Question Bank New checked Flashcards

1
Q

For anaerobic infections, all the following antibiotics are suggested; except for?A)
ClindamycinB)
MetronidazoleC)
StreptomycinD)
Cefoxitin

A

Streptomycin
C

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2
Q

Which of the following antibiotics are used for treatment of mycobacterial infections?A)
Ethambutol, Ticarcillin, Isoniazid, PyrazinamideB)
Pyrazinamide, Ethionamide, Pipercillin, EthambutolC)
Ethionamide, Isoniazid, Clindamycin, EthambutolD)
Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol, Ethionamide

A

D)
Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol, Ethionamide

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3
Q

All of the following sentences are correct about bacterial metabolism; except for:A)
Hexose monophosphate pathway is needed for production of sugar with different carbon chain length.B)
Pyruvate is the end product of Glycolysis pathway.C)
During fermentation process, pyruvate converts to Acetyl-CoA.D)
The energy yield of bacterial aerobic respiratory is 38 ATP molecules.

A

C)
During fermentation process, pyruvate converts to Acetyl-CoA.D)

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4
Q

All the following chemical agents belong to the same category; except for?A)
IodophorB)
FormaldehydeC)
Peracetic acidD)
Hydrogen peroxide

A

A)
Iodophor

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5
Q

The core structure of which of the following bacterial component is either ribitol or glycerol?A)
PeptidoglycanB)
LPSC)
Teichoic acid D)
Flagellin

A

C)
Teichoic acid

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6
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Endotoxin is correct?A)
Are part of the cell wall of gram positive bacteria only?B)
All have the same effect regardless of bacteria sourceC)
Are found in both gram positive and gram negative bacteria cell wallD)
None of the above statement is correct

A

B)
All have the same effect regardless of bacteria source

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7
Q

Which sentence is correct about infectious disease?A)
Illness is time between introductions of organism to onset of symptomsB)
Signs of Infectious disease are effects experienced by patientC)
Infectious Disease that spreads from host to host is termed as contagiousD)
Diseases with large infectious dose more easily spread than those requiring small numbers

A

C)
Infectious Disease that spreads from host to host is termed as contagious

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8
Q

The term microaerophilic refer to an organism thatA)
Prefer to grow without oxygen.B)
Uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent.C)
Does not use oxygen but tolerates it.D)
Requires less oxygen than is present in the air

A

D)
Requires less oxygen than is present in the air

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9
Q

All the following chemical agents are used as antisepsis agent; except for?A)
AlcoholB)
ChlorhexidineC)
ChlorineD)
Triclosan

A

C)
Chlorine

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10
Q

Which of the following sentences is correct?A)
Amoxicillin and Piperacillin are narrow-spectrum penicillins.B)
Third generation Cephalosporins are less effective against gram negative bacteria than first generation Cephalosporins.C)
Methicillin and Oxacillin are resistant to the PenicillinasesD)
Oxazolidinones are used for treatment of gram-positive and gram-negative bacterial infections.

A

.C)
Methicillin and Oxacillin are resistant to the Penicillinases

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11
Q

In the cell envelope of which of the following bacterium, you will find DiAminoPimelic acid?A)
Bacillus anthracisB)
Klebsiella pneumoniaC)
Streptococcus mutansD)
Listeria monocytogenes

A

B)
Klebsiella pneumonia

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12
Q

The resistance of bacterial spore is due to the presence of all of the following factors; except for:A)
CortexB)
RibosomeC)
Dipicolinic acidD)
Multiple layers

A

B)
Ribosome

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13
Q

All of the following antibiotics are used for treatment of multi-drug resistant gram-positive bacterial infections; except for?A)
ColistinB)
TigecyclineC)
SynercidD)
Linezolid

A

B)
Tigecycline

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14
Q

Which of the following bacterial cell has its fertility genes within chromosome?A)
F+ cellB)
F- cellC)
F´ cellD)
Hfr cell

A

D)
Hfr cell

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15
Q

All are true regarding Campylobacter jejuni ;except for?

A)
Humans act as important reservoirs

B)
It is associated with Guillian Barre syndrome

C)
Poultry is a common source of infection

D)
It is the commonest cause of campylobacteriosis

A

A)
Humans act as important reservoirs

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16
Q

Which of the following antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A)
Ampicillin, Daptomycin, Aztreonam, Meropenem

B)
Cycloserine, Imipenem, Vancomycin, Synercid

C)
Cycloserine, Vancomycin, Bacitracin, Ampicillin

D)
Tigecycline, Meropenem, Vancomycin, Amoxicillin

A

C)
Cycloserine, Vancomycin, Bacitracin, Ampicillin

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17
Q

Which bacteria can produce biofilm in the lumen of catheters?

A)
Listeria

B)
Salmonella

C)
Pseudomonas

D)
Shigella

A

C)
Pseudomonas

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18
Q

All the following sentences are correct about Tuberculoid leprosy; except for?

A)
Abundant bacteria

B)
Strong cellular immunity

C)
Weak humoral antibody response

D)
Negative lepromin skin test

A

A)
Abundant bacteria

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19
Q

Which of the following is the main antibiotic used for treating LGV?

A)
Rifampin

B)
Amoxicillin

C)
Doxycycline

D)
Ciprofloxacin

A

C)
Doxycycline

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20
Q

The RB51 vaccine, used for animal vaccination against brucellosis, has which of the following characteristic?

A)
Smooth strain

B)
Dead bacteria

C)
B. melitensis

D)
Rough strain

A

D)
Rough strain

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21
Q

All of the following are examples of temperate bacteriophages; except for:

A)
P1

B)
λ

C)
T6

D)
Mu

A

C)
T6

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22
Q

Which enzymes is a spreading factor for Bacillus cereus?

A)
Oxidase

B)
Phosphatase

C)
Collagenase

D)
Penicillinase

A

C)
Collagenase

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23
Q

Which one of the following is characteristic of N. meningitidis but Not of N. gonorrhoeae?

A)
Ferments glucose

B)
Most isolates show resistance to penicillin

C)
No effective vaccines is available

D)
Contains a polysaccharide capsule

A
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24
Q

Which one of the following is characteristic of N. meningitidis but Not of N. gonorrhoeae?

A)
Ferments glucose

B)
Most isolates show resistance to penicillin

C)
No effective vaccines is available

D)
Contains a polysaccharide capsule

A

D)
Contains a polysaccharide capsule

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25
Q

Which of these is the main route of transmission for Anthrax?

A)
Digestion

B)
Skin

C)
Blood and tissue

D)
Breathing

A

B)
Skin

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26
Q

Which Pseudomonas toxin causes tissue necrosis and can be lethal to animals?

A)
U

B)
S

C)
T

D)
A

A

D)
A

27
Q

The MAT test is used for serologic diagnosis of which disease?

A)
Trachoma

B)
Relapsing fever

C)
Lyme disease

D)
Weil disease

A

D)
Weil disease

caused by Leptospira icterohemorrhagiae

28
Q

The most common serotype associated with human disease is O157:H7, which belonges to:

A)
ETEC

B)
VTEC

C)
EIEC

D)
EPEC

A

B)
VTEC

29
Q

Brucella has all of the following properties; except for:

A)
Non-motile

B)
Coccobacilli

C)
Encapsulated

D)
Intracellular pathogen

A

C)
Encapsulated

30
Q

All of the following properties are correct regarding Mycoplasma; except for:

A)
Forms fried-egg colony

B)
Contains P-1 adhesin

C)
Sensitive to vancomycin

D)
Extracellular parasite

A

C)
Sensitive to vancomycin

31
Q

Which strain of Clostridium perfringens is more dispersed in nature?

A)
Strain B

B)
Strain C

C)
Strain A

D)
Strain E

A

C)
Strain A

32
Q

All the following tests are used for detection of C. diphtheriae toxin, except for?

A)
Shick

B)
Elek

C)
PCR

D)
ELISA

A

A)
Shick

33
Q

For anaerobic infections, all the following antibiotics are suggested, except for?

A)
Clindamycin

B)
Gentamycin

C)
Cefoxitin

D)
Metronidazole

A

B)
Gentamycin

34
Q

All of the following bacteria can be transmitted from animal to human; except for?

A)
Bacillus anthracis

B)
Clostridium tetani

C)
Clostridium botulinum

D)
Clostridium perfringenes

A

B)
Clostridium tetani

35
Q

All of the following antibiotics bind to the bacterial 50S ribosome, except for?

A)
Clindamycin

B)
Tigecyclin

C)
Linezolid

D)
Dalfopristin

A

B)
Tigecyclin

36
Q

Which bacteria can produce biofilm in the lumen of catheters?

A)
Listeria

B)
Salmonella

C)
Pseudomonas

D)
Shigella

A

C)
Pseudomonas

37
Q

In which bacterium, the initial aggregation is mediated by bundle-forming pili (BFP)?

A)
VTEC

B)
EPEC

C)
ETEC

D)
EIEC

A

B)
EPEC

38
Q

MDR (Multi drug resistant) Tuberculosis is least resistant to?

A)
Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide

B)
Isoniazid, Ethambutol

C)
Isoniazid, Ethionamide

D)
Isoniazid, Rifampin

A

D)
Isoniazid, Rifampin

39
Q

Which of these bacteria cause kidney stones formation?

A)
K. pneumonia

B)
C. koseri

C)
P. mirabilis

D)
S. typhi

A

C)
P. mirabilis
Proteus mirabilis

40
Q

Which of the following Actinomycetes is anaerobic?

A)
Actinomyces

B)
Nocardia

C)
Actinomadura

D)
Streptomyces

A

A)
Actinomyces

41
Q

Which of the following cell becomes the recipient of the donor cell DNA in bacterial conjugation?

A)
F ∕

B)
Hfr

C)
F +

D)
F –

A

D)
F –

42
Q

The exception of steroids presence in prokaryotic cell membrane is:

A)
mycetoma

B)
mycoplasma

C)
All of them

D)
mycobacterium

A

B)
mycoplasma

43
Q

This coenzyme must be reoxidized through processes such as alcohol fermentation or

lactate fermentation in order for glycolysis to continue?

A)
Cytochrome

B)
NADH

C)
Ubiquitone

D)
ATP

A

B)
NADH

44
Q

All these bacteria are causative agents of nosocomial infection, except for:

A)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B)
Burkholderia cepacia

C)
Acinetobacter baumannii

D)
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

A

B)
Burkholderia cepacia

45
Q

Which of the following toxins degrades sphingomyelin?

A)
σ –toxin

B)
γ-hemolysin

C)
α-toxin

D)
β-toxin

A

D)
β-toxin

46
Q

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus that may lead to food poisoning is:

A)
Exfoliative toxin

B)
Haemolysin

C)
Enterotoxin

D)
Leucocidin

A

C)
Enterotoxin

47
Q

Which of the following trait concerning Bordetellae pertussis is correct?

A)
Faecultative anaerobe

B)
Fermentative

C)
No human vaccine

D)
No animal reservoir

A

D)
No animal reservoir

48
Q

All of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis are correct; except for:

A)
Can cause dissimilated intravascular coagulation.

B)
Is oxidase negative and cause beta hemolysis on blood agar.

C)
Intracellular presence is a characteristic finding of this bacterium.

D)
Grows best in an atmosphere of 5 to 10 % carbon dioxide.

A

B)
Is oxidase negative and cause beta hemolysis on blood agar.

49
Q

Which antibiotic is not effective for treatment of ESBL-producing gram-negative bacterial infections?

A)
Cefixime

B)
Methicillin

C)
Synercid

D)
Meropenem

A

D)
Meropenem

50
Q

17.
Which of the following bacteria cause early onset infections in newborns?

A)
Streptococcus pneumoniae

B)
Streptococcus mutans

C)
Streptococcus agalactiae

D)
Streptococcus pyogenes

A

C)
Streptococcus agalactiae

51
Q

Subspecies endemicum causes which disease? Treponema pallidum

A)
Yaws

B)
Syphilis

C)
Bejel

D)
Weil

A

C)
Bejel

52
Q

The antibiotic used for prevention (prophylaxis) of human leptospirosis?

A)
Ciprofloxacin

B)
Erythromycin

C)
Doxycycline

D)
Penicillin

A

C)
Doxycycline

53
Q

Which of the following sentences is correct about Neisseria gonorrhea?

A)
Is a gram positive diplococcus.

B)
Water house friderichsen is a syndrome related to this bacterium.

C)
Has a vaccine containing capsular polysaccharide.

D)
Cause a sexually transmitted disease.

A
54
Q

The 18 serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis is based on the antigenic property of which structural component of the bacterium?

A)
Fimbriae

B)
P1- adhesion

C)
Major outer membrane protein

D)
Peptidoglycan

A

C)
Major outer membrane protein

55
Q

All of the followings are the pathogenicity factors of Clostridium difficile; except for?

A)
Surface layer proteins

B)
Neurotoxin

C)
Enterotxin (toxin A)

D)
Cytotoxin (toxin B)

A

B)
Neurotoxin

56
Q

A patient with peptic ulcer was admitted to the hospital and a gastric biopsy was performed. The tissue was cultured on chocolate agar incubated in a microaerophilic environment at 37C for 5 to 7 days. At 5 days of incubation colonies appeared on the plate and were curved gram negative rods, oxidase positive. The most likely identify of this organism is:

A)
Haemophilus influenzae

B)
Campylobacter fetus

C)
Campylobacter jejuni

D)
Helicobacter pylori

A

D)
Helicobacter pylori

57
Q

Which of the following statement is not true regarding cholera?

A)
Transmitted by contaminated water and food

B)
Incubation period is one to two weeks

C)
Characterized by sudden severe diarrhea and vomiting

D)
Vibrio cholera is the causative agent

A

B)
Incubation period is one to two weeks

58
Q

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing Splenic Fever?

A)
Bacillus subtilis

B)
Bacteroides fragilis

C)
Bacillus anthracis

D)
Bacillus cereus

A

C)
Bacillus anthracis

59
Q

Which of the following bacteria is a bioterrorism agent?

A)
Burkholderia pseudomallei

B)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C)
Pseudomonas putida

D)
Burkholderia cepacia

A

A)
Burkholderia pseudomallei

60
Q

Which of the following sentences is correct about Tuberculin skin test (TST)?

A)
The mycobacteria antigens is injected subdermal.

B)
Skin test reactivity is measured 48 hours later

C)
The reactivity of the body is not depend on the Interferon-Gama production.

D)
Equal or more than 15 mm diameter is considered positive

A

B)
Skin test reactivity is measured 48 hours later

61
Q

The 18 serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis is based on the antigenic property of which structural component of the bacterium?

A)
Fimbriae

B)
P1- adhesion

C)
Major outer membrane protein

D)
Peptidoglycan

A

C)
Major outer membrane protein

62
Q

Which of the following sentences is correct about Neisseria gonorrhea?

A)
Is a gram positive diplococcus.

B)
Water house friderichsen is a syndrome related to this bacterium.

C)
Has a vaccine containing capsular polysaccharide.

D)
Cause a sexually transmitted disease.

A

D)
Cause a sexually transmitted disease.

63
Q

Subspecies endemicum causes which disease? Treponema pallidum

A)
Yaws

B)
Syphilis

C)
Bejel

D)
Weil

A

C)
Bejel

64
Q

Which of the following bacteria cause early onset infections in newborns?

A)
Streptococcus pneumoniae

B)
Streptococcus mutans

C)
Streptococcus agalactiae

D)
Streptococcus pyogenes

A

C)
Streptococcus agalactiae