Question Bank Flashcards
1
Q
When must you hold short of the ILS Critical Hold Line?
A
When instructed by ATC or during Cat II approach operations
2
Q
Which airplane category is applied to the CL300 for approach minimums?
A
Category C
3
Q
What is the operational procedure when crossing runways?
A
All exterior Lights on. (Meets FAA Notice 8700.30)
4
Q
Who must verify runway or departure changes prior to takeoff?
A
Both crewmembers
5
Q
Is the use of baro VNAV allowed?
A
Yes, as long as you have the service bulletin.
currently only 4 planes do not 1/19
6
Q
On the audio control panel, what is the EMER switch for?
A
Bypasses the ACP and routes audio directly to the headset
7
Q
On the FMS6200(CL350), after the IRS aligns does an FMS position initialization(POS INIT)need to be set?
A
No - obtains position set from the IRS alignment
8
Q
Can we use the SVS for navigation?
A
No - advisory only
9
Q
What RNAV approach minimums are authorized with SBAS(WAAS) unavailable?
A
LNAV/VNAV - (with VNAV still available)
LNAV only - (without VNAV available)
10
Q
What does RNP stand for?
A
Required Navigational Performance… RNP airspace error from FMS should be less than RNP value 95% of the time
11
Q
What indication do we get when a comm radio has failed?
A
Amber frequencies on the CDU and MFD tuning column
12
Q
What indications do we get when a NAV radio has failed?
A
Amber frequencies on the CDU and MFD tuning column, CDI needle is missing on HSI nav display
13
Q
What indications do we get when the ELT is on?
A
ELT ON white status message, External “Buzzing”
14
Q
How can we erase the CVR?
A
Hyd system powered, Parking brake set, Push and hold CVR erase button for
15
Q
Which airplane category is applied to the CL300 for approach minimums?
A
Category C
16
Q
What RNAV approach minimums are authorized with SBAS(WAAS) unavailable?
LPV?
LNAV?
LNAV/VNAV?
A
LNAV/VNAV - (with VNAV still available)
LNAV only - (without VNAV available)
17
Q
Where do we find deferal information for a missing static discharger?
A
AFM appendix - Configuration Deviation List(CDL)
18
Q
Where do we find the GO/NO-GO list for CAS messages?
A
QRH Volume 1
19
Q
Can we depart with the nose wheel steering inoperative?
A
NO
20
Q
How do you adjust the standby instruments lighting?
A
+/- in the ISI bezel, or the MFD lighting knob
21
Q
Which (exterior)lights will not illuminate if the LG is not down and locked?
A
The nose landing and taxi lights
22
Q
The secondary navigation light is selected on the?
A
Right Avionics Rack Circuit Breaker Panel
23
Q
The cabin entry/exit door light switch is powered by:
A
Left Battery Bus
24
Q
What powers the emergency lights?
A
Two Independent Rechargeable Battery Packs
25
If power to the standby instruments light normal source is lost (left main bus) standby lights are automatically switched to which bus?
Right Essential Bus
26
Power is normally supplied to the standby instrument lighting by which bus?
Left Main Bus
27
Emergency lighting will last a minimum of how many minutes?
15 minutes
28
What advisory is displayed when the Emergency lights are on?
EMER LIGHTS amber CAS message
29
When armed when do the emergency lights come on automatically?
When power to the Right Main Bus is lost
30
Where is the Therapeutic oxygen port?
Right side cabin wall behind the VIP seat
31
Where do we find the Oxygen Duration Tables for preflight planning?
QRH vol 1 has O2 duration tables
32
Where is the black medical kit / AED?
In the Lav under the sink
33
Where is the first aid kit located?
Front crew closet
34
Emergency equipment on board?
| 11
```
Goggles
first aid kit(blue)
large medical kit(black)
AED
crash axe
fire extinguisher
flashlights
life vests
life rafts
oxygen masks
PBE’s
```
35
Oxygen masks are not recommended above what altitude?
40,000 ft cabin altitude for the crew and 25,000 ft cabin altitude for the passengers
36
Crew oxygen masks deliver 100% oxygen above what cabin altitude?
35,000 feet - cabin altitude
37
Oxygen servicing port is where? What does the gauge read when full?
Right side fuselage just in front of the engine......1850 PSI
38
Where is the Oxygen overboard discharge indicator?
Right fuselage, above the lav servicing door.
39
What are the selectable modes for passenger oxygen mask deployment and what is the difference between them?
OFF, AUTO, MANUAL
—-AUTO uses the EPAV for distribution
—-MANUAL mode expells the O2 at a set rate
40
Oxygen distribution is controlled by what?
EPAV(Electric Pneumatic Actuating Valve)
41
Where are the oxygen bottles and the EPAV located?
| Electric Pneumatic Actuating Valve
Behind the Lav
42
What are the 3 selectable modes on the crew oxy masks?
Norm, 100%, Emergency
43
PBE oxygen is available for how long?
About 15 min.
44
How many PBE’s are installed? Where?
2 - One in the cockpit behind the captains seat, other above the lav seat
45
At what cabin altitude do the Passenger Oxygen masks automatically deploy?
14500 ft.
46
How is the pitot/static system heated?
Electrically through the L/R Probe switches.
47
How many Pitot tubes are there?
3
48
Where are the standby static ports?
Each side of the cockpit
49
What is the primary function of the APU?
Starting engines
50
What is the APU fuel burn?
150 lbs per hour
51
Is there an external APU shutoff?
Yes, External Power Control Panel below the right engine
52
APU gets fuel from where?
Right collector tank
53
How is fuel fed to the APU?
Right fuel pump until RT engine is running, then ejector pump supplies the fuel
54
You are being de-iced prior to departure. What must you consider?
De-icing with the APU running is prohibited
55
Prior to starting the APU you should ensure what minimum battery voltage?
20.5 volts ***(Flexjet CFM)
56
What does the APU provide us with?
Bleed air for air conditioning, pressurization, engine start and DC Power
57
How many fire bottles are dedicated to the APU?
One; the number two bottle
58
Is the APU fire protection system automated while on the ground?
Yes it will shutdown and discharge the number two bottle
59
Can the APU be operated with the APU generator inoperative?
Yes per the MEL
60
What happens with the batteries when starting the APU?
R/L batteries?
The Right battery PBA shows off and is powering only the APU starter.
The Left battery is
powering the rest of the aircraft including the start logic for the APU
61
What APU is installed?
Honeywell 36-150BD
62
What approaches are approved using the ISI for navigation?
ILS or LOC only
63
What type of approaches cannot be flown on the ISI?
Back Course approaches are prohibited.
The ISI is not capable of performing NDB, VOR, or
FMS approaches.
64
Where does the ISI get its air data and attitude reference?
From a dedicated ADC and AHRS.
65
How long is the ISI powered after generator power is lost?
3.5 hours.
66
AHRS takes how long to initialize on the ground?
40 seconds in MAG mode
| 4.5 minutes in HDG mode
67
In the event of a Left MFD failure where does the EICAS auto transfer to?
#3 AFD
68
What are the indications of a single AHRS / IRS failure and can the data be retrieved?
A red boxed attitude flag “ATT” and /or a red boxed heading flag “HDG”
Data can be retrieved using the reversion panel - "ATT/HDG" Switch
69
What are the indications of a single ADC failure and can the data be retrieved?
Red air data flags will appear for invalid airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed;
The data can be retrieved using the reversion panel
70
In the event the Left PFD were to fail can the information be reverted or compressed and if so how do you do it?
Yes; by using the reversion panel and selecting Left Displays to MFD REV.
71
You are taxiing for take off and you get a HDG Comparator that will not correct. Can you depart?
Possibly, refer to the QRH Vol 1 supplemental section for checklist guidance.
72
When flying in RNP airspace, the position error should be less than the RNP value what percentage of the time?
95%
73
How can we tune the radios?
Either CDU, either MFD
74
How do you accurately read the standby compass?
Turn the Windshield/Window heat off.
75
Where are maintenance interphone panels located?
Left hand side nose compartment area and Aft equipment bay.
76
How are the SVS and FPV selected on or off?
REFS page #2
77
Which primary flight controls are hydraulic?
Elevators. Rudder, Roll Spoilers(MFS)
78
In a R and L hydraulic failure condition, how are the elevators and rudder operated?
Elevator - Manual Reversion(cables)through PCU’s.
Rudder – Lower rudder PCU via the Aux Hydraulic pump.
79
Is the yaw damper active on the ground?
Yes, up til 60 knots where it is disabled (landing) then re-enabled with weight off wheels (takeoff)
80
Is there a trim tab on the rudder?
No, the rudder surface is deflected directly.
81
Ground spoilers are available when?
Switch is Auto or Manual Arm with TL’s at IDLE and 2 of 3 :
1) WOW
2) radar alt. less than 7ft
3) wheel speed is above 16 knots.
82
The stick pusher can be disabled 4 ways?
1) MSW
2) Stall Push off
3) CB1 labeled PUSHER
4) Windshear
83
Maximum altitude with the YD off?
31,000’
84
How do you turn off the roll spoilers?
By selecting the Roll Spoilers PBA to OFF.
| as directed by the checklist for a Roll Control Jam on the Captains side
85
When the roll disconnect is activated who controls the roll spoilers and who controls the ailerons?
The pilot controls the roll spoilers and the co-pilot cotnrols the ailerons.
86
The gust lock secures which controls?
Only the Ailerons and Thrust Levers
PCU’s trap pressure for elevator and rudder dampening for approximately 12 hrs after hyd pressure is removed.
87
What flight controls have trim tabs?
Aileron - left side only
88
What systems use primary trim? (3)
Autopilot, Configuration trim, and Mach trim
89
How does primary trim differ from secondary trim?
Primary trim is variable speed according to configuration/IAS.
Secondary trim constant .2°/ sec.
90
What is the purpose of the rudder travel limiter?
Restricts rudder movement as speed increases to avoid empanage damage or rudder failure.
91
How many Ice Detector Probes are installed?
2
92
How many wing inspection lights are there?
2
93
Does the wing heat source switch automatically transfer to the operating engine in the event of an engine failure?
Yes
94
What surfaces are being heated by High Pressure Bleed air?
Wing leading edges and engine inlets.
95
With the updated ice detect probes (CL350 and CL300's modified with SB 100-30-04), at what speed must the wing heat be on?
In icing conditions and the airspeed is less than 210 KIAS or the Ice Detected CAS message is On.
96
What happens to the wing anti-ice valves when electrical power is lost?
The valve is spring loaded to fail closed.
97
What happens to the engine anti-ice valve when electrical power is lost?
The valve is spring loaded to fail open.
98
Which probes and sensors are heated electrically?
1) L/R Pitot/Static probes
2) L/R AOA
3) Stby pitot probe
4) L/R stby static ports
5) TAT probe(when weight off wheels)
6) windshield/windows
7) T2 sensors.
99
When are the ice detect probes receiving DC power?
When the batteries are on.
100
Amber “ICE DETECTED” CAS means what?
Ice is detected and 1 or more anti-ice systems are not on.
101
After being de-iced/anti-iced with Type 2,3,or 4, when do you turn on the wing anti-ice?
Just prior to setting TO power.
102
What controls the anti-ice protection system?
Integrated Air System Controllers(IASC) 1 and 2
103
Which window is heated during Essential Power Only condition?
L. (side)Window only
104
Auto pilot uses which trim system?
Primary
105
Flight directors operate independently of each other in which modes?
Takeoff, Go-Around, and Approach.
106
How many flight directors are installed?
Can we dispatch with less?
2
Can MEL the FD, supplement section of the AFM has guidence
107
The minimum autopilot use height for climb, enroute, or descent is?
700 ft
For precision approach >3.5 80 ft <3.5 160 ft
For visual and non-precision approach? 200 ft
108
What does pressing the MSW switch do?
Disengages autopilot.
| Holding) Disables all trims and stall pusher (except on EASA aircraft
109
How do you disconnect the torque motors to make small maneuvers without disconnecting the autopilot?
Depress and hold the Autopilot Synchronization Switch
110
How is the AP manually disengaged? Automatically disengaged?
Manually—-Master Disconnect Switch (2), Auto Pilot and Yaw Damper Disconnect Lever (gangbar), Activating the Stab Trim (2), Pressing the AP button, Pressing the TOGA Switch (2), Pressing the YD button, Circuit Breakers.
Automatic—-Some System Faults, Stall Warning, excessive out of trim condition
111
What altitude is 1/2 bank auto enabled?
Can you manually disable it?
31,600’
YES
112
How many modes of pressurization operation are there?
2 - "Auto" through the IASC's
| 1 - "Manual" direct control of the outflow valve using rate knob (max. 3000 fpm)
113
The temperature "Pull up/Pull down works under what conditions?
APU or Pnuematic cart, Air source – Normal, Temp mode-AUTO, Main cabin door not
114
How is temp controlled in "Auto"?
In "Manual"?
Ventilated temp sensors in the cockpit and cabin input to the IASC's to regulate set temperature.
Direct control through the IASC's to regulate the temperature.
115
How do you set landing altitude manually?
Landing Alt outer knob-MANUAL and inner knob to select the landing altitude in 20' increments.
116
Where do you find X-Bleed/External Air Cart start procedures?
QRH 1-Supplemental Section
117
EMER DEPRESS button does what?
Cabin Depressurizes at 2,500 fpm to 14,000 in MANUAL mode. 3,000 fm to 14,500 in AUTO mode -OR- aircraft altitude, whichever is lower.
118
Is the PACK cold or hot air?
Pack is COLD and HOT air. Trim air is HOT.
119
What does Ram air do?
Provides cooling air to the heat exchangers and air for cabin ventilation at low altitudes (unpressurized).
120
When does the DITCHING switch become active?
At 15,000' the outflow valve opens and starts depressurizing the aircraft.
121
When the START switch is selected what happens to the Flow Control Valves?
They automatically close to allow all air to be used for the ATS.
122
What does the ozone converter do?
Converts ozone from the IP bleed air into 02 to combat fatigue and dehydration.
123
Does the environmental control system use HP or IP air?
IP
124
Do the safety valves require electrical power to operate?
No, they are pneumatically operated and spring loaded in the closed position.
125
What is the function of the safety valves?
To provide overpressure and negative pressure relief.
126
How many safety valves are installed and where are they?
TWO-on the aft pressure bulkhead.
127
How many outflow valves are there?
1
128
How is the outflow valve opened and closed?
Electrically by servo motors.
129
What is the IASC and how many are there?
Integrated Air System Controller, 2
130
Flying into KTEX the "CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING HIGH" CAS illuminates. How does this affect the CABN ALTITUDE Caution and Warning?
Increases caution to field elevation plus 650'.
| Increases warning to field elevation plus 1,550'
131
With the destination altitude below 7,850' when does the CABIN ALTITUDE CAS (s) illuminate?
Caution 8,500'
| Wanring 9,400'
132
What centers the nose gear during retraction?
The SCU-steering control unit (electrical)
| Also, mechanically by the cams on the nose strut.
133
What are the tire pressures?
Nose: 113 PSI
Mains: 154 PSI
134
When does the PTU operate in "AUTO"? (4)
1. Left EDP failed
2. Right EDP producing pressure
3. WOW-in air
4. Gear not in the position selected by handle.
135
Where are the brake accumulator gauges?
In the battery bay.
136
How do we check brake wear indicators?
parking brake set, pins greater than flush.
137
When should the "LG PULL" handle be stowed?
After landing with the gear pins installed.
138
What does the "LG PULL" handle do?
1. Manually releases the uplocks (nose and mains)
| 2. Actuates the dump valves (sends fluid pressure to the return side of the actuators)
139
If a gear control or left hydraulic system failure occurs how do we extend gear?
Use the checklist which will say "LG PULL" handle.
140
Parking brake accumulator has sufficient pressure for how many applications?
6
141
Brake accumulators provide braking when hydraulic pressure fails for how long?
1 continuous application to a full stop.
142
Gear is held up by?
Mechanical Uplocks
143
The nose gear steering is actuated by which system?
LEFT Hydraulic System.
144
The landing gear is normally actuated by which hydraulic system?
LEFT
145
Why must we observe brake cooling times?
To ensure sufficient energy to stop within charted times.
146
How much steering authority do we have with the Tiller? Pedals?
65 degrees/7degrees
147
Antiskid is available down to what speed?
10 knots
148
What does a "NWS LIMIT EXCEEDED" (C) cas indicate?
NWS has been turned beyond 120 degrees. Check sheer pins, if broken it has exceeded 123 degrees and possible damage has occurred.
149
On CL350's and A/C with modified with SB 100-29-18(Brushless DCMP's)(522FX,523FX,524FX,525FX,526FX,531FX,425FX) - What position do we place the DCMP switch after takeoff??
Remain in the "AUTO" position.
150
A/C not modified SB 100-29-18 (Brushless DCMP's), What position do we place the DCMP switch after takeoff?
Why?
OFF - to prevent short circuits in a high temp environment that could lead to a cascade electrical failure.
151
From which electrical buses are the Right and Left DCMP’s powered?
Right DCMP is powered from L ESS bus, Left DCMP is powered from R Main bus.
152
When do the DCMP’s operate in the auto position?
| 3
1. Low hydraulic system pressure
2. when flaps are selected out of 0 (zero)
3. on the ground with NWS ON(Left).
153
When does the Aux Hydraulic pump automatically turn ON?
| 2
1. Aux system pressure less than 2500 psi(OFF at 3350 psi)
| 2. Right hydraulic system pressure is less than 1800 psi
154
Why does flap extension using only the Right DCMP or Alternate Flaps take much longer than normal?
EDP pumps approximately 20 gpm, DCMP approximately 3 gpm.
155
How many accumulators are on the hydraulic system?
```
4:
Inboard
Outboard brakes,
Aux system
Main gear down lock assist.
```
156
After loss of the left and right hydraulic systems, what flight control is powered by the Aux hydraulic system?
The rudder thru the lower rudder pcu
157
When would we use the Alternate flaps?
When directed by the checklist for Right hydraulic pressure low conditions or Flap Fault CAS.
158
In the event generator power fails and both EDP’s fail, which DCMP is not load shed and can be powered?
The right DCMP if switch is selected to ON.
159
What is the purpose of the Aux HYD system?
To provide hydraulic pressure to the lower rudder pcu if the right hydraulic system loses pressure(less than 1800 psi) - via a switching valve.
160
Hydraulic SOV can be closed 3 ways?
Pushing the PBA, pushing the FIRE PBA, hydraulic temperature exceeds 275 for more than 3 seconds.
161
How is hydraulic fluid cooled?
Via fuel/hyd heat exchanger in each wing tank.
162
When does the PTU operate in "AUTO" ?
- Left EDP failed
- Right EDP producing pressure.
- Weight off wheels(WOW in air)
- Gear not in the selected position (ie...gear is down with the handle "UP")
163
What is the purpose of the PTU?
It is a hydraulic motor driven from the right system to provide pressure to the left system primarily to retract
the gear after takeoff with a left engine failure. Also pressurizes the left hydraulic reservoir.
164
What does the Right Hydraulic System power?
```
Flaps
Lower Rudder PCU
Outboard brakes
Outboard MFS
Outboard Elevator
Right Thrust Reverser
```
Main landing gear assist actuator
PTU
165
What does the Left Hydraulic System power?
```
Gear
Inboard MFS
Inboard brakes
Inboard elevator
Left(upper)Rudder PCU
Alt flaps
Spoilers
Left TR
Nose steering
```
166
Normal hydraulic system pressure is psi?
3000
167
What is powered using the hydraulic system?
Brakes, Thrust Reversers, Flaps, Elevators, Rudder, and Multi Function/Ground Spoilers, NWS
168
How many hydraulic pumps does the CL-300 have?
```
Six
2 EDP’s
2 DCMP’s
PTU
AUX
```
169
On CL350's and A/C with modified with SB 100-29-18(Brushless DCMP's)(522FX,523FX,524FX,525FX,526FX,531FX,425FX) - What position do we place the DCMP switch after takeoff??
Remain in the "AUTO" position.
170
A/C not modified SB 100-29-18 (Brushless DCMP's), What position do we place the DCMP switch after takeoff?
Why?
OFF - to prevent short circuits in a high temp environment that could lead to a cascade electrical failure.
171
From which electrical buses are the Right and Left DCMP’s powered?
Right DCMP is powered from L ESS bus, Left DCMP is powered from R Main bus.
172
When do the DCMP’s operate in the auto position?
1. Low hydraulic system pressure
2. when flaps are selected out of 0 (zero)
3. on the ground with NWS ON(Left).
173
When does the Aux Hydraulic pump automatically turn ON?
| 2
1. Aux system pressure less than 2500 psi(OFF at 3350 psi)
| 2. Right hydraulic system pressure is less than 1800 psi
174
Why does flap extension using only the Right DCMP or Alternate Flaps take much longer than normal?
EDP pumps approximately 20 gpm, DCMP approximately 3 gpm.
175
How many accumulators are on the hydraulic system?
```
4:
Inboard
Outboard brakes,
Aux system
Main gear down lock assist.
```
176
After loss of the left and right hydraulic systems, what flight control is powered by the Aux hydraulic system?
The rudder thru the lower rudder pcu
177
When would we use the Alternate flaps?
When directed by the checklist for Right hydraulic pressure low conditions or Flap Fault CAS.
178
In the event generator power fails and both EDP’s fail, which DCMP is not load shed and can be powered?
The right DCMP if switch is selected to ON.
179
What is the purpose of the Aux HYD system?
To provide hydraulic pressure to the lower rudder pcu if the right hydraulic system loses pressure(less than 1800 psi) - via a switching valve.
180
Hydraulic SOV can be closed 3 ways?
Pushing the PBA, pushing the FIRE PBA, hydraulic temperature exceeds 275 for more than 3 seconds.
181
How is hydraulic fluid cooled?
Via fuel/hyd heat exchanger in each wing tank.
182
When does the PTU operate in "AUTO" ?
- Left EDP failed
- Right EDP producing pressure.
- Weight off wheels(WOW in air)
- Gear not in the selected position (ie...gear is down with the handle "UP")
183
After generator power loss, how long will battery power last?
Main 24 VDC 44 AMP Batteries - 1 hour
| Standby battery - 3.5 hours
184
What do the Left and Right AUX buses power?
Cabin AC and DC
FO side window
foot warmers
185
Which battery is turned on first when powering up the aircraft?
Right battery - To prevent uncommanded APU starts
186
Where do we plug in a GPU?
On the lower right side of the fuselage, just below the engine pylon.
187
When do the Emergency Lights come on automatically?
R.Main bus failure.
188
Can all 3 gens power the aircraft simultaneously?
Yes, the Right and APU normally share the load of the right side items.
189
Which battery powers the APU starter?
Right Battery, but can revert to Left if needed.
190
What type of batteries does the CL-30 have and what are they rated at?
(2) 24 VDC NICAD , 44 amp
191
What is the minimum voltage req. on the left battery prior to APU start?
20.5 volts (Flexjet CFM)
192
Selecting the battery switch to the ON position connects the batteries to what buses?
Essential
193
What buses will remain powered during loss of all generators in flight?
Essential Busses and battery busses.
194
When are the auxiliary buses load shed?
Single Generator Operations
195
When do the generators automatically come online?
Automatically when engine is running after start except when a GPU is connected
196
Individual battery voltage can be read on?
Electrical and Summary Synoptic Pages
197
GPU AVAIL indicates what?
The GPU is connected and meets the quality criteria. When 5 volts is sensed the electrical synoptic
page displays a green status for the GPU.
198
The acceptable GPU voltage limit is?
24-32 volts
199
How many CB panels are there?
CL300 : 7 Total - 2 cockpit, 2 entryway, 1 galley, 2 in the aft equipment bay.
CL350 : 8 Total - 5 cockpit, 2 entryway, 1 galley, 1 lav(behind mirror), 2 in the aft equipment bay.
200
Is there AC power?
Passenger convenience items and cabin lighting through inverters.
201
When does the bus tie automatically close?
Ext. power, Bat. power, single gen.
202
Are the electrical system sides normally split or tied together?
Split
203
What are possible sources of DC power?
3 Generators / (2) 24 VDC 44 AMP Batteries / External power(GPU) / HMDG
204
In "AUTO" when do the electric fuel pumps come on?
| 3
1. Run switch to "RUN" - for engine start
2. Low fuel pressure indication
3. Right pump for APU operation when right engine is not running
205
The powered fuel transfer valve fails to open, what is the backup way of moving fuel between the wing tanks?
Gravity transfer
206
How many fuel pumps are on the CL350/300?
```
9
engine driven pumps(2)
electric boost pumps(2)
main ejectors(2)
scavenge ejectors(2)
and APU mechanical pump(1)
```
207
When do we drain the fuel tanks?
When contamination is suspected
208
How many water drains are in the fuel tanks?
6
209
Do we need fuel anti-icing additive as long as the minimum oil temperature is achieved?
No, Fuel is heated thru the fuel/oil heat exchangers
210
Minimum wing fuel for go-around?
500 lbs per side.
211
What operates the Main Ejector and Scavenge Ejectors?
Motive flow from the engine driven pumps
212
What is the function of the surge tank at the tip of the fuel tanks?
To provide additional expansion volume for the vent system.
213
What part of the fuel tank supplies fuel to the engines?
Collector tanks
214
Is mixing of fuel types approved?
Yes
215
How many fuel crossflow valves are there and how do they operate?
Two Total - One powered and One Gravity
216
Do you need battery power to fuel the aircraft?
Yes, to open the Fuel SOV’s
217
How is the fuel heated?
Fuel / Oil Heat Exchanger
218
How do you transfer fuel from the left wing to the right wing?
What if you’re on the ground with engines off and APU running?
L. pump on, xfer open.
L. pump on, xfer open, R. pump off. (Not documented as an approved procedure by Bombardier)
219
Fuel tanks are divided into how many sections?
3 sections - main tank, collector tank, and surge tank
220
Overwing/gravity fuel quantity?
13000 lbs
221
Single Point Pressure Refuel quantity?
14150 lbs
222
What extinguishing agent is used in the Fire Extinguishing System?
Halon 1301
223
Do we normally test the fire detection system?
No, only during abnormal situations when prompted by the checklist or MX.
224
Pushing the engine fire PBA does what?
| 6
```
Fuel SOV
Bleed SOV
Hyd SOV’s
arms EXT 1 and 2 squib
deactivates the gens
FADEC commands engine shutdowns
```
225
Is there a lav smoke detector?
No, baggage compartment detector thru vents.
226
Is there a baggage compartment fire extinguishing system?
No
227
Which areas have fire extinguishing?
Engine and APU
228
What areas of the aircraft are monitored for leaks and/or fire?
```
Engine Nacelles/Core/Pylon/Gearbox,
Main Landing Gear Bay,
Baggage Compartment,
Bleed Air
Supply,
Wing Anti-Ice Supply,
APU
```
229
Describe how the fire detection system recognizes a leak or fire?
Through fire detection loops and the resistance level in those loops
230
Which firex bottle provides protection for the APU?
Right fire bottle(#2)
231
Where can the fire bottles be discharged into?
#1 into either engine, #2 into either engine and APU
232
How many firex bottles are installed?
2
233
What are the minimum oil temperature limits for operating?
| Start, Idle, T/O—cold wx/normal) (4
-40* C - for engine start
5* C - idle power
15* C - Takeoff (as long as Cold Wx operation procedures are followed)
above 27* C - GREEN indication
234
What type of oil is approved for use in our powerplants?
Exxon/BP 2380, there are others as well.
235
What is the meaning of a Check Oil amber annunciation when checking the oil level on the ROLS? What should be done prior to dispatch?
Oil is below the full level. You must visually check the sight gauge to determine if the oil is below the no dispatch level.
236
When should the oil be checked after a flight?
5 to 30 minutes
237
How is the oil cooled?
Fuel / Oil Heat Exchanger
238
What engine functions does the FADEC control?
(10)
FLOATBIIEE
```
Fuel scheduling
Limits for N1/N2/ITT
Overspeed protection
APR
Thrust enunciations
```
```
Bleed air extraction
Ignition
Idles (Ground, Flight, Reverse)
Engine Sync
Engine starting
```
239
What is on the accessory gear box?
```
FADEC
Air Turbine Starter(ATS)
Generator
Permanent Magnetic Alternator(PMA)
Oil pump
Oil reservoir
Hydraulic pump
HydroMechanical Fuel Metering Unit(HFMU)
```
240
When is Mach Hold available?
CRZ power and ALT or ALTS,
| Sync on - adjust N1 +- 3%
241
When is engine sync available?
CRZ or CLB power and N1’s within 5%
242
What will happen if a thrust reverser becomes unstowed in flight?
FADEC will command the engine to idle
243
What type of oil is approved for our powerplants?
BP/Exxon 2380
244
What are the three ways that APR can be activated?
1. Manually be selecting the APR detent.
2. Automatically when there is an N2 mismatch in excess of 15 percent.
3. Automatically if FADEC’s stop cross communicating.
245
List the three ways you can start a power plant on the ground.
APU, Crossbleed, and External Air Source
246
Manual APR Time Limit?
5 minutes until exceedances are recorded
247
Auto APR Time Limit?
10 minutes until exceedances are recorded
248
When is Auto APR armed?
Auto APR switch is on
| Thrust levers placed in TO detent
249
Takeoff Power Time Limit?
5 minutes
250
The FADEC is powered via DC during engine start. As N2 increases above 45%, how is the FADEC powered?
PMA(Permanent Magnet Alternator)
251
What is the minimum N2 ground idle?
46%
252
Normal thrust rating at ISA+15?
| 300/350
CL300 - 6826 lbs at SL to ISA+15 degrees (86F).
| CL350 - 7323 lbs at SL to ISA+15 degrees (86F).
253
APR provides that thrust rating to what temp?
ISA+20 degrees C(95F)
254
What engines are installed?
AS907 (Type Designation)
HTF 7000 - CL300
HTF7350 - CL350
255
How is the CVR erased?
| 5
1. DC power
2. Weight on Wheels(WOW)
3. Hydraulic pressure
4. Parking brake set
5. Hold erase button for 2 seconds
256
What synoptic buttons are pushed to display the Maintenance Diagnostic Computer(MDC)?
Anti-Ice, ECS, Fuel
257
Can we silence GS / Flaps / Terrain warnings?
Press the corresponding PBA on the landing gear panel.
258
If the L. MFD fails, where does the EICAS transfer to?
Auto transfers to the Rt MFD.
259
What items trigger a takeoff configuration warning?
| 6
1. AP
2. 3 trim axis
3. spoilers
4. flaps
5. parking brake
6. disconnects (pitch and roll)
260
The aural warning channel mute panel is located where?
Above the Circuit Breaker Panel over the Co-Pilots Seat
261
A landing inhibit feature (warnings) is actve when?
Begins as the aircraft descends through
400 feet AND
slows below 40 knots
or 60 seconds.
262
A takeoff inhibit feature (warnings)is actve when?
Begins as the aircraft accelerates through:
80 knots
Ends at:
400 ft or 60 seconds.
263
Warning messages are always accompanied by what?(3)
1. Triple chim
2. Flashing master warning light
3. Red on the eicas or synoptic page.
264
What EICAS messages are accompanied by a single chime and flashing master caution lights?
Caution (Amber)
265
On the synoptic page display, a parameter that exceeds the established limits changes the indications to what color?
Red
266
What EICAS messages require immediate action?
Warnings (Red)
267
What color denotes component failure (no flow, energy, or pressure)?
Amber
268
What color denotes normal status of a component or no flow through a line?
White
269
There are 400+ CAS messages that display in various colors. What are the colors and how are they prioritized?
(4)
Red-warning
Amber-caution
Cyan - advisory
White- status.
270
How do we display the Maintenance Diagnostic Computer(MDC)?
Press Anti Ice, ECS and Fuel buttons simultaneously
271
How many static dischargers are on the CL350? CL300?
26, 24
272
What doors are monitored by the door warning system?
1. Pax Door
2. Emergency Exit
3. Cargo Door
4. Aft Equipment
5. Battery bay
273
The purpose of the vent flap in the cabin door handle is:
To equalize cabin pressure
274
Under what condition does a PASSENGER DOOR Caution Amber CAS message display when the aircraft is in flight? On the ground?
(3/1)
1. Passenger door rollers are not fully engaged into the fitting guides
2. Door handle not down and locked
3. Vent flap not closed.
1. Door is not closed and the Left Engine run switch is placed to RUN
275
On the ground you notice a Cargo Door(C) CAS is displayed, what condition has caused this?
The cargo door is not fully closed and Left Engine switch is in Run.
276
How is the main entry door closed if the electric switch or door motor is inoperative?
Manually by the ratcheting pull handle on the left side .
277
How is the main entry door normally closed?
Electrically by inside or outside switch.
278
Torque links disconnected allow aircraft towing at any angle provided shock strut exceeds how many inches of chrome showing?
3.5 inches
279
At what degree of nose angle will the nose landing gear swivel pins shear?
123 degrees
280
What is the maximum travel each side of center while towing?
120* without disconnecting the torque links.
281
What is the wing tip clearance for a 180* turn?
CL300......95' 5"
| CL350 ......101'
282
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180* turn?
58ft with a 5ft safety margin.
