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KC-130J T2P Question Bank > Question Bank > Flashcards

Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

In which pub do you find information about airport lighting symbols?

A

FIH, section B

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2
Q

In which pub do you find information about radio failure procedures?

A

FIH, section A

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3
Q

List some ways of opening IFR flight plans at fields without a control tower?

A
  1. ) Call ATC via radio while on the ground
  2. ) Use a Ground Communication Outlet (GCO); VHF freq that activates phone connection
  3. ) Call IFR clearance delivery
  4. ) Call FSS via landline
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4
Q

What are max A/C speeds below 10,000’ and below ____ AGL within ____ nm of class ____ or ____ airspace?

A

(250 kts under 10,000) and 2500’ AGL, (200 kts within -) 4 nm of Class C or D airspace

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5
Q

What is the max speed in airspace underlying class B airspace

A

200 knots

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6
Q

Max Holding speeds:

  • Up to 6,000’ MSL
  • 6,001’ - 14,000’ MSL
  • 14001’ - and above MSL
  • USAF fields unless otherwise depicted
  • USN fields unless otherwise depicted
A
  • 200 KIAS up to 6,000’ MSL
  • 230 KIAS 6,001’ - 14,000’ MSL
  • 265 KIAS 14001’ - and above MSL
  • 310 KIAS USAF fields unless otherwise depicted
  • 230 KIAS USN fields unless otherwise depicted
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7
Q

Timing for holds

  • At or below 14,000’ MSL:
  • Above 14,000 MSL:
A
  • At or below 14,000’ MSL: 1 minute legs

- Above 14,000 MSL: 1.5 minute legs

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8
Q

What does the Trouble T mean on a SID or approach plate?

A

An obstacle penetrates the 40:1 OIS and therefore a departure procedure and/or different weather minimums are published. If there is a trouble T, a diverse departure is not authorized. Look in the front of the approach book for specific guidance or procedures.

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9
Q

What is the criteria for diverse departures?

A

200 fpm, cross departure end at 35’ - 400’ before making any turn

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10
Q

How would you fly a STAR differently if you were cleared to ‘descend via’ the STAR vs ‘cleared for’ the STAR

A

Descend via means follow published vertical and lateral guidance. Cleared for means maintain last assigned altitude

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11
Q

If you arrive at an airport and are not on a published transition route and subsequently cleared for the approach, what are your actions?

A

Maintain last assigned altitude until you are established on a published portion of the approach procedure

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12
Q

List the differences between Class C and D airspace: (4)

A
  1. ) C: Surface to 4,000’ AGL within 5 nm of the core. 1200’-4000’ AGL within 10 nm of core
  2. ) C: 2-way comms, and Mode C transponder
  3. ) D: Surface - 2500’ AGL. Two-way comms (no mode C)
  4. ) For both, max 200 kts within 4 nm at and below 2500’ AGL.
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13
Q

What are your actions in the event of loss comms?

A

Route: Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed

Altitude (Highest of): Assigned, Minimum, Expected

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14
Q

What are the airspeeds that define Cat C, D, and E for circling and are they based off of GS, IAS, or TAS?

A

Old Minimums = 1.7 NM, 2.3 NM, 4.5 NM
Expanded Circling = 2.7 NM, 3.6 NM, 4.5 NM

C: 121-140 KIAS
D: 141-165 KIAS
E: >165 KIAS

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15
Q

How much airspace is protected for Class C, D, and E and on what point is that distance defined?

A

Old Minimums = 1.7 NM, 2.3 NM, 4.5 NM
Expanded Circling = 2.7 NM, 3.6 NM, 4.5 NM

These arcs are centered on each runway threshold and connected tangentially to form a continuous block of airspace that the pilot can use to maneuver and align the aircraft with the landing runway

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16
Q

What are the minimum altitudes over congested, non-congested airspace?

A

Congested: 1,000’ above highest obstacle and within 2,000’ horizontally of aircraft
Non-congested: 500’ above the surface except over water or sparsely settled areas and no less than 500’ from any person, vehicle, vessel or structure

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17
Q

What are the minimum IFR altitudes in mountainous and non-mountainous areas?

FAR 91.177 (Mountainous is defined in Part 95)

A
  • Mountainous: 2,000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the course to be flown
  • Non-mountainous: 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the course to be flown.
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18
Q

What is MOCA?

A

The Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude is the lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR Airways, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 SM (22NM) of a VOR.

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19
Q

What is MSA vs ESA

A

Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) is an altitude that provides adequate terrain clearance. MSA is computed by adding 1,000 feet to the elevation of the highest obstacle or terrain feature within 5 NM of centerline of a particular route segment, rounded up to the next 100-foot increment.

Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA) is computed the same except 2,000 feet in mountainous terrain and within 25 NM of low-level route

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20
Q

Dimensions of and altitudes of jet routes and victor airways

A

Jet routes: From 18,000’ MSL up to and including FL450 with no defined width

Victor airways: 1200’ AGL up to but not including 18,000’ MSL, with 4 NM width each side of course

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21
Q

What are the transponder codes for:

VFR
VR Routes
Hi-Jacking
Comm Failure
Emergency
A 
1200
4000
7500
7600
7700
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22
Q

When do you need to report a change in TAS to ATC?

A

Change of 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater from filed TAS

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23
Q

What is the standard formation by ATC standards?

A
  • Less than 1 mile either laterally or longitudinally

- Less than 100 ft vertically from lead by each wingman

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24
Q

What is Takeoff and Landing fuel management?

A

Takeoff and Landings fuel management is:

  1. ) Maximum useable fuel weights in tanks
  2. ) Tanks 1 and 4 always contain 500-1,000 lbs more fuel per tank than tanks 2 and 3
  3. ) The main tanks are full, except for fuel used for taxi, takeoff, and climb; but not less than 7,060 lbs in tanks 1 and 4 and 6,410 lbs in tanks 2 and 3 WHEN the external tanks contain useable fuel.
  4. ) Abide by Fuel unbalance limits of 1,000 lbs between symmetrical tanks. 1,500 lbs between the left and right wings. 1 auxiliary tank full and the other empty provided all other tanks are symmetrically fueled.
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25
Q

Why do we have en route fuel management?

A

En route fuel management seeks to maximize the weight in the outboard fuel tanks as long as possible. It improves wing-loading and efficiency during long transit legs. It will extend airframe service life, especially with medium to heavy loads.

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26
Q

What is en route fuel management?

A

Enroute Fuel management is:

  1. ) Maximum usable fuel weights in tanks
  2. ) When external and/or auxiliary tanks contain usable fuel, tanks 1 and 4 are maintained at a maximum fuel level of 8,310 and contain 500-1,000 lbs more fuel per tank than tanks 2 and 3.
  3. ) When external and/or auxiliary tanks DO NOT contain usable fuel, tanks 1 and 4 are maintained at a maximum fuel level of 8,310 lbs while tanks 2 and 3 are reduced to a level of 1,520 lbs. Fuel from 1 and 4 will then supply the motors until all main tanks reach a level of 1,520lbs. When all are about 1,520 lbs, establish tank-to-engine feed.
  4. ) Abide by Fuel unbalance limits of 1,000 lbs between symmetrical tanks. 1,500 lbs between the left and right wings. 1 auxiliary tank full and the other empty provided all other tanks are symmetrically fueled.
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27
Q

What are the max taxi speeds at 20° and 60 degrees of turn?

A

20 kts up to 20 degrees and 5 kts 21-60 degrees

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28
Q

What is the MAX normal and MAX alternate takeoff weight with externals and pods?

A

MAX normal is 164,000 lbs

MAX alternate is 175,000 lbs

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29
Q

What are the taxi and turn limits above 164,000 lbs?

A

Max 10 kts and 20 degrees of turn

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30
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landings?

A

35 kts

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31
Q

Which engine is critical in a 3-engine go-around?

A

Number 4 engine due to the aileron limit

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32
Q

What is the limitation regarding fuel in the fuselage tank with fuel in the externals?

A

Since CG shifts with changes in aircraft attitude, if fuel is carried in the fuselage tank, the external tanks should be empty when the fuselage tank contains less than 20,000 lbs, or the aircraft is restricted to level flight until external tanks are empty.

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33
Q

What is the difference between a “warning” and a “caution”?

A

A warning is an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.

A caution is an operating procedure, practice, or condition that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

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34
Q

What is the difference between “land as soon as possible” and “land as soon as practicable”

A

Land as soon as possible means land at the first airfield at which a safe landing can be made.

Land as soon as practicable means extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight is at the discretion of the pilot in command.

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35
Q

What do you cover in your takeoff? What would your calls be in the right seat during the takeoff roll if you had an actual refusal speed? i.e. refusal speed less than rotate speed?

A
  • Normal or static takeoff, aircraft weight, critical field length, refusal speed, takeoff speed, pilot’s intentions should be an emergency arise prior to or after refusal, RCR (wet or icy runway), departure procedures, fuel dumping considerations, etc.
  • In the right seat, call “V1” at refusal speed and “rotate” at rotate speed.
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36
Q

When do the outboard propellers have permission to autofeather?

A

Always

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37
Q

When do the inboard propellers have permission to autofeather?

A

-Below 15,500’, after two seconds, and other engines operating normally. If those conditions are not met the FADEC will windmill the propeller at 100% RPM

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38
Q

How does the airplane decide which FADEC is the master?

A

It alternates between the two

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39
Q

When does the FADEC require power from the aircraft electrical system?

A

At 40% NG it switches to PMA power

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40
Q

When an autofeather criteria is met, what does the FADEC do?

A
  • Attempt to maintain engine speed at idle NG
  • Initiates auto ignition
  • If no relight by the time NG decreases below 56% FADEC shuts down fuel.
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41
Q

Mission computer auto shutdown is disabled when?

A
  • ATCS switch off

- Any single FADEC inoperative

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42
Q

Does a FADEC need to be in control in order to be the master

A

No

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43
Q

How does the airplane protect against an underspeeding propeller?

A

FADEC decreases the blade angle

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44
Q

ATCS schedules power from 50-100% over what range?

A

40 kts

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45
Q

During ground operation, where does the air come from for oil cooler augmentation?

A

14th stage bleed air

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46
Q

In the beta and reverse range, how is prop blade angle scheduled?

A

By power lever angle and propeller blade angle is adjusted to maintain rpm (101% rpm in reverse range)

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47
Q

In the flight range, how is horse power and rpm governed?

A

Horsepower by power lever position and prop RPM to 100%

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48
Q

Placing the engine start switch to stop in flight for No 2 and 3 causes props to?

A

Windmill

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49
Q

Placing the engine start switch to stop in flight for No 1 and 4 causes props to?

A

Go to minimum drag (feathered)

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50
Q

How can the pilot override the automatic stop feature during start?

A

By holding the start switch to start

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51
Q

What will auto shut down the start sequence?

A
  • No lightoff
  • Stagnated start
  • Flameout
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52
Q

If the engine fails and auto-ignition fails, what happens?

A

Engine is shut down

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53
Q

During prop failure, what will the engine and prop do?

A
  • Engine will idle at 70-75% NG

- Prop will windmill at 100%

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54
Q

What is the minimum bleed air required to start engines? Is a momentary drop below acceptable?

A

22 PSI and yes

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55
Q

What are the five indications you would stop start for with the fire handle

A
  • ENG 1-4 Fire
  • ENG 1-4 MGT HI
  • START VLV Open
  • Visual indications of fire
  • Visual indications of fluid leak
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56
Q

Describe the start process

A
  • Fuel and ignition circuit energized at 14% NG
  • Four seconds later ignition energized and fuel flow begins
  • Fuel flow indication by 40% NG
  • Starter cutout and igniters stop at 65% NG
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57
Q

If fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition what action should be taken?

A

Motor the engine for at least 30 seconds

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58
Q

When attempting a second start, NG must be 0 for how long?

A

30 seconds

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59
Q

Pushing the throttles past ____ will automatically switch engines to high speed?

A

30 degrees

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60
Q

Any limitations for taxiing in hotel mode?

A

Not more than two engines in hotel mode

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61
Q

What is the recommended procedure for stopping the engines in hotel mode and why?

A

Move the propeller switch to normal to increase cooling air flow through the oil cooler

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62
Q

When attempting a second start, NG must be 0 for how long?

A

30 seconds

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63
Q

Action for hot oil while in hotel mode?

A

Place prop switch to normal

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64
Q

Can the engines be shut down in hotel mode?

A

Yes, but it is not recommended routinely because of minor oil seal leakage

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65
Q

It takeoff power is less than or equal to max continuous power, will a timer start?

A

No

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66
Q

For all in-flight engine shutdowns including takeoff and landing speeds above taxi speed, use the fire handle and place the engine start switch to stop except for:

A

Utility or booster system pressure high

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67
Q

What happens if the high-pressure prop oil pump loses all pressure?

A

Counterweight drives blade angles to 66 degrees and NP will stabilize at 40%

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68
Q

Do the FADECs control the aux feather pump

A

No, they are controlled independently and powered through the PROP AUX PUMP circuit breaker

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69
Q

Holding the propeller switch to unfeather does what?

A

Commands the propeller to unfeather and will run to reverse if held in unfeather

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70
Q

Where does the fuel to the APU come from?

A

No. 2 surge box

71
Q

What is the APU start duty cycle?

A

1 minute on, 4 minutes off

72
Q

Why are there 3 FLCVs in the outboard tanks?

A

2 for wing flex and one for on the ground?

73
Q

How does the plane pick the working transfer pump in the external tank?

A

Every time the tank transfer pump is turned on the pump alternates

74
Q

Can both external tank pumps work at the same time?

A

Yes during dumping

75
Q

Why do we drain the SPR? Where does the fuel go when the SPR drain is activated?

A
  • To avoid a severe fire in the case of hot brakes or brake fire
  • No. 3 tank
76
Q

Does the total fuel quantity indicator include the fuel in a failed indicated tank?

A

No

77
Q

What will be displayed for a failed fuel tank indicator and a degraded fuel tank indicator?

A

Dashed for failed and will continue to show fuel quantity if degraded.

78
Q

If the transfer pump in the fuselage tank is failed, can the fuel be transferred

A

Yes, by pressurization

79
Q

What are the fuel balance limits?

A
  • 1,000 lbs between symmetrical tanks, not including aux’s
  • 1,500 lbs between wings, not including auxiliaries
  • One aux tank can be full and the other empty, provided all other tanks are symmetrically fueled or unbalanced toward the opposite side within the above limits
80
Q

APU fire considerations when using the soft panel?

A

No indication in the fire handle but the fire handle still works

81
Q

What is the max MGT for a re-start attempt?

A

175 °C

82
Q

What is the max time for NG indication?

A

10 seconds

83
Q

What is the max time for engine and prop oil pressure indication?

A

15 seconds after NG and NP respectively

84
Q

What is powered by the auxiliary hydraulic system?

A
  • Ramp and Door
  • Emergency Brakes
  • Emergency nose gear extension
  • Ground test of the utility system
85
Q

With less than 2,000 lbs in the No. 2 tank, what needs to be turned on to get fuel to the APU?

A

-The No.2 boost pump

86
Q

If the APU does not start up the first time in very cold weather, what should you do?

A

Preheat the APU with an external source prior to attempting a second start

87
Q

How can you tell if external power is on and connected?

A

There is a small white spot surrounded by a green circle. The green circle indicates power is connected and the white dot indicates power is supplied in the correct phase.

88
Q

What function is available in the CNI-MU ECB pages that is not on the CNBP ECB page?

A

Strap and unstrap functions are available in the CNI-MU

89
Q

Which exterior lights have a covert function?

A

All except for leading edge lights and bottom anti-collision

90
Q

What happens when covert is selected for exterior lights?

A

The non-covert lighting is disabled

91
Q

How can you adjust the individual covert lights?

A

Lighting trim pages on the AMU

92
Q

Do not turn on the landing lights unless:

A

There is sufficient cooling from taxi or engine operation

93
Q

How long does the emergency lighting work in the flight station and what does it illuminate?

A
  • 30 minutes

- Standby instruments and reading lights.

94
Q

What is another source of auxiliary hydraulic pressure other than the electrical pump?

A

Hand pump

95
Q

When the aux pump is de-energized, where can pressure be read from?

A

The direct pressure gauge in the cargo compartment

96
Q

What is the purpose of the aileron diverter valve and how does it generally work?

A
  • Improved handling at speeds below 270 KIAS with the autopilot not engaged.
  • It bypasses the pressure reducing valve to supply high hydraulic pressure to the ailerons.
97
Q

How is the elevator trim controlled in normal and emergency?

A

Normal: from the yoke

Emergency: from the center console

98
Q

What does the spring-loaded flap brake release?

A
  • Manually by the manual shift handle or

- Hydraulic pressure supplied to the system for operation of the flap drive motor

99
Q

What will happen when the flap lever is set at more than 80% with gear not down?

A

Landing gear warning switch cannot be silenced

100
Q

What happens to the chaff buckets on the external tanks when the flaps are extended past 15%?

A

They are disabled

101
Q

For landing, what must the flaps be past in order to not get the flaps call?

A

40%, but it can be silenced via the AMU

102
Q

For takeoff, what must the flaps and trim be set at in order to not get the flaps or trim calls?

A

-Flaps: 50% +/- 8% or

Trim: 0° +/- 5° elevator trim

103
Q

Once the emergency flap brake is activated for asymmetrical flaps, can the flaps be moved?

A

Not until on the ground and the brake is reset

104
Q

Where should airspeed be kept during stall recovery?

A

5-10 kts above stall until level flight

105
Q

During stick-pusher test, within what time do both buttons need to be pressed?

A

5 seconds

106
Q

How many times can you try to test the stick pusher before it must cool and what is the cooling time?

A

5 consecutive times and then you must give it 5 minutes to cool before attempting again

107
Q

Describe the flap retraction schedule:

A 
Simple:
Below 140,000 lbs: 
--MFRS 135 Kts - FUSS Vobs + 25
Above 140,000 lbs:
--MFRS Vobs +5 - FUSS Vobs + 25

Expanded
1.) < 100,000 lbs - raise flaps passing FUSS, (135 KIAS)

  1. ) 100,000 - 140,000 lbs - begin flap retraction at 135 KIAS and end at FUSS, (Vobs +25)
  2. ) >140,000 lbs - raise flaps in 10% increments for each 5 kt increase in airspeed, beginning at minimum flap retraction speed (Vobs +5) and ending at FUSS (Vobs +25)
108
Q

What is the max continuous APU temp?

A
  • 680°C

- 710°C for 3 seconds yields ACAWS

109
Q

What are the MGT limits?

A
  • Max on start is 807°C (2 seconds over buffer allowed)
  • Max on takeoff is ≤852°C
  • Max continuous MGT is <833°C
110
Q

What are the max tire speeds?

A
  • 139 kts GS on nose tires

- 174 kts GS on main tires

111
Q

What are the requirements to land at greater than 300 ft/min?

A

Must reference the charts but gouge number is if you have less than 26,000 lbs of fuel, you dag’gon rate 540 FPM

112
Q

What are the POD pumps rated at?

A

45 +- 10 PSI and pump up to 300 GPM

113
Q

When do you need an alternate (time period and weather)? What are the weather requirements for an alternate?

A

An alternate airfield is required when the weather at the destination is forecast to be less than 3,000-foot ceiling and 3-statute-mile visibility during the period 1 hour before ETA until 1 hour after ETA.

If your destination weather is from 0-0 or up to but not including published minimums than your alternate must be 3,000-3 or better

If your destination weather is at minimums up to but not including 3,000-3, then you must have published minimums PLUS 200-.5 for precision or 300-1 for non-precision.

If your destination weather is 3,000-3 or better, you don’t need an alternate.

114
Q

What are the CNAF fuel requirements with and without an alternate? What are the SOP requirements?

A

If an alternate is not required, fuel to fly from takeoff to destination airfield, plus a reserve of 10 percent of planned fuel requirements.

If an alternate is required, fuel to fly from takeoff to the approach fix serving destination and thence to an alternate airfield, plus a reserve of 10 percent of planned fuel requirements.

In no case shall the planned fuel reserve after final landing at the destination or alternate airfield, if one is required, be less than that needed for 20 minutes of flight, computed as follows:
(2) Turbine-powered fixed-wing/tiltrotor aircraft. Compute fuel consumption based on maximum endurance operation at 10,000 feet.

SOP:
-Minimum planned fuel overhead (or commencing approach) shall be no less than 6,000 pounds

115
Q

What is minimum fuel overhead, minimum fuel, and emergency fuel

A

Overhead (or IAF) at 6,000 lbs
Minimum fuel is landing with less than 5,000 lbs
Emergency fuel is landing with less than 3,000 lbs

116
Q

When do you need an ETP?

A

Equal Time Point (ETP) is the point at which the aircraft will spend the same amount of time continuing to the destination or returning to the departure point.

On all overwater flights, two ETPs must be determined. The first should be based on flight plan cruise altitude, and the second should be for flight at 10,000 feet with four engines operating. The second ETP is used in the event of loss of pressurization.

117
Q

What is the difference between PSR and a PNR?

A

?

118
Q

What are the OPNAV rules regarding oxygen?

A

All occupants aboard naval aircraft shall use oxygen when cabin alt exceeds 10,000 feet.

If oxygen is unavailable to other occupants between 10,000-13,000 feet, flight shall not exceed 3 hours in duration. Flight above 13,000 is prohibited.

119
Q

What is the void time for a weather briefing

A

Valid for only 3.0 hours past briefing or ETD plus half an hour.

120
Q

What weather minimums are required for an instrument departure?

A

Published minimums for the available precision approach but not less than 200-(1/2) OR non-precision approach, but not less than 300-1.

121
Q

What are the 5 ORM principles?

A
  1. ) Identify hazards
  2. ) Assess hazards
  3. ) Make risk decisions
  4. ) Implement controls
  5. ) Supervise
122
Q

The ORM process is utilized on three levels based upon time and assets available.

A
  1. ) Time-critical
  2. ) Deliberate
  3. ) In-depth
123
Q

The ORM process is guided by which four principles

A
  1. ) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
  2. ) Accept no unnecessary risk
  3. ) Anticipate and manage risk by planning
  4. ) Make risk decisions at the right level.
124
Q

What are the critical CRM skills?

A 
D-Decision-making
A-Assertiveness
M-Missions Analysis
C-Communication
L-Leadership
A-Adaptability/Flexibility
S-Situational Awareness
125
Q

What are the rules regarding the use of alcohol prior to flight? How would you enforce these rules on the road as the AC or assisting your AC as a T2P?

A

Alcohol prohibited within 12 hours of flight planning and you must be free of the effects

Set the limitations/boundaries and timeline immediately.

126
Q

When are the anti-exposure suits required?

A

Water temperature below 50°F or OAT below 32°F

127
Q

When does crew day start and end for planning purposes?

A

Starts 2 hours prior to takeoff and ends 1 hour after shutdown.

128
Q

What is the maximum crew duty day?

A

Flight crews should not be scheduled for continuous alert and/or flight duty in excess of 18 hours. Crew day is limited to 15 hours if starting between 1700-0459. 12 hours max crew days without an operable autopilot.

129
Q

What are the rules regarding crew rest?

A

Crew rest is the non-duty time before a flight duty period begins. It includes free time for meals, transportation, and rest and must include an opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep time for every 24 hour period. Crew rest does not begin until after termination of official duties and is required prior to reporting for preflight preparations. Crew rest can be reduced to less than 12 hours, but a shortened crew rest period (for example to maintain circadian rhythm) must always include an opportunity for 8-hours of uninterrupted sleep.

130
Q

Flights that encounter more than isolated thunderstorms must have what?

A

Operable radar

131
Q

What are the minimum O2 requirements for overwater and overland flights?

A 
Overwater = 18 litres
Overland = 10 litres
132
Q

If a TPC has not flown in the last 30 days, what must be done?

A

Must fly with another TPC

133
Q

If a TPC has not flown in the last 15 days, what is the restriction?

A

The TPC cannot sign for an aircraft to fly a night flight until a day flight has been completed.

134
Q

What are the takeoff and landing limits for BASH moderate or high?

A

Moderate: limited to meet operational requirements, i.e. one takeoff and landing
Severe: MAG CO approval required

135
Q

What is the VMGR mission?

A

The mission of VMGR-252 is to support the MAGTF commander by providing air-to-air refueling, assault support, and offensive air support, day or night under all weather conditions during expeditionary, joint, or combined operations.

136
Q

What are the six functions of Marine Aviation?

A 
Assault Support
Aerial Reconnaissance
Anti-Aircraft Warfare
Control of Missiles and Aircraft
Electronic Warefare
Offensive Air Support
137
Q

Minimum runway requirements for a take-off and landing for training and sustainment/operational

A

Training:

  • Landing: 3,000 feet or ground roll plus 1,000’, whichever is greater
  • Takeoff: 3,000 feet or ground run plus 1,000’ or AMFLMETO + 500’, whichever is greater

Sustainment: training/Operational

  • Landing: Ground roll plus 500’ computed with 4-eng reverse and full brakes. No wind. 150% tailwind
  • Take-off: Ground run plus 500’ or AFLMETO, whichever is greater. No wind. 150% tailwind.
138
Q

IR cooled approaches should be planned at speeds between ____ and _____ and aircrews should plan to not exceed _____

A

210-250 knots, Vh

139
Q

During combat offload operation the load weight on the ramp must not exceed ____ pounds

A

15,000 lbs

140
Q

If all checklists have not been completed by the ____ call a “No drop” will be called. No drop calls are acknowledged by the _____

A

10-second call; PF, PM, and CM

141
Q

When climbing or descending during preplanned weather penetration lead shall call passing each 500 feet of altitude with _____

A

Heading, airspeed, and vertical speed indicator calls

142
Q

CRM calls associated with respective GCAS/TCAS alerts:

"ALTITUDE"
"TERRAIN AHEAD"
"OBSTACLE AHEAD"
"TERRAIN"
"PULL UP"
A 
"ALTITUDE" - Correcting
"TERRAIN AHEAD" - Acknowledged
"OBSTACLE AHEAD" - Acknowledged
"TERRAIN" - Clear and correcting
"PULL UP" - Immediate power and climb to avoid terrain
143
Q

Parachutist may operate without supplemental oxygen during unpressurized flight up to _____ feet, provided time above _____ does not exceed _____ for each sortie

A

13,000 feet, 10,000 feet, 30 minutes

144
Q

Drop zone surveys are valid for how many years after the date of MAJCOM approval?

A

5 years

145
Q

The receiver and tanker will monitor primary and alternate AAR frequencies and will have electronic RV equipment on a minimum of ____ min prior to ARCT

A

10 minutes

146
Q

For an RV Delta (Head-on offset) the tanker will arrive abeam the ____, ____ minutes prior to the ARCT

A

HAAR = ARIP 3 minutes prior to the ARCT.

TAAR = ARIP 3 minutes or 6 minutes prior to the ARCT (Pubs are conflicting)

147
Q

The ARCT is the control time for the _____ helicopter at the _____

A

Lead, ARCP

148
Q

In regards to HAAR, describe a “no visual contact” procedure and when would I use it.

A

Loss of visual contact, electronic contact maintained- Tanker

  • Turn 45° right of track heading
  • Lower flaps to air refueling configuration (as req)
  • Slow to refueling airspeed
  • Transmit: “no visual contact”
  • After 30 seconds, turn left and resume track heading
  • The tanker will maintain electronic contact and a position 1-2 NM behind receivers until visual contact is re-established.
149
Q

HAAR timing tolerance receivers will be on-time to ____, Tanker will be on-time to _____

A

1 minute early, 1 minute late

150
Q

What is the minimum visibility for an NVG air refueling RV

A

ATP-56(C) states 3 nm for visual RV; 1 nm for electronic RV

NVD 9th edition manual further restricts this: Minimum visibility for NVG-aided rendezvous is 3 nm

151
Q

Describe the various cruise profiles. When would you use each of them?

A

Long Range Cruise: Set fuel flow and cross-check HP from the operating chart for the particular flight gross weight and altitude.

Constant TAS: Maintain climb power on the aircraft until the desired TAS is obtained.Reduce HP for the remainder of the flight to maintain this TAS as the aircraft becomes lighter in weight.

High-speed cruise: Fly maximum continuous HP for all gross weights, altitudes, and outside air temperature. Observe Vh limitations.

Maximum endurance: Speed with minimum fuel flow for maximum time in the air. When maximum endurance is required, use power settings to maintain the airspeed from the performance charts for the gross weight and the flight altitude.

152
Q

Describe factors affecting range. What is specific ground range (SGR)? What is specific air range (SAR)?

A

Fuel temperature: colder temp = denser fuel

Altitude: engine specific fuel consumptions improve with increasing altitude, so maximum range is obtained by four-engine cruise-climb operation.

Icing: Power loss up to 25-30%, TAS decreased by 20%, range decreased by 16%

Temperature: High-speed cruise vs long-range cruise

Headwind/tailwind: self-explanatory

Partial power cruise: less power (or 3 or 2 engine) operation can extend range.

Alternate fuels: varying fuels have different densities

Weight: range increases with decreasing weight

SGR is GS/FF
SAR is TAS/FF

153
Q

Whatis Vmca1 based on?

A
  • No 1 engine failed and autofeathered
  • ATCS operating
  • Max power on operating engines
  • Max rudder deflection limited to 150 lbs of rudder pedal force or max rudder control surface deflection.
  • Min flying weight
  • 5 degrees bank away from the failed engine
  • Zero rudder trim

VMCA1: wing level increased VMCA1 by 23 KIAS w/flaps up and 43 KIAS w/flaps 50% at light gross weights

154
Q

How is rotation speed defined?

A

Ensures liftoff speed is greater than air minimum control speed and the obstacle clearance speed is at least 1.2 times the power off stall speed.

155
Q

How is threshold speed defined

A

Flaps 100% = Vs x 1.32
Flaps 50% = Vs x 1.28
Flaps 0% = Vs x 1.28
Max effort threshold = 1.1 Vs + 5.5 KIAS

156
Q

How is Vmcg defined?

A

Minimum airspeed the aircraft may lose an outboard engine during the ground run and still maintain directional control (within 30 feet)

157
Q

What is CFL

A

Runway distance required to accelerate on all engines to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure, then continue take-off or stop.

158
Q

What is critical engine failure speed

A

Critical engine failure speed (based on critical field length) is the speed the aircraft can accelerate to, lose an engine, and then either continue the take-off or stop in the same total runway distance.

159
Q

How is refusal speed defined? What changes when it is above or below rotation speed?

A

It is based on runway available and is the max speed to which the aircraft can accelerate with engines at take-off power and then stop with 2 engines in reverse, 1 engine in ground idle, 1 propeller feathered, and max anti-skid brakes. When refusal is > T/O speed, T/O becomes refusal and if refusal < T/O speed, an acceleration check time is required.

It is also important to check Vmcg and ensure there is no “Dead man’s zone”. Also, if Vmca1 is greater than T/O speed, it becomes the new T/O speed.

160
Q

When do you do an acceleration check time?

A

Time normally required to accelerate to a given speed (3-knot tolerance). Use the highest of 60 in 120 knots increments of 10 that will not exceed refusal speed minus 10 knots. Do one whenever refusal speed is < T/O

161
Q

What is brake energy limit speed?

A

Max speed at which the brakes can be applied without exceeding the energy absorption limit of the brakes

162
Q

What is the minimum power restoration speed?

A

With ATCS operating, the airspeed at which the outboard engine is restored to full power

163
Q

How is take-off distance defined?

A

Distance required to accelerate to take-off speed, lift off, and climb to a 50’ height

164
Q

How is take-off ground run defined?

A

Distance from brake release to lift-off point

165
Q

What is ATC ceiling?

A

Altitude at which max rate of climb at max continuous power and best climb speed is 500’/min

166
Q

What is cruise ceiling?

A

Altitude at which max rate of climb at max continuous power and best climb speed is 300’/min

167
Q

What is service ceiling?

A

Altitude at which max rate of climb at max continuous power and best climb speed is 100’/min

168
Q

How do you perform a driftdown?

A

Maintain the driftdown airspeed until the rate of descent decreases to 100’/min, then maintain 100’/min until reaching the appropriate service ceiling altitude

169
Q

What are the RCR values for dry, wet, and icy?

A

RCR:

Dry-23
Wet-12
Icy-5

170
Q

What is the propeller crosswind limitation for takeoff?

A

With a crosswind between 15-35 knots with wind direction between 45° and 315° relative to the runway, set T/O power to 2500 HP or less until 35 KIAS and then advance to full power. Add 200’ for all T/O distances and subtract 200’ from runway distance for refusal speed.

171
Q

How is a headwind used for acceleration time check, takeoff and landing distances, and obstacle clearance?

A

Headwind: apply 100% for acceleration check time, 50% for take-off and landing distances, and obstacle clearance.

172
Q

How is a tailwind used for acceleration time check, takeoff and landing distances, and obstacle clearance?

A

Apply 100% for acceleration-check, 150% for take-off and landing distances and obstacle clearance.

173
Q

How do gusts affect takeoff and landing speeds?

A

Always increase rotation, take-off, approach, threshold, and touchdown speed by gust face up to 10 knots

KC-130J T2P Question Bank (1 decks)

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