In an axial piston variable displacement type pump, what is the control piston used for? (R)

A

The control piston regulates pressure output by adjusting the angle of the wobbler/swap plate.

127
Q

How do we monitor heated elements for failures? (R)

A

Current flow is monitored.

128
Q

How does a pressure operated ice detector work? (R)

A

When the detector is encased in ice, the internal pressure drops, triggering an indication in the flightdeck.

129
Q

A wiper moter moves… (R)

A

Only in one direction.

130
Q

How do you prevent kickback from a shock strut when it is rapidly compressed upon landing? (R)

A

Various valves and orifices.

131
Q

There is a slow creep down on the break pedals when pressure is applied. What could be the issue? (R)

A

A slow leak on the break master cylinder.

132
Q

If the cabin entry lights were dim and not changing with the switch, how would you fix this? (R)

A

Change the ballast and flow tube lighting

133
Q

What risk do you run by leaving an oxygen bottle below is specified pressure range? (R)

A

Moisture forming in the bottle.

134
Q

You oxygen bottle pressure is displaying 1800psi but, you are not receiving any oxygen to the mask. What is the issue? (R)

A

The bottle shut-off valve is closed.

135
Q

Where is the pre-cooler located? (R)

A

On or near the engine.

136
Q

Where is bleed air taken from? (R)

A

The compressor stages.

137
Q

How are external elements heated on the ground? (R)

138
Q

What could lead to an overheat of the vacuum system on an aircraft? (R)

139
Q

What type of memory is BITE information stored on? (R)

A

Non-volatile memory

139
Q

How do you upload information onto an LRU? (R)

A

Via and portable data loader/ floppy disk/ magnetic tape

140
Q

What is the purpose of I.M.A (Integrated Modular Avionics)? (R)

A

It decreases the amount of LRU’s necessary.

140
Q

Which IMA bus does not require a computer to communicate between components? (R)

140
Q

If an aircraft is fit with internal cameras, it is processed by? (R)

A

The cabin monitoring system.

140
Q

What is the purpose of the cabin core system? (R)

A

The cabin core system monitors internal aircraft cabin systems

140
Q

What is the purpose of the avionics domain?

A

It monitors and records aircraft system parameters in a secured environment.

140
Q

What is the purpose of the open world domain?

A

Open world is an extension of the aircraft systems to the outside for airline ops and pax needs.
(wifi)

140
Q

The backbone of the Onboard Information System (O.I.S) is?

A

The Network System Server