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E175 (Envoy) > Question Bank > Flashcards

Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q
  1. How many Cabin Doors provide access to the aircraft cabin?
A

4

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2
Q
  1. How many Cargo Compartments are on the ERJ 175?
A

2

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3
Q
  1. Are both Cargo Compartments pressurized?
A

Yes

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4
Q

Can the DV windows be removed by the crew?

A

no

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5
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the Ramp Horn buttons installed in the cockpit?
A

To call Ground Personnel via a continuous horn sound (when pressed)

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6
Q
  1. When pressing the Annunciators Test Button all striped bars and caption indications illuminate except?
A

a. EMRG/PRKG BRAKE light
b. GPU Pushbutton light
c. Fire Test Lights

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7
Q
  1. How is a “bad” DVDR test alerted?
A

a. Indicated by a CVR AFT (FWD) FAIL advisory message on the EICAS when the TEST button on the DVDR unit is pressed

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8
Q
  1. Where can the Oxygen Quantity be read?
A

a. MFD STATUS page (corrected for temperature) &

b. At the oxygen cylinder panel (uncorrected for temperature)

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9
Q
  1. Do the cockpit crew and the passengers share the same emergency oxygen?
A

a. No, the cockpit uses an oxygen cylinder and the cabin passengers use oxygen chemical generators.

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10
Q
  1. Once a chemical oxygen generator (cabin) is activated, can it be shut off?
A

no

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11
Q
  1. What is the minimum oxygen for the cockpit crew?
A

a. 2 crew: Blue for 2

b. 3 crew: Green for 3

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12
Q
  1. What activates when the flight deck oxygen masks are removed from their storage unit?
A

a. Flow of oxygen
b. Mask microphone
c. Flight deck speakers

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13
Q

What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed with the flight deck oxygen masks not stowed?

A

a. Stops flow of oxygen.
b. Deactivates mask microphone.
c. Deactivates flight deck speakers.

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14
Q
  1. What are the different modes of the cockpit quick donning 02 mask?
A

a. Emergency Setting - Pure oxygen with positive pressure.
b. 100% Setting - Pure oxygen at all altitudes.
c. Normal Setting - Oxygen/Air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)

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15
Q
  1. During preflight, how would you know if the cockpit crew oxygen had been over pressurized?
A

a. The green blowout disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage.

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16
Q
  1. What is the oxygen duration of an oxygen chemical generator?
A

a. 12 minutes

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17
Q
  1. When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
A

a. Cabin altitude of 14,000 MSL.

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18
Q
  1. Can the oxygen door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?
A

a. Yes, via a manual release tool (MRT) located each FA station.

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19
Q
  1. What does the PBE provide?
A

a. Pressurized oxygen and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire up to 40,000 ft for at least 15 minutes.
b. Blue indication: Good
C. Pink: Bad
d. Vacuum loss: Bad (even with a blue indication)

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20
Q
  1. How many portable oxygen cylinders are installed in the cabin?
A

a. 3 - one in the FWD section and 2 in the AFT section

i. 2 masks per cylinder

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21
Q
  1. List some of the Emergency Equip. items located within the cockpit?
A

a. Fire Ext, PBE, 3 Life Vests, Crash Axe, 2 Escape Ropes, 3 02 Masks

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22
Q
  1. What is bleed air used for?
A

a. ECS (heating & cooling)
b. Engine start
c. Engine and wing anti-icing
d. Water pressurization

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23
Q

What is external pneumatic air used for?

A

a. ECS on the ground

b. Engine start on the ground

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24
Q

Where is the external ground source panel located?

A

Lower fairing between the wings

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25
Q

What is the Primary use for APU Bleed Air?

A

a. ECS on the ground
b. Engine starting on the ground
c. Assist with engine start(< FL210)
Bleed source for pressurization, heating, and cooling(< 15,000 ft MSL

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26
Q

Can engine bleed air flow-back to the APU?

A

a. No. A check valve prevents flow-back

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27
Q

Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?

A

a. 6th and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)

b. System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure

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28
Q

What is the Purpose of the Pre-cooler?

A

Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS

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29
Q

What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe?

A

a. Engine bleeds and packs
b. APU bleed
c. Plumbing for the wing and engine anti-icing system

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30
Q
  1. Is one Detection Loop capable of detecting an overheat condition?
A

Yes (if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat)

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31
Q
  1. How many ECS packs are installed?
A

a. 2 independent packs (left and right)

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32
Q

Can a single ECS pack provide temperature control and pressurization

A

a. Yes, but limited to operations at or below FL310

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33
Q
  1. Can a single Bleed Source power both ECS Packs?
A

a. Yes, through the Crossbleed valve

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34
Q
  1. When are the Recirculation Fans commanded off?
A

a. Cockpit switch
b. Smoke detected in the recirc bay
c. DUMP button is pressed
d. Respective pack is commanded off

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35
Q

What keeps the 3 Avionic E-BAYs cool?

A

a. FWD & CTR E-BAY fans (3) pull air from Cabin to E-Bay

b. AFT E-BAY Natural air-flow from cabin to bay

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36
Q

When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated?

A

a. Both packs commanded or failed OFF below 25,000 feet (via left side and electronically controlled)
b. Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure (via right side)

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37
Q
  1. How is the APU controlled?
A

a. Via a dedicated FADEC.

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38
Q
  1. What Battery is used for the APU Ground Start?
A

BATT 2 powers the starter.

BATT 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring

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39
Q
  1. Where does the APU get its fuel?
A

a. Right Fuel Tank.

b. Left Fuel Tank (through the Crossfeed valve)

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40
Q
  1. What Fuel Pumps are capable of providing fuel to the APU?
A

a. Batteries ‘ON’ only= DC Fuel Pump in Right Tank
b. AC powered airplane= ACMP 2
c. Right engine running = RH Ejector Fuel Pump

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41
Q

What does moving the APU start switch to ‘OFF’ do?

A

a. Initiates Normal APU Shutdown
b. Closes APU Bleed Valve
c. 1-minute cool down

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42
Q
  1. Can a normal APU shutdown be canceled?
A

a. Yes, by moving the START switch back to ‘ON’ before the 1-minute cool down is over.

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43
Q
  1. How can you shutdown the APU immediately?
A

a. APU Emergency Stop button (no 1-minute cool down period)

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44
Q
  1. What will happen if the Batteries are turned OFF during the 1-minute cool­ down period?
A

a. APU will shut down immediately

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45
Q
  1. When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur on the ground?
A

a. Overspeed
b. Underspeed
c. FADEC critical fault
d. APU Fire
e. APU EGT overtemperature
f. APU high oil temperature
g. APU low oil pressure
h. Sensor fail

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46
Q
  1. When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur in flight?
A

a. Overspeed
b. Underspeed
c. FADEC Critical Fault

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47
Q
  1. What happens when you turn the APU Start Knob to ON?
A

a. Powers the APU FADEC
b. Displays viable APU EICAS information following FADEC self-test
c. Opens the APU Fuel Shutoff Valve

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48
Q
  1. When is electrical and pneumatic loading available during APU start?
A

a. 95% RPM plus 3 seconds

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49
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the BANK Button?
A

a. Enables and disables bank angle to 17° used in the HOG mode

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50
Q
  1. What is the Normal Disengagement process for the Autopilot?
A

a. Pressing the Quick Disconnect button on either control wheel
i. Pressing once triggers aural warning “Autopilot”
ii. Pressing a second time cancels the aural warning and cancels the FMA annunciation.

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51
Q

.J 3. Non-Normal Autopilot disengage occurs via?

A

a. AP button pressed on the guidance panel
b. Either manual pitch trim is actuated
c. Either stick shaker is activated
d. Windshear Escape guidance is activated

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52
Q

When will the FD automatically turn ON in Flight? (4 situations)

A

a. TO/GA button actuation
b. Manual selection of any vertical and lateral mode
c. Autopilot engagement
d. Windshear detection

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53
Q

Describe the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) color codes?

A

a. Magenta - FMS commanded active/engaged mode
b. Green - Non-FMS commanded active/engaged mode
c. White - Armed mode
d. Amber - Alert condition
e. Red - Abnormal condition

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54
Q
  1. Describe the TO Pitch Angle Logic when airborne and IAS is greater than speed target?
A

a. All engines operating - V2 + 10kt
b. One Engine Inoperative:
i. Engine failure below V2 - V2
ii. Engine failure between V2 and V2 + 10kt - Maintains Speed
iii. Engine failure above V2 - Guides V2 + 1Okts

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55
Q
  1. What is the initial pitch guidance when the GA mode is active?
A

a. 8°

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56
Q

What target speed will the FD command during a Go Around?

A

a. All Engines Operating - Vret + 20kt

b. One Engine Inoperative - Vac

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57
Q

What alerts are generated during a Windshear Caution or Windshear Warning

A

a. Caution:
i. Amber WSHR on the PFD
ii. Aural “CAUTION WINDSHEAR”
b. Warning:
i. Red WSHR on the PFD
ii. Aural “WINDSHEAR,WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”

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58
Q
  1. What parameters must be meet to enable APPR 2?
A

a. Both RA/BARO knobs set to RA
b. Both NAV freqs. set to correct LOC freq. in the MCDU
c. Both PFD’s set to correct LOC inbound course
d. SLAT/FLAP 5 Max

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59
Q

How is the Auto-Throttle (AT) armed while on the ground?

A

a. AT Button pressed on the Guidance Panel

b. No AT Active Failures

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60
Q
  1. When does the Auto-throttle automatically disengage?
A

a. After touchdown
b. Thrust levers beyond the TO/GA position
c. Reverse thrust operation during RTO
i. Non-normal disengagement:
1. Difference in TLA greater than 8° 2 . Auto-throttle failure

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61
Q
  1. The CLB Thrust mode engages when?
A

a. Landing Gear Retracted
b. Airplane above 400’ AGL
c. Any change in FD Vertical Mode

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62
Q
  1. How may the COMM(s) be tuned?
A

a. Either MCDU via the RADIO Page
b. Respective Sides CCD/PFD
i. CA’s Side= COMM/NAV 1
ii. FO’s Side= COMM/NAV 2

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63
Q
  1. How may the NAV(s) be tuned?
A

a. Either MCDU via the RADIO Page
b. Respective Sides CCD/PFD
i. CA’s Side = COMM/NAV 1
ii. FO’s Side = COMM/NAV 2

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64
Q
  1. If the Primary and Secondary radio functions are not available, would you be able to still tune COMM(s), NAV(s) and XPDR(s)?
A

a. Yes, via the Backup Tuning function

i. The BACKUP RADIO page on MCDU2 provides a backup tuning interface for COM 1, VHF 1 and XPDR 1 (ALT MODE OFF).

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65
Q
  1. What is the difference between the Pedestal PA button and the ACP PA button?
A

a. Pedestal is active/hot mic only when pressed
b. ACP button is active/hot mic after being selected and must be deselected to change the connection to inactive/cold mic

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66
Q
  1. What Display Units normally display when Batteries are set to “On” and “Auto”?
A

a. Display Units 2 and 3 (CA’s MFD / EICAS)

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67
Q
  1. What provides AC power to the aircraft?
A

a. 2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG)
b. Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
c. AC Inverter
d. Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
e. AC GPU

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68
Q
  1. What provides DC power to the aircraft?
A

a. 2 NiCad batteries
b. 3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU)
C. DC GPU

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69
Q

The IDG(s) are monitored and controlled by what?

A

a. Dedicated Generator Control Unit (GCU)

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70
Q
  1. The amber IDG light(s) will illuminate for?
A

a. High oil temperature

b. Low oil pressure

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71
Q

The priority for AC power on the aircraft is?

A

a. Onside (IDG)
b. Inside (APU)
c. Outside (GPU)
d. Cross-Side (other IDG)

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72
Q

How are the aircraft batteries charged?

A

a. An AC power source providing power to the TRU(s)

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73
Q

The batteries should last for how many minutes without being recharged

A

a. 10 minutes

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74
Q

What is the purpose of the inverter?

A

a. Converts 28 VDC from the batteries to 115 VAC to power the AC STANDBY BUS when an AC source is not available.

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75
Q

What is powered via the AC STANDBY BUS?

A

a. Engine Exciters 1A and 2A

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76
Q
  1. When will the RAT deploy?
A

a. Main AC SUSSES loss power

b. Manually via the RAT Deployment Handle

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77
Q

How long after deployment before the RAT will supply power?

A

a. 8 seconds

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78
Q
  1. ls there a total loss of power during the 8 second RAT deployment?
A

a. NO, because the Batteries supply power to the DC ESS SUSSES and AC STANDBY BUS.

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79
Q
  1. What does the RAT directly power?
A

a. AC ESS BUS

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80
Q
  1. What is minimum airspeed that the RAT is capable of providing AC Power?
A

a. 130 kts (load shedding occurs below this speed)

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81
Q
  1. What manages the electrical system?
A

a. 4 Integrated Control Centers (ICC)

b. 2 Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA)

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82
Q
  1. Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA remote electronic CB’s?
A

a. ICC CB’s can only be reset by maintenance on the ground.

b. SPDA CB’s can be reset via the MCDU

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83
Q

The Integrated Drive Generators (IDG’s) and APU Generator are electrically rated at

A

a. 115VAC
b. 40 KVA
c. 400 Hz

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84
Q
  1. What is the RAT rated at?
A

a. 115VAC
b. 15 KVA
c. 400 Hz

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85
Q
  1. Describe how BATT 2 is configured during an APU start?
A

a. BATT 2 is isolated from the system and tied directly to the APU START BUS to power the APU Starter

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86
Q
  1. What is min BATT VDC to start the APU without following a Recharge Procedure?
A

a. . 22.5 voe

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87
Q
  1. What type of batteries do we have?
A

a. Two NiCad 22.8 voe, 27 A batteries

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88
Q
  1. What types of engines are on the aircraft?
A

a. Two General Electric CF34-8E5

b. High-bypass ratio, 2-Spool, Axial-Flow, Turbo-Fan

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89
Q
  1. How much Thrust do the Engines Produce when set to T0-1 & TO RSV?
A

a. TO-1 = 13,000 (ISA at sea level).

b. TO RSV= 14,200 (ISA at sea level).

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90
Q
  1. How many lgniters per Engine?
A

a. 2 per engine

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91
Q
  1. How many lgniters activate for Engine Start?
A

a. Ground= 1 igniter (AUTO)

b. Flight = 2 igniters (AUTO)

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92
Q
  1. What happens when the Ignition Switch is selected to OVRD?
A

a. Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight.

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93
Q
  1. Can the lgniters be turned OFF during flight?
A

a. The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC disregards the command.
b. The OFF position is used for dry motoring on the ground only.

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94
Q
  1. What controls the engine?
A

a. A two-channel FADEC

b. One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup

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95
Q
  1. Do the FADEC(s) alternate automatically during engine start?
A

a. YES (unless a fault is noted)

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96
Q
  1. What does the Cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach?
A

f a. The minimum N1 for Bleed requirements in Icing Conditions.

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97
Q

When does the Cyan line appear?

A

Configured for landing< 1200’ RA

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98
Q

The Engine may be started via what means?

A

a. APU
b. Ground Source (Huffer cart or Air Bottle)
c. Opposite Engine X-Bleed start
d. Windmill start

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99
Q
  1. Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
A

a. Yes, but only on the ground during a hot start, hung start or no light-off.

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100
Q
  1. During an Engine Start, the FADEC will prevent Fuel Flow introduction with an ITT greater than?
A

120

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101
Q

Describe a normal Engine Start sequence (on the ground)?

A

a. Start switch momentarily to START (At least 2 sec)
b. 7% N2 = Ignition
c. 20% N2 = Fuel flow
d. 5 sec after Fuel Flow= Light-off (IGN ON)
I e. 50% N2 = Ignition off/Starter Cutout

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102
Q

What does the WML indication mean on the EICAS?

A

a. Wind-milling engine &
b. The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or
c. An assisted start has been commanded.

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103
Q
  1. What provides underspeed and overspeed protection?
A

a. The FADEC via the FMU (Fuel Metering Unit)

b. @Approximately 52% N2 and 102% N2 respectively

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104
Q
  1. What happens after 3 overspeed detection events?
A

a. FADEC will not re-light the engine

b. (3 events within 30 seconds to trigger it)

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105
Q
  1. What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil?
A

a. Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger (i.e. Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler)

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106
Q
  1. What does ATTCS stand for?
A

a. Automatic Take-off Thrust Control System

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107
Q
  1. What controls ATTCS?
A

a. FADEC controlled

b. Provides max thrust reserve (RSV) according to current rate previously selected via the MCDU

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108
Q
  1. What will trigger an ATTCS event?
A

a. N1 difference >15% between engines (or)
b. Engine failure during TOGA (or)
c. Windshear detected

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109
Q
  1. When is thrust reverse available?
A

a. Weight-on-wheels (ground use only)

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110
Q
  1. What happens if a Thrust Reverser inadvertently deploys in flight?
A

a. FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE

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111
Q
  1. What is the time limit for TOGA Thrust?
A

a. 5 minutes

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112
Q
  1. What is FLEX?
A

a. Reduced takeoff thrust based on assumed temperature

b. (telling the FADEC that it is warmer than it actually is so it will reduce the thrust)

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113
Q
  1. Flex Thrust is limited to no more than_ percent of normal T0-1 or T0-2 Thrust?
A

25%

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114
Q
  1. What airplane systems have Fire Detection and Protection?
A

a. Engines
b. APU
c. Cargo Compartments
d. Lavatories

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115
Q
  1. How are the engines and APU protected from fire?
A

a. Engines: 2 Halon fire bottles

b. APU 1 Halon fire bottle dedicated to the APU only

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116
Q
  1. Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?
A

a. YES

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117
Q

What is the power source for engine and APU fire detection and
protection?

A

a. Engine Detection= DC ESS
b. Engine Protection = HOT BATT
c. APU Detection = DC ESS
d. APU Protection= DC ESS

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118
Q

Fire Test lights?

A

The master WARNING lights flash.
The fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady.
The APU fire-extinguishing button and the upper half of the APU emergency stop button to illuminate.

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119
Q

Fire Test EICAS MESSAGES?

A

ENG 1 FIRE
ENG 2 FIRE APU FIRE
CRG AFT SMOKE CRG FWD SMOKE

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120
Q

FIRE EICAS MESSAGES

A

The FIRE warning light on the ITT indicators illuminate

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121
Q

FIRE TEST SYSTEM CONFIGURATIONS

A

The forward cargo compartment fan turns off
The cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve closes
a. (Only when bleed air is being provided by the engines or the APU).

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122
Q

J 6. What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?

A

a. Closes respective engine fuel SOV.
b. Closes respective engine hydraulic SOV.
c. Closes respective engine bleed SOV.
d. Closes the Crossbleed Valve

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123
Q
  1. What is an indication of an APU fire?
A

a. Fire Aural Warning(s)
b. Red stripe in the EMER STOP button.
c. APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS

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124
Q
  1. When will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
A

a. On the ground (after 10 seconds)

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125
Q

What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?

A

a. APU shuts off immediately (without a 1-minute cool down)
b. APU fuel SOV closes
c. APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates

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126
Q
  1. What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been detected?
A

a. After one minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates.

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127
Q
  1. Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?
A

a. NO

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128
Q
  1. How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?
A

a. 3 detectors in the FWD compartment.

b. 2 detectors in the AFT compartment.

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129
Q
  1. What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
A

a. FWD Cargo Recirculation Fan shuts off

b. FWD Cargo Ventilation Outflow Valve closes

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130
Q
  1. How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?
A

a. 2 bottles (may only be used in one compartment)

b. 1 high-rate bottle and 1 low-rate bottle.

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131
Q
  1. What is the difference between the high-rate bottle and the low-rate bottle?
A

a. High-rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately.

b. Low-rate bottle maintains saturation over a duration of time.

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132
Q
  1. How long will the Halon remain active in the compartment if both the high and low rate bottles are discharged?
A

a. 60 minutes.

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133
Q
  1. Can one bottle be used for one compartment and the other bottle for the other compartment? (Cargo)
A

a. NO

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134
Q
  1. During flight, can the low-rate bottle be discharged before the minute is up?
A

a. YES, by pushing the extinguishing button again.

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135
Q
  1. How are the Lavs protected from fire?
A

a. Thermal plugs that melt at a set temperature allowing release of the Halon bottle(s)

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136
Q
  1. Describe the Engine and APU fire detection and protection?
A

a. Engine: 4 Heat Sensing Loops (2 per engine)

( b. APU: 2 Heat Sensing Loops

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137
Q
  1. What happens when a Cargo Extinguishing Button is pushed if smoke has been detected?
A

a. High-rate bottle discharges immediately
b. Low-rate bottle discharges after one minute (in flight)
c. If airplane is on the ground (weight-on-wheels) the low-rate bottle will not automatically discharge

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138
Q

How can the low-rate bottle be discharged if the airplane is on the ground (weight-on-wheels)?

A

The extinguishing button must be pressed again

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139
Q
  1. Can cargo extinguishing be used if no smoke is detected?
A

a. Yes. The high-rate bottle extinguishing button must be pressed twice, once to arm the bottle and once to discharge the bottle.
b. The low-rate bottle automatically discharges after one minute (in flight)

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140
Q

What is the only primary flight control that is not FBW (Fly-By-Wire)?

A

a) Ailerons

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141
Q

What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode?

A

There are no higher level functions available in direct mode.

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142
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?

A

a) Gain on Airspeed
b) Elevator Thrust Compensation
c) AOA Limiting/Stall Protection

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143
Q

What are the higher level functions associated with yaw?

A

a) Yaw Damping
b) Turn Coordination
c) Thrust asymmetry
d) Gain on airspeed - as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases.

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144
Q

What is the priority for the Trim System?

A

a) Back-up
b) Captain
c) First Officer
d) Autopilot

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145
Q

How is Roll controlled?

A

Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)

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146
Q

How many Multi-function Spoilers are on each wing?

A

a) There are 5 spoiler panels total.

b) Only the outboard 3 on each side are considered multifunction spoilers.

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147
Q

What are the functions of the Multi-function Spoilers?

A

a) 3 outboard spoilers are used for roll control, speed brakes and ground spoilers
b) 2 inboard spoilers are only used for ground spoilers.

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148
Q

5) When will the Speed Brakes automatically close even if the lever shows deployed?

A

a) Flaps = or> 2
b) Airspeed< 180 kts
c) TLA > 70 degrees

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149
Q

What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?

A

a) Slats extend first & retract last

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150
Q

11) Will loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to revert to ‘DIRECT’ mode?

A

a) YES

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151
Q

2) What happens to Artificial Feel if the Aileron(s) or Elevator(s) are disconnected?

A

a) Aileron
i) If the CA Side (left) is jammed…no Artificial Feel on the FO’s side
b) Elevator
i) Artificial feel is felt at 1/2 the normal load.

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152
Q

13) How are the Flight controls trimmed?

A

a) Roll & Yaw:
i) Ailerons and Rudder surface repositioned to a new ‘neutral position’
b) Pitch:
/ i) Horizontal Stabilizer repositioned

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153
Q

Will the multi-function spoilers function in ‘DIRECT’ mode?

A

a) YES, but at a default fixed gain is used.
b) Direct Mode Logic:
i) In the event of a FCM failure, the spoiler associated with the FCM turns to the direct mode.
ii) The other spoilers remain in the normal mode
iii) Speed brakes and ground spoilers will not work.

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154
Q

13) Will the Speed brakes/ Ground spoilers function in ‘DIRECT’mode?

A

NO, but Roll Spoiler function is still available via default programmed values

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155
Q

What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only AC power source?

A

a) Horizontal stab trim operates at 1/2 speed
b) Slat/flap system operates at 1/2 speed
c) Slat/ flap position is limited to ‘3’ to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT

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156
Q

17) What are the two main parts that make up the flight control electronics?

A

a) The Primary Actuator Control Electronics (P-ACE)

b) The Flight Control Module (FCM)

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157
Q

j 18)Name some components of the Fly by Wire system:

A

a) Three Primary-ACEs (P-ACE)
b) Two Slat/Flap ACEs (SF-ACE)
c) One Horizontal Stabilizer ACE (HS-ACE)
d) Three Spoiler ACEs (S-ACE)
e) Four Flight Control Modules (FCM)

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158
Q

19) What do the Primary Control Electronics (P-ACE) control?

A

a) The P-ACE units control the Rudder and the Elevator surfaces.

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159
Q

19) What is the purpose of the Flight Control Modules (FCMs)?

A

a) The FCM(s) provide software-based assistance (digital) to the P-ACE and is required for normal-mode operation of the Flight Controls System. They take default analog signals and automatically provide digital augmentation for finer control or higher level function (i.e. is the Pilot input do-able).

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160
Q

19) What do the Flight Control Modules (FCMs) provide in Normal Mode?

(2017)

A

a) Provides software based airspeed gain schedules and control limits to the P-ACE
b) Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed
c) Auto-thrust compensation with elevator
d) Angle-of-Attack (AOA) limiting with elevator offset
e) Rudder airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting
f) Yaw damper and turn coordination via AFCS
g) Rudder flight authority
h) Roll Spoiler scheduling with airspeed and Speedbrake deployment
i) Configuration change compensation with horizontal stabilizer due to speed brakes actuation.

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161
Q

19) How long does the Fly by Wire Backup Battery (Lead Acid) last?

A

a) 15 Minutes

i) Charged via DC ESS 3 Bus

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162
Q

19) Describe what happens if the Roll Disconnect handle is pulled following an Aileron Jam?

A

a) Right Aileron Jam:
i) The Captain retains control of the left aileron and the pair #5 of multi-function spoilers will remain available with normal artificial feel.
b) Left Aileron Jam:
i) The First Officer retains control of the right aileron without artificial feel and roll trim since the feel mechanism is attached to Captain’s half of the system, the pair #4 of multi-function spoilers will remain available.

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163
Q

19) During an Electrical Emergency, is the operation of the Slat/Flap affected?

(2017)

A

a) With RAT out/providing power, the Slats/Flaps will operate at half speed, due to only one channel remains available.
b) The SF-ACE will prevent deployment of Slats/Flaps beyond position 3 to assure adequate airspeed for the RAT is maintained.

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164
Q
  1. What happens if a PFD (Display 1 or 5) fails?
A

a. The PFD information should automatically revert to respective side MFD (Display 2 or 4)

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165
Q

If a PFD has failed and occupies the MFD and subsequently the EICAS fails?

A

EICAS on goes on opposite MFD

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166
Q

What does FMA stand for?

A

Flight Mode Annunciator

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167
Q

When is Glideslope Inhibit automatically reset?

A

a. Climbing above 2000’

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168
Q
  1. What does EICAS Full do?
A

a. Turns off de-clutter mode

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169
Q

When does de-clutter of EICAS activate?

A

30 sec after Land gear retracted, flap slat retracted and all other parameters are normal.

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170
Q
  1. How are Root Cause Messages depicted on the EICAS?
A

a. Carrot next to message

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171
Q
  1. How would you recognize an ADS failure?
A

a. The affected PFD loses all Air Data Information
b. A red cross is shown over the failed PFD
c. An EICAS message is enerated alerting the crew of the failure.

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172
Q
  1. When is the IESS powered?
A

a. When BATT 1 is selected ON and

b. When BATT 2 is selected to AUTO

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173
Q
  1. How long does it take for the IESS to align?
A

a. Alignment takes about 90 seconds and can be identified by the “INIT 90 s” flag

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174
Q
  1. What does the IRS (Inertial Reference System) compute?
A

a. Airplane position,
b. Ground Speed,
c. Heading and,
d. Altitude

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175
Q
  1. How would you “correct” an IRS failure?
A

a. In case of an individual IRS failure, the opposite IRS may be selected via the Reversionary Panel

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176
Q
  1. What FMS page appears (by default) when the FMS units are first powered?
A

a. Radio Page

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177
Q
  1. Name a few systems that the FMS interfaces with?
A

a. Global Positioning System (GPS)
b. Internal Referencing System (IRS)
c. Multifunctional Displays (MFD)
d. Primary Flight Displays (PFD)
e. NAV units (VOR/DME)
f. Multifunctional Control Display Units (MCDU)

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178
Q
  1. How many databases does the FMS interface with?
A

a. 3 - Navigational, Custom and Aircraft

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179
Q
  1. Name a couple of items that the crew verifies on the NAV IDENT page?
A

a. Date
b. Time
c. Software Version
d. Active Database Date Range
e. Non-Active Database Date Range

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180
Q
  1. How many primary Fuel Tanks does the aircraft have?
A

a. 2 integral tanks

i. Contains baffles, collector boxes, etc.

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181
Q
  1. Where is the Fuel Tank Temperature taken?
A

a. Left Tank.

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182
Q
  1. What types of fuel pumps are in each wing?
A

a. Primary Ejector Pump(s) - 1
b. AC Fuel Pump(s) - 1
c. Scavenge Ejector Pump(s) - 3
d. DC Fuel Pump (right tank only)

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183
Q
  1. Describe a Primary Ejector Pump and how it is powered?
A

a. Venturi pump with no moving parts and no electrical power used by the respective engine.
b. Powered by motive flow.

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184
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the AC Fuel Pump?
A

a. Back-up Pump in case of Primary Ejector Pump failure
b. Engine start
c. Crossfeed operations

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185
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the DC Fuel Pump?
A

a. Used for APU or Engine start if AC power or the AC Fuel Pump is not available.

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186
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the Scavenge Pumps?
A

a. Maintains fuel level in the collector box.

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187
Q
  1. What pump(s) is used once an engine is started?
A

a. Associated primary ejector pump.

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188
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the collector box?
A

a. Keeps the fuel pumps submerged

b. Ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine.

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189
Q
  1. What is the surge/vent tank?
A

a. Collects fuel during wing-down maneuvers and returns it to the main tanks once the wings are level.
a. Equalizes tank pressure with atmosphere in flight and during refueling.

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190
Q
  1. Can fuel be transferred from tank-to-tank or be dumped overboard?
A

a. NO, only Crossfeed to an Engine (or APU)

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191
Q
  1. What happens when the Crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1?
A

a. Crossfeed valve is opened.

Commands the ACMP 2 to ‘ON’ to provide fuel from the right tank to both engines

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192
Q
  1. What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV?
A

a. Pull the associated engine fire extinguishing handle.

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193
Q
  1. When will the FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL EICAS be presented?
A

a. 660 lbs of fuel remaining in the associated tank.

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194
Q

1) How many Hydraulic systems are installed on the aircraft?

A

a) 3 independent systems (HYD1 I HYO 2 I HYO 3)

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195
Q

1) What systems use hydraulic power?

A

a) Flight controls, Spoilers, Landing gear, Nose wheel steering, Wheel brakes, thrust reversers

196
Q

1) Can hydraulic fluid be transferred between each system?

A

a) NO

197
Q

1) How many Hydraulic Pumps are on the aircraft?

A

a) 6 total
b) 2 EDP’s (Engine Driven Pumps)
c) 4.ACMP’s (AC Motor Pumps)

198
Q

1) What is the purpose of the Accumulator?

A

a) Helps to maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands
b) Helps to avoid pump cavitation
c) Provides a backup source of hydraulic energy or pressure

199
Q

When will HYD ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate with both Engines running?

A

a) Ground
i) Flaps> 0
ii) TL set to T/0
iii) Wheelspeed > 50 kts
b) Flight
i) Engine failure or EDP failure
ii) Flaps> 0

200
Q

7) What are some important items controlled by HYO 2 system?

A

a) Landing Gear, Nosewheel Steering, Inboard Brakes

201
Q

7) What is the PTU?

A

a) Power Transfer Unit

b) Mechanical pump that uses HYO 1 power to mechanically provide HYO 2 pressure

202
Q

7) What is the primary purpose of the PTU?

A

a) To allow landing gear retraction in the event of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure

203
Q

1O)When will the PTU automatically activate?

A

a) During takeoff and landing if the engine 2 or EDP 2 fails.
b) The PTU will be started if:
i) Flaps not set to zero or LG not up and locked;
ii) EDP 1 not fail;
iii) Hydraulic reservoir 2 quantity above 12%

204
Q

11) How is S.E. Taxi possible on ENG1 if Nosewheel Steering is on HYD 2?

A

a) ACMP 2 will activate if engine 1 is running and the parking brake is released.
b) Parking brake set after taxi pump continues running for 6 minutes.

205
Q

11) What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system?

A

a) Back-up for the flight controls.

206
Q

11) HYD ACMP 3A & B pump switch(s) are labeled ON & AUTO because?

A

a) HYO ACMP 3A pump is primary and has no automation

b) HYO ACMP 3B pump is a back-up and automatically activates if ACMP 3A fails

207
Q

11) What, if any, HYD ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source?

A

a) HYO ACMP 3A only

208
Q

11) In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the RAT comes online?

A

a) HYO 3 accumulator

b) After 8 seconds the RAT will power ACMP 3A

209
Q

11) In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT?

A

a) No. Because, a flow limiter valve is used to reduce flow and limits pump electrical power draw to prevent a RAT stall.

210
Q

11) What is the hydraulic pressure during normal operation of the EDP(s)?

A

a) 3000 psi

211
Q

11) Which System(s) power the Multi-function Spoiler PCU(s)?

2017

A

a) System 1 = panels 2, 3, 4
b) System 2 = panels 1, 5
c) 1 = inboard ground spoiler
d) 5 = outboard multi-function spoiler

212
Q

11) Which System(s) power the Aileron PCU(s)?

2017

A

a) System 3 = outboard ailerons

b) System 2 = inboard ailerons

213
Q

11) Which System(s) power the Rudder PCU(s)?

2017

A

a) System 1 = upper rudder

b) System 3 = lower rudder

214
Q

11) Which System(s) power the Elevator PCU(s)?

2017

A

a) System 1 = left hand outboard
b) System 2 = left & right inboard
c) System 3 = right hand outboard

215
Q

11) Which Systems power the Brakes?

2017

A

a) System 1 = outboard brakes

b) System 2 = inboard brakes

216
Q

11) Which hydraulic pump cannot be deferred? Why?

A

a) Hydraulic Pump 3a

b) Only one powered by AC ESS BUS during electrical emergency

217
Q

11) What does the hydraulic shutoff button do when pressed on the overhead panel?

A

a) Closes the Shutoff Valve. Isolates fluid from the Pump but does not shut it down.

218
Q

11) What is the hydraulic pressure during normal operation of the ACMP(s)?

A

a) 2700 psi

219
Q

11) What overheat protection is provided for the hydraulic system?

A

a) 100°c generates a High Temperature EICAS Caution message.
b) 125°C shutoff valve will automatically actuate.
c) 145°C generates a Hydraulic Overheat EICAS Warning message.

220
Q
  1. When S.E. Taxing (ENG1 or 2) and the APU running, would both windshields be heated?
A

a. Yes

i. There would be normal windshield heating since you have two sources of AC power.

221
Q
  1. When does the windshield heat perform its BIT?
A

a. When a single AC power is available (IDG) the corresponding windshield heat will heat for 120 sec

222
Q
  1. Can you have windshield heat in Flight with a single source AC?
A

a. Yes, but only the left windshield is heated, unless the left heating system fails, then the right will be powered

223
Q
  1. When does the wing anti ice perform its test?
A

a. Reaching 10000 feet AGL or ten minutes after takeoff, whichever is first
i. EICAS message A-I WING VLV OPEN
ii. Synoptic page will indicate that the A-I valves have opened

224
Q
  1. When are the Air Data Smart Probes and TAT probes heated?

2017

A

a. Whenever an engine is running

225
Q
  1. How are the Engine Cowls heated?
A

i. 10th Stage Compressor section

226
Q
  1. How do you turn the Engine Anti-Ice on for Icing Conditions on the Ground
    (T/0)
A

a. Via the MCDU on the T/0 Data Set menu.

227
Q
  1. With ALL selected on the MCDU for ENG and WING Anti Ice, when will the ENG and WING Anti -Ice come on
A

a. ENG - After engine start

b. Wing - Wheel speed greater than 40 knots

228
Q
  1. In AUTO, when does the Ice Protection system function automatically?
A

a. After 1700 agl or 2 minutes after takeoff (regardless of MCDU setting)

229
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the Ice Detector(s)?
A

a. They command the ENG and WING Anit-lce valves to open above 1700 agl or 2 minutes after takeoff, once ice has been detected and stay open for 2 minutes after ice is no longer detected.

230
Q
  1. Does the Engine Bleed valve fail open or closed?
A

a. Fail safe open if either the electrical or pressure signal are not present.

231
Q
  1. lf the REF A/I Mode is set to OFF, when are the Anti-Ice valves inhibited?
A

a. Til 1700 feet or 2 minutes after liftoff.

232
Q
  1. When are the Air Data Smart Probes and TAT probes heated?
A

a. Whenever an engine is running or airborne

233
Q
  1. What sources are used for airplane anti-icing and de-icing?
A

a. Bleed air heat

b. Electric heat

234
Q
  1. What uses bleed air for ice protection?
A

a. Engine lips

b. 3 outboard slats

235
Q
  1. What uses electric heat for ice protection?
A

a. Pitot-static system.
b. Windshields
c. Water lines
d. Pressurization static port

236
Q
  1. lf an engine fails, does the a. opposite wing/ b. engine receive ice protection?
A

a. Yes. The Crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings.
b. The failed engine does not receive heat to the engine lip.

237
Q
  1. How many ice detectors must be working to have ice detection?
A

a. One (two for redundancy)

238
Q
  1. Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for deicing?
A

a. No.

239
Q
  1. What is protected from ice and rain?
A

a. Engine inlets
b. Wing leading edge
c. Smart probes
d. Windshields
e. Water and waste drains

240
Q
  1. Can the pilot override the automatic function of the Anti-Ice system?
A

Yes

241
Q
  1. How do the Ice Detectors work/function?
A

a. Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it.
b. Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal
vibrating characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuilds on the probes

242
Q
  1. What compressor stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations?
A

a. 10th high stage valve (HSV)

243
Q
  1. How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice?
A

a. Engine: Onside Only

b. Wings: Onside or Crossside

244
Q
  1. What happens if there is a single source failure?
A

a. The Crossbleed automatically opens (Fire Handle not pulled)

245
Q
  1. How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground?
A

a. ALL

246
Q
  1. If “ALL” is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?
A

a. 1700 AGL or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever comes first)

247
Q
  1. If “OFF” is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?
A

a. 1700 AGL or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)

248
Q
  1. What happens if the wiper is operated on a dry windshield?
A

a. The wiper will stop.

b. To reset wiper, move switch to OFF.

249
Q
  1. When do the smart probes heat?
A

a. When an engine is running.

250
Q
  1. ls there a test for the anti-ice system?
A

a. Yes, but maintenance performs the test.

251
Q
  1. How is the Landing Gear normally extended and retracted?
A

a. Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated.

252
Q
  1. Can the “Landing Gear” aural warning be silenced by pushing the LG WRN INHIB button?
A

a. Yes, if both Radio Altimeters have failed

i. If flaps are selected 5 or FULL it cannot be silenced

253
Q
  1. What are three ways that the Landing Gear may be extended?
A

a. Normal - LG lever DOWN
b. Electric override - Bypasses PSEM to control Selector Valve
c. Alternate gear extension - Manual uplock release opens Free-Fall Sequencing Valve

254
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the ON LOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?
A

a. Mechanically releases the landing gear lever lock

255
Q
  1. What keeps the gear locked in position?
A

a. Extended - Downlock springs

b. Retracted - Uplock hooks

256
Q
  1. How do the landing gear doors actuate?
A

a. Mechanically, during landing gear extension or retraction.

257
Q
  1. How are the brakes commanded?
A

a. Brake by Wire
i. Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
ii. Pedal position transducers send brake requests to the BCM (Brake Control Module)

258
Q
  1. What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure?
A

a. HYO 1 = Outboard brakes
b. HYO 2 = Inboard brakes
c. HYO 1 & 2 = Emergency/Parking brake

259
Q
  1. What protections are provided for braking?
A

a. Touchdown:
i. No braking until 3 seconds or >50 kts wheel speed after touchdown.
ii. Prevents airplane from touching down with the main landing gear brakes applied.
b. Anti-skid
i. Compares wheel speeds and releases pressure (inop when speed less than 10 kts)
c. Locked-wheel
i. active on ground and wheel speeds> 30 knots if wheel speed is 33% or below is associated pair, the BCM commands zero pressure to the slower wheel
ii. Allows up to 33% differential braking for steering purposes

260
Q
  1. What stops the wheels from spinning during retraction?
A

a. Main gear: BCM applies brakes after weight-off-wheels

b. Nose gear: Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels

261
Q
  1. Which hydraulic system(s) control the Nosewheel steering?
A

a. HYD 2

262
Q
  1. What are the limits for the Nosewheel steering?

2017

A

a. Angle varies with wheel speed
b. Up to 40 kts = + or - 76 degrees
c. 41 to 100 kts = Decreases linearly from 76 degrees to 7 degrees

263
Q
  1. How many brake applications does the emergency brake provide?

(2017)

A

a. The accumulators have sufficient pressure to provide six full-brake applications.

264
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the Brake Control Module (BCM)?
A

a. Main functions are:
i. locked wheel protection
ii. antiskid protection
iii. touchdown protection

265
Q
  1. Can you use the emergency brakes at high speeds?
A

a. Yes.

i. Pull carefully and slowly. There is no antiskid protection.

266
Q
  1. When do you get a gear “disagreement” message?
A

a. 20 seconds after the discrepancy is detected.

267
Q
  1. What are the brake temperature indications?
A

a. Green: normal
b. Amber: caution
c. Amber dashed: invalid

268
Q
  1. ls takeoff permitted if the brake temperature is in the Amber range?
A

a. No

i. Brake temps must be in the green before take off

269
Q
  1. How do you manually extend the landing gear in event of a failure of the gear handle?
A

a. Landing gear override switch

b. Alternate landing gear handle to free fall the gear

270
Q
  1. What is the steering angle for Nosewheel steering?
A

a. Variable (based on speed):
i. +/- 76° up to 10 knots
ii. +/-7° at 100 knots

271
Q
  1. When is the free wheel steering mode automatically activated?
A

a. Air/Ground system failure
b. Steering failure > 76 degrees
c. Steering system failure

272
Q
  1. What ways can you disconnect Nosewheel steering?
A

a. Disconnect switch on either yoke

b. Disconnect switch on GPU access panel

273
Q
  1. How many Landing Lights are available?
A

a. 3
i. Wing Roots - 2 (1 per side)
ii. Nose Landing Gear - 1

274
Q
  1. How many Taxi Lights are available?
A

a. 3
i. Wing Roots - 2 Side Lights (1 per side)
ii. Nose Landing Gear - 1

275
Q
  1. How many emergency light power units are in each aircraft?
A

a. 4

276
Q
  1. The Emergency Light Power Units (ELPU) are charged by what electrical bus?
A

a. DC 1

277
Q
  1. What triggers Emergency Light activation if they are in the ARM position?
A

a. Loss of power to DC 1 and DC 2

278
Q
  1. When would you press the guarded GRD PROX FLAP OVRD button?
A

a. When flap configuration is different from normal landing flap configuration (Zero or reduced Flap settings)

279
Q

What does a “CAS MSG” mean on the PFD(s)?

A

a. Indicates that the GAS lists from the 2 Monitor Warning Function computers do not match
1. If the 2 GAS messages are continuously different for 20 sec a mis­ compare indication is shown
ii. Can change source via MCDU Setup Page

280
Q
  1. What are the four (4) levels of alerts?
A

a. Warning - Red
b. Caution -Amber
c. Advisory - Cyan
d. Status - White

281
Q
  1. What items does the Takeoff Configuration System check?
A

a. Flaps not in takeoff position
b. Parking brake applied
c. Pitch trim out of the green band
d. Any Spoiler panel deployed-

282
Q
  1. Windshear detection is activated between?
A

a. 1O’ and 1500’ during initial takeoff, go-around, and final approach phases

283
Q

The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated when?

A

a. Manually when windshear warning or caution condition is detected and TOGA switch is pressed.
b. Automatically when windshear warning condition is detected and thrust lever is set to TO/GA position.
c. Automatically when windshear warning condition is detected and the FD mode is in TO or GA.

284
Q

All TCAS aural advisories are inhibited when the present position altitude is below?

A

a. 400’ AGL during descent, or

b. 600’ AGL during climb

285
Q
  1. How many Stick Pushers are available on the E175 (i.e. motors)?
A

a. Zero

286
Q
  1. How is a crew alerted when the aircraft approaches a stall?
A

a. Stick Shaker Activation

287
Q
  1. How does the Auto Flight Control System (AFCS) provide for stall protection?
A

a. By limiting the angle of attack (AOA) via the available control column authority (i.e. prevents the available pitch that the control column is capable of requesting)

288
Q
  1. If one of the AOA limiting sensors fail in flight, will the Stall Protection system still be capable of performing AOA limiting?
A

a. No

289
Q
  1. How do you override the FSBY mode on the ground?
A

a. Both pilots select the FSBY OVRD menu item on the respective weather controllers,
(or)
b. One pilot selects the STAB OFF box 4 times in less than 3 seconds, enabling the WX mode

290
Q
  1. What is the SLAVE mode?
A

a. One pilot turns off the controller allowing the other to control both sweeps

291
Q
  1. When can you use the TURB mode?
A

a. When in WX mode at selected ranges of 50NM or less

292
Q
  1. What is the SECT function?
A

a. Selecting this reduces the angle of sweep from 60 degrees to 30 degrees and increases the sweep to 24 sweeps per minute

293
Q
  1. How do you change the range of the radar?
A

a. Through the CCD

294
Q
  1. What is the range of the radar?
A

a. 10-300NM

295
Q

MEMORY ITEM:

Cabin Altitude HI / Rapid Depressurization

A

Oxygen Masks… … ….CR…. …… ON, 100%

296
Q

MEMORY ITEM: Jammed Control Column - Pitch

A

Elevator Disconnect… …….CR… … ….PRESS and PULL

297
Q

MEMORY ITEM: Jammed Control Wheel - Roll

A

Aileron Disconnect… …….CR… …….PRESS and PULL

298
Q

MEMORY ITEM: Pitch Trim Runaway

A

AP/TRIM Disconnect……….PRESS and HOLD

299
Q

MEMORY ITEM: (Roll or Yaw) Trim Runaway

A

AP/TRIM Disconnect… …….PRESS and HOLD

300
Q

MEMORY ITEM: Nosewheel Steering Runaway

A

Steering Disconnect……….PRESS

301
Q

MEMORY ITEM: Aborted Engine Start

A

Associated Thrust Lever……….IDLE

Associated START/STOP … …… .STOP

302
Q
  1. Where can crewmembers find a listing of the airports that require Special Airport Qualifications?
A

a. FM1 (Section 3 Crew Qualification and Responsibility)

303
Q
  1. How would a Captain ensure they are qualified for a flight into an airport identified as SARA or requiring SAQ?
A

a. Review the SAQ chart in FM1 to determine if there are extra requirements on top of reviewing the FM2 photo pages and/or an airport familiarizationvideo

304
Q
  1. How does a Captain document that they have qualified (per FM1) for operation into a SAQ airport?
A

a. Hl14 entry (HI14/city/ddmmmyy)

305
Q
  1. Can a First Officer ever use the photo pages for the purposes of certification?
A

a. No

306
Q
  1. Where are the familiarization video(s) found for SAO/SARA airports?
A

a. JETNET “7 Flight Ops-Training

307
Q

What are the requirements for a crewmember to operate into an airport designated as SARA?

A

a. Weather 1,000’ above lowest MEA/MOCA/lnitial approach altitude and visibility at least 3 miles o r- •,
b. Within the preceding 12 months either crewmember has made a takeoff or landing into the airport while serving as a crewmember
c. Within the preceding 12 months the Captain has qualified via pictorial presentation

308
Q

How does a crewmember know if an airport or route requires Special Qualifications?

(2017)

A

a. The airport/route will be designated in the Special Airport and Route Qualification table contained within FM1

309
Q

If a Captain is flying a route requiring special navigational qualifications what requirements must be met?

A

a. Within the preceding 12 months:
i. Flown over that route using the applicable navigational system as Captain, or as a Captain under the supervision of a Check Airman, or
ii. Have completed an Approved Training Program on the route

310
Q
  1. Are all airports with pictorial pages identified as SARA airports?
A

a. No (example - Key West)

311
Q
  1. What type of information do the pictorial pages contain for pilot’s to review?
A

a. Pictures of the Airport/Area
b. Overview of airport operations
c. Weather remarks
d. Specific information overview and pictures pertinent to each runway

312
Q
  1. When are headsets with boom microphones required to be used?
A

a. All operations conducted below 18,000’ including taxi.

313
Q
  1. Can crewmembers utilize personal headsets?
A

a. Yes. If the headset meets the required TSO and is stamped as such. (FM1 lists TSO’s)

314
Q
  1. What operation(s) require a STERILE cockpit?
A

a. All critical phases of flight:
i. All ground operations when moving under the aircrafts own power
ii. Takeoff and Landing
iii. The last 1,000’ of any assigned altitude during climb or descent
iv. Holding, regardless of altitude
v. All other operations below 10,000’ except cruise
vi. Any other phase of flight as deemed necessary by the Captain

315
Q
  1. When are crewmembers required to utilize shoulder harnesses in addition to their seatbelts?
A

a. Taxi, Takeoff and landing

316
Q
  1. While operating an aircraft (i.e. moving), what is requiredin regards to
    navigational chart access?
A

a. Pilots are required to have out, and readily available , Jeppesen approach and navigational charts applicable to each phase of flight before each phase is reached

317
Q
  1. If you are unable to obtain an IFR clearance at a Non-Towered airport, may the
    flight depart VFR and pick up the clearance once airborne?
A

a. Yes. Provided the following conditions exist:
i. VFR weather exists at time of takeoff
ii. Flight remains VMC until clearance is received and complied with
iii. Flight obtains clearance as soon as practical but never further than 50NM from departure airport
iv. Crew complies with departure procedures for airport
1. If no DP use chart to determine obstacles and obstructions around airport
v. Crew complies with Airport analysisNAQ limitations to ensure obstacle
clearance

318
Q
  1. What flight specific documents are required to be carried in their completed form to the destination?
A

a. Dispatch Release/Flight Plan

b. Load Manifest/Closeout (EWBS)

319
Q
  1. Can you carry a passenger onboard your aircraft that is obviously under the influence of any intoxicating liquor or drugs?
A

a. Except in an emergency, No

b. Only a medical patient under proper care

320
Q
  1. When are we directed to declare an emergency in regards to fuel remaining?
A

a. Anytime the flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel

321
Q
  1. What is the transponder code used for Emergency aircraft? Radio failure? Hijacking?
A

a. 7700
b. 7600
C. 7500

322
Q

á 11. Name a couple of examples that are considered Emergency Conditions (per FM1)?

A

a. Flight unable to establish definite position
b. Flight 15 minutes or more overdue and not heard from
c. Failure/Malfunction of aircraft or component which interferes with safe operation
d. Indication of Fire
e. Priority in air traffic control by ATC or tower, at request of the pilot
f. Communication or navigational facilities impaired to the point that orientation or letting down is difficult or impossible
g. Any circumstance that jeopardizes safety of flight, and which requires deviation from prescribed methods
h. Flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining on board

323
Q
  1. If a Captain exercises their emergency authority how soon must they file a Pilot Pipeline?
A

a. No later than their return to base, and within 24 hours

324
Q
  1. How much rest must a crewmember receive prior to the start or any reserve period or FOP?
A

a. 10 hours, with a minimum of 8 hour of uninterrupted sleep opportunity

325
Q
  1. When does the required rest period begin following a domestic flight? International?
A

a. 15 minutes after block in (Domestic)

b. 30 minutes after block in (International)

326
Q
  1. A line holding crewmember has a report time of 0600 for a 5 leg day. How many total flight time hours can they accept? How long can their FDP be (charts)?
A

a. 9 Maximum Flight hours

b. 11.5 hours Maximum FOP

327
Q
  1. Does a deadhead following the last working segment count towards a FDP?
A

a. No

328
Q

How many total flight hours can a crewmember work in 672 consecutive hours (28 days)? 365 consecutive days?

A

a. 100 hours in 672 consecutive hours

b. 1,000 hours in 365 consecutive days

329
Q
  1. What is the maximum extension that can be accepted if the crew/dispatcher agree to it?
A

a. 2 hours

330
Q
  1. Does a Captain have the authority to cancel a Flight?
A

a. No, that responsibility rests with SOC. Captains may only DEFER a flight.

331
Q
  1. Name some of the flight related items that a Captain and Dispatcher must agree upon prior to dispatch?
A

a. Amount of Fuel
b. Route, Alternates, Route to Alternates
c. The conditions, known and contemplated, that will permit safe operation

332
Q
  1. May a scheduled Flight depart early?
A

a. Yes, so long as the station has ensured all passengers and cargo are onboard.
b. Departing more than 5 minutes early requires coordination with Dispatch.

333
Q
  1. Are you able to utilize Exemption 3585 for flights from the US to Canada? Mexico?
A

a. NO - 3585 applies to destination/alternate airports within the 48 contiguous (including Washington DC) only.

334
Q
  1. When would a Takeoff alternate be required?
A

a. When weather at the departure station is below authorized minimums

335
Q
  1. When is a destination alternate required?
A

a. WX forecast +/- 1 hour of ETA (at the Destination) indicating ceilings less than 2,000’ or visibility less than 3 miles
b. Possible crosswind >25kts
c. Braking action NIL

336
Q
  1. Dispatch considerations for VIP Movement are?
A

a. Operations within +/- 2 hours of VIP movement/activity that might delay landing should have a Destination Alternate and 30 min of Holding fuel planned

337
Q
  1. If an alternate is listed on your release what is the minimum HOLD fuel that you would expect to be listed?
A

a. 12 min

338
Q
  1. If no alternate is listed what does the default HOLD fuel incorporate?
A

a. The greater of the following:
i. Historical Delay and a missed approach OR
ii. One circuit in a hold, a climb to 10,000’, and fly to an Op Spec airport or runway at least 7,000’x148’ OR
iii. Minimum of 20 min

339
Q
  1. What is the lowest visibility authorized for Envoy departure operations?
A

a. 600 RVR

340
Q
  1. What wind speed requires taxi and takeoff operations be suspended?
A

a. 50 kts or more

341
Q
  1. Are you required to contact anyone if your release states 1 ENGINE INOPERATIVE ENROUTE ALTERNATES,* NOT REQUIRED FOR RAMP WEIGHTS BELOW XX,XXX LB.* and the aircraft ramp weight exceeds the listed weight by 1 lb.? If so, who and why?
A

a. Consult with dispatch to determine the need for an en route alternate prior to departure. The ramp weight specified on the release is simply the ramp weight the analysis was run for (planned). It is generally NOT the weight above which would require an en route alternate.

342
Q
  1. When does a Flight Release expire or become void?
A

i. Cancels
ii. Lands at a point not on the original release
iii. Lands at a point in a different sequence than specified in the dispatch release
iv. Returns to a station after taking off (air interruption)
v. Domestic operations-Not having departed by expiration time if given by dispatcher , if none is given flight has remained at the gate at the intermediate station in excess of one hour
vi. Flag or Supplemental operations- Not having departed by expiration time if given by dispatcher, if none is given flight has remained on the ground for more than 6 hours

343
Q
  1. If actual ramp weight exceeds your planned ramp weight on the dispatch release by 2,000lbs or more what shall the Captain do?
A

a. Contact dispatch and consider obtaining a new fuel plan

344
Q
  1. What is the primary method for determining takeoff performance?
A

a. TPS

345
Q
  1. What kind of EWBS/TPS input(s) are available to the crew?
A

a. Runway
b. Headwind/Tailwind
c. Temperature
d. Anti-ice On or OFF
e. Fuel

346
Q
  1. If you are operating a Functional Check Flight will EWBS/TPS be available?
A

a. No, Only regularly scheduled Part 121 flights are in the EWBS!TPS and will not reflect actual loading of aircraft

347
Q
  1. If TPS is unavailable how will you calculate performance requirements?
A

a. Airport Analysis, VAQ data and Performance Charts (via QRH) are the secondary source of takeoff data

348
Q
  1. How much do we consider a Flight deck crewmember to weigh? Cabin crew? ACM?
A

Flight Deck: 190
ACM: 190
Cabin Crew 170

349
Q
  1. What are standard Passenger weights in Summer I Winter? - E175 QRH Performance Section
A 
Summer (May 1 -  Oct 31)
Adult=190 lbs
Child=82 lbs
Winter (Nov 1 -  Apr 30)
Adult=195 lbs
Child=87 lbs
350
Q
  1. What do the letters FCZ and ACZ indicate on an EWBS closeout?
  2. On a flight indicating FCZ which zones are affected and by how much?
  3. On a flight indicating ACZ which zones are affected and by how much?
A

a. Forward caution zone/ Aft caution zone
a. A can be up to 2 less, E can be up to 2 more
a. A can be up to 2 more, E can be up to 2 less

351
Q

Where can I find the BOW of the aircraft?

A

a. Yellow sticker in the AML, or RES entry (FM1)

352
Q
  1. If performing a manual weight and balance to reposition the aircraft with the FA’s onboard do I need to add them to the calculation manually?
A

a. No. All required crew personal baggage and kits are included in the BOW calculation.
i. If doing a FCF without FA’s would I need to REMOVE the FA’s from the W&B calculation?
1. Yes. They are included in the BOW.

353
Q
  1. With regard to manual closeout procedures how much do checked bags weigh? Heavy Checked bags?
A

Checked 30 lbs

Heavy 60 lbs.

354
Q
  1. When EWBS is operational/in effect is there ever a time that you would also need a cargo worksheet from the ramp?
A

a. Yes, even if EWBS is working the failure of the handheld scanners may necessitate the need for a manual cargo worksheet being used
b. The closeout will state MANUAL next to cargo weight indicating to the crew they will need to verify the weights against the cargo worksheet

355
Q
  1. If a passenger’s bag contains dry-ice would you expect to see a RA/HAZ indicated on the closeout and receive a NO-TOC?
A

a. No, those items are exempt

356
Q

If you divert is EWBS available for your subsequent departure?

A

a. No, only flights available in RES are in the EWBS system

357
Q
  1. What is the maximum variance per zone for a passenger count?
A

a. Two passengers

358
Q
  1. Who is required to review the AML prior to flight?
A

a. The crew- i.e. Captain AND First Officer

359
Q
  1. When is it required to start a new AML page?
A

a. Start of each new flight day
b. No more Mechanical discrepancies blocks or Accepted by Captain blanks are available
c. Anytime a security check is required

360
Q
  1. What is the correct way to void an entry in the AML?
A

a. Draw a single line through each line of the entry
b. Print the word VOID or “Entered in Error” across the entire entry
c. Sign and print employee number

361
Q
  1. What does a silver dot next to a dent in the airframe signify?
A

a. Maintenance has inspected the area and found the damage to be within limits

362
Q
  1. What should a crew do if a silver dot is not located next to a visible dent in the airframe?
A

a. Contact Maintenance to ensure the area in question hasn’t already been notated
in the AOL (Aircraft damage log), prior to making an AML entry.

363
Q
  1. What should be done if the Airworthiness release has expired?

(2017)

A

a. Contact MOC for a STE (Short term escalation) prior to departure
i. This is an INFO TO MAINTENANCE entry

364
Q
  1. What items are listed on the Systems Temporarily Deactivated Form?

(2017)

A

a. A list of systems temporarily deactivated. Review it to determine the impact on the flight, if any.

365
Q
  1. Are Flight Crew authorized to Flight Crew Placard a CDL item?
A

a. No

i. Crewmembers cannot apply CDL procedures, only MTX

366
Q
  1. If you have departed the gate and a flight crew placard requires the cockpit door to be opened what action must be taken?
A

a. Return to the gate and normal placard procedures shall be followed

367
Q
  1. How do I know which items can be flight crew placarded?
A

a. Noted within the MEL with the item you wish to placard

368
Q
  1. Where do I find information on how to flight crew placard an item?
A

a. MEL General section

369
Q
  1. If a Category B MEL is entered into the AML on a Monday, on what day would it officially expire? (PROVIDE MEL/COL if Pilot is not EFB)
A

a. Thursday ; Monday is day of discovery and does not count. Add 3 days excluding Monday - Tuesday , Wednesday , Thursday expiration

370
Q
  1. What is an NEF?
A

a. Non-Essential Furnishings

i. Items included would have no effect on the aircraft being operated safely in ALL operational conditions

371
Q
  1. In what Section are NEF(s) typically located within the MEL/CDL?
A

a. MEL General Section

372
Q
  1. Can Flight Crew placard an NEF item?
A

a. Yes

Must have note “Flight crew deferral - YES” next to item in the NEF list

373
Q
  1. What is an ACI?
A

a. Administrative Control Item

i. ACl(s) have no set repair interval

374
Q
  1. Crewmembers will normally sign in how long before their scheduled departure time at the beginning of their sequence?
A

a. 45 min

375
Q
  1. Crew scheduling can reduce the crewmember’s show time at an outstation to
    what minimum time?
A

a. 20 min

376
Q
  1. Under normal conditions when shall a crewmember be at the aircraft and ready for flight?
A

a. 20 min prior to departure time

377
Q
  1. Are crewmembers authorized to consume the same meals while on duty?

(2017)

A

a. Crewmembers shall not intentionally eat the same meals prepared by the same food preparation service while on duty, or within a six-hour period prior to duty

378
Q
  1. What is the time frame limit on consumption of alcohol prior to being on duty?
A

a. 12 hours

379
Q
  1. What may occur if a crewmember fails to submit to an alcohol test at the request of law enforcement?
A

a. Denial of an application for any certificate or rating for up to a year from the refusal
b. Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating

380
Q
  1. What may occur if a crewmember fails to submit to a random drug test?
A

a. Termination for insubordination

381
Q
  1. What items are you required to carry or have readily available while performing duties on the aircraft?
A

a. Envoy ID
b. Pilot’s license
c. Medical
d. Photo ID
e. Passport
f. Restricted Radiotelephone operator permit
g. Cockpit and Jet bridge keys

382
Q
  1. What should a crewmember do if they lose a Airman/Medical certificate on duty?
A

a. Contact dispatch and they will request a temporary confirmation document (TCD), email it to the crewmember, and the crewmember will carry the TCD during flight operations in lieu of his required Airman or Medical Certificate
b. Not valid outside the 48 contiguous states
c. Cannot be used for training

383
Q
  1. What if I had lost my medical and am outside the 48 contiguous states (CYYZ)?
A

a. Order a Temporary Replacement Certificate at www.faa.gov

b. Can be emailed to you, printed, and carried until replacement arrives

384
Q
  1. Are Flight Crewmembers required to carry a FCC license?
A

a. Yes
i. International Ops
ii. Must notify Chief Pilot if Missing/Lost

385
Q
  1. Are Flight Crewmembers required to carry a Passport during every flight?
A

a. Yes
i. May be missing, but limited to non-international flights
ii. Must notify Chief Pilot

386
Q
  1. Should crewmembers carry backpacks while in uniform?
A

a. No

387
Q
  1. When is the uniform or leather jacket optional?
A

a. From the beginning of May to the end of October

388
Q
  1. What are the approved methods of wearing the company ID?

2017

A

a. Company lanyard OR
b. Clip- Clear, silver, black, navy - No Logo/design OR
c. Retractable badge reel- Clear, silver, black, navy - No Logo/design

389
Q
  1. Are crewmember allowed to have beards or goatees while on duty? In training?

(2017)

A

No

390
Q
  1. When can a crewmember wear a patriotic tie?

2017

A

a. Anytime

391
Q
  1. When shall crewmembers wear their company issued lime green safety vest?
A

i. While inside hangars. Maintenance and automotive facilities, or
ii. Walking in designated passenger walkways, or
iii. Waiting for employee buses in designated areas

392
Q
  1. When operating on the line, who has a responsibility for monitoring and counseling crewmembers when their grooming and uniform appearance does not meet the standards set by the company?
A

a. The Captain

393
Q
  1. Are hats required to be worn with the uniform?
A

a. No

394
Q
  1. Can crewmembers wear a vest underneath their jackets?
A

a. Vest- No

b. Navy V-neck Sweater - Yes

395
Q
  1. If you visit an ER during your days off what action must be taken prior to returning to duty?
A

a. Clear AA Medical

396
Q
  1. How do crewmembers declare that they are “Fitness for Duty”?
A

a. By signing next to their names on the station copy of the release
b. Must be signed again for any flight that requires a new release (diversion, return, etc.)

397
Q
  1. If you have a headache and take an Advil are you still medically able to fly? How would you be able to determine that?
A

a. Yes. FM1 has a listing of common medications approved by AA medical for use by flight crewmembers

398
Q
  1. If you become too tired to continue on duty safely what should you do?
A

a. Utilize the Fatigue Risk Management Program
i. Contact crew scheduling
ii. Crew scheduling will assign you a rest period of 10 consecutive hours
iii. Complete the Fatigue Call Report within 48 hours through Jetnet

399
Q
  1. If you are flying with another crewmember that you can tell is too fatigued to safely complete their duties what should you do?
A

a. Utilize the Fatigue Risk Management Program
i. Contact crew scheduling
1. What will the fatigued crewmember have the option to do?
a. Remove themselves by using a “Self Fatigue Call”
b. Undergo an on-site evaluation

400
Q
  1. If a crewmember has a limitation stating corrective lenses are required what is an additional requirement besides wearing the corrective lenses while on duty?
A

a. Carry and have readily available a spare set of corrective lenses (IATA requirement)

401
Q
  1. What actions should the crewmember take when you have received an updated medical?

(2017)

A

a. Chief pilot’s office for their input into FOS

b. Use HIL entry to update any items that changed on their medical

402
Q
  1. You called in sick on day three of a four day trip. You were released by scheduling and intend to commute home. What should you consider prior to your commute?

(2017)

A

Obtain travel authorization prior to any “travel while absent” from your Chief pilot

403
Q
  1. How should crewmembers ensure their manuals are verified current? When should this be accomplished?

(2017)

A

a. Jetnet or CCI

b. Trip sign in

404
Q
  1. Who is responsible to maintain their manuals in a current state?
A

a. Each crewmember

405
Q
  1. What should you do if a crewmember’s EFB becomes unusable while on a trip?

(2017)

A

a. Notify SOC and obtain applicable paper replacements as noted in FM1 by any means necessary
b. Guidance is in FM1 “Missing Kit Bag Manuals”

406
Q
  1. When you receive a revision for FM1 and it is effective next week, when should you have those pages inserted in your manual and ready for use?

(2017)

A

a. Not until prior to your first flight on or after the effective date.
i. Do not revise the manual prior to the effective date and operate a flight using pages that are not yet effective

407
Q
  1. When time critical information need to be updated within your manuals a bulletin is issued. It is normally what color?
    (2017)
A

a. Pink

408
Q
  1. When inserting pink bulletins into your manual do you remove the white pages it references?
    (2017)
A

a. No. Bulletins are supplemental to the manual and do not replace the white pages

409
Q
  1. What are yellow bulletins used for? Where do I i n sert them?
    (2017)
A

a. Informational only

b. Crew may retain or destroy at their option

410
Q
  1. When issued Jeppesen pages (FM2) that contain a chart date only (no BOLD effective date), when may you insert those pages for use?
    (2017)
A

a. Immediately upon receipt

411
Q
  1. How do EFB users receive notification that new digital manual downloads are available?
    (2017)
A

a. They will be notified via Hl6 message, CCI, and an update on Jetnet under the EFB section of the Kitbag site

412
Q
  1. Once an EFB “B” user has updated their JeppFD-Pro charts what should the crewmember do to ensure the charts transferred correctly prior to their next departure?
    (2017)
A

a. Ensure terminal and en route charts transferred correctly by selecting some charts from your EFB for viewing

413
Q
  1. When the Captain is not an IOE instructor and the FO has less than 100 hours in the type of aircraft being flown what conditions warrant the Captain making all Takeoffs and Landings?
A

a. SARA Airports designated by the FAA-OR-
b. Any of the following conditions exist:
i. Visibility in the latest weather is <3/4 mile
ii. RVR for the runway being used is below 4,000’
iii. Runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions which adversely affect aircraft performance
iv. Braking on runway to be used is less than “good” or equivalent
v. Crosswind for runway to be used is in excess of 15 kts.
vi. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport
vii. Any other condition the PIC determines to be prudent

414
Q

How often are Captains required to have completed a line check?

A

a. Within the preceding 12 months

415
Q
  1. When is a Captain considered to be a “Restricted Captain”?
A

a. When such pilot has not accumulated 100 hours as PIC in revenue service on the type of aircraft being operated
i. Flight time during IOE is not eligible toward the 100 hours required

416
Q
  1. Can the 100 hour requirement for restricted captains be reduced?
A

a. Yes
b. Can be reduced by 50% by substituting one landing in same type for one hour of required experience, if they have served 100 ours in another type as PIC in 121 service

417
Q
  1. How would I calculate the minimums to use as a restricted captain?
A

a. Use the Restricted Captain minimums chart for ceiling and visibility

418
Q
  1. What are the lowest possible minimums for landing as a restricted Captain?
A

a. 300/1 mile or 4,500 RVR

419
Q
  1. What are the landing currency requirements?
A

a. 3 takeoffs and landings within 90 days on the same type of aircraft they are to serve
i. If a crewmember no longer meets the landing currency requirements to
serve as a crewmember what must they do?
1. Contact your supervisor to establish re-qualification

420
Q
  1. When does the DVDR start recording Audio?
A

a. Aircraft power up.

421
Q
  1. When does the DVDR start recording Flight Data
A

a. After first engine start

422
Q

1) What is Maximum Slat/Flap setting if RAT is Deployed?

A

a) SLAT / FLAP 3

423
Q
  1. How is the Landing Gear normally extended and retracted?
A

a. Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated.

424
Q
  1. Can the “Landing Gear” aural warning be silenced by pushing the LG WRN INHIB button?
A

a. Yes, if both Radio Altimeters have failed

i. If flaps are selected 5 or FULL it cannot be silenced

425
Q
  1. What are three ways that the Landing Gear may be extended?
A

a. Normal - LG lever DOWN
b. Electric override - Bypasses PSEM to control Selector Valve
c. Alternate gear extension - Manual uplock release opens Free-Fall Sequencing Valve

426
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the DN LOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?
A

a. Mechanically releases the landing gear lever lock

427
Q
  1. What keeps the gear locked in position?
A

a. Extended - Downlock springs

b. Retracted - Uplock hooks

428
Q
  1. How do the landing gear doors actuate?
A

a. Mechanically, during landing gear extension or retraction.

429
Q
  1. How are the brakes commanded?
A

a. Brake by Wire
i. Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
ii. Pedal position transducers send brake requests to the BCM (Brake Control Module)

430
Q
  1. What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure?
A

a. HYD 1 = Outboard brakes
b. HYD 2 = Inboard brakes
c. HYD 1 & 2 = Emergency/Parking brake

431
Q
  1. Are fault(s) in the water system monitored from the cockpit?
A

a. No

432
Q
  1. What are the Basis Modes of the Flight Director?
A

a. ROL and FPA

433
Q
  1. What mode does FLCH use to maintain speed?
A

a. SPDe

434
Q
  1. How do you know if VNAV has been selected?
A

a. Mode in the upper right box of the FMA is Magenta

435
Q
  1. When does the VTA Appear
A

a. 1 minute prior to TOD

436
Q
  1. How do you know Vnav has been selected
A

a. Vnav is Magenta in the FMA

437
Q
  1. When does Dec Now Appear on the FP page
A

a. within 50 miles of TOD

438
Q
  1. How do you select Autotune if not already selected
A

a. Must be in FMS mode
b. Preview must be off
c. Double select standby NAV freq and set or delete FREQ ID on Prog Page

439
Q
  1. What does DES NOW do?
A

a. Allows aircraft to descend early at 1000fpm till PTH intercept

440
Q
  1. Name a few systems that the FMS interfaces with?
A

a. Global Positioning System (GPS)
b. Internal Referencing System (IRS)
c. Multifunctional Displays (MFD)
d. Primary Flight Displays (PFD)
e. NAV units (VOR/DME)
f. Multifunctional Control Display Units (MCDU)

441
Q
  1. What is the MAX Ramp weight?
A

a. 85800 lbs.

442
Q
  1. What is the MAX Zero (0) Fuel weight (MZFW)?
A

a. 69800 lbs.

443
Q
  1. What is the MAX Takeoff weight (MTOW)?
A

a. 85500 lbs.

444
Q
  1. What is the MAX Landing weight (MLW)
A

a. 74,900

445
Q
  1. What is the MAX crosswind for takeoff on a Dry runway?
A

a. 35 kts.

446
Q
  1. What is the MAX crosswind for takeoff on a Wet runway?
A

a. 30 kts.

447
Q
  1. What is the MAX crosswind for landing for Braking Action 6 (DRY)
A

a. 38 kts.

448
Q
  1. What is the MAX tailwind component for landing?
A

a. 10 kts.

449
Q
  1. What is the MAX headwind for CAT II approaches?
A

a. 25 kts.

450
Q
  1. The normal straight ahead taxi speed on dry pavement SHOULD not exceed ?
A

a. 30 Kts

451
Q
  1. The normal straight ahead taxi speed on wet pavement SHOULD not exceed ?
A

a. 10 Kts

452
Q
  1. What is the MAX operating altitude?
A

a. 41,000 ft.

453
Q
  1. What is the MAX altitude with Flaps extended?
A

a. 20,000 ft.

454
Q
  1. What is MAX operating airspeed (Vmo)?
A

a. 320 kts.

455
Q
  1. What is MAX operating Mach number (Mmo)?
A

a. .82 M

456
Q
  1. What is MAX turbulent airspeed at 8000’?
A

a. 250 kts.

457
Q
  1. The MAX turbulent airspeed above 10000’ is?
A

a. 270 kts/.76 M

458
Q
  1. What is the MAX airspeed for windshield wiper operation?
A

a. 250 kts.

459
Q
  1. What is VLE?
A

a. 250 kts.

460
Q
  1. What is MAX speed to extend the landing gear?
A

a. 250 kts.

461
Q
  1. What is MAX airspeed to select Flaps 1
A

a. 230 kts.

462
Q
  1. What is MAX airspeed to select Flaps 2
A

a. 215 kts.

463
Q
  1. What is MAX airspeed to select Flaps 3?
A

200 kts

464
Q
  1. What is MAX airspeed to select Flaps 4/5
A

a. 180 kts.

465
Q
  1. What is MAX airspeed to select Flaps Full?
A

a. 165 kts.

466
Q
  1. During taxi out and takeoff, the MCDU TO DATASET MENU REF A/I must be set to what when OAT is 10°C or below and icing conditions exist or are anticipated?
A

a. ALL

467
Q
  1. What is the MAX usable fuel per tank?
A

a. 10392 lbs.

468
Q
  1. The XFEED selector must be set to what during takeoff and landing?
A

a. OFF

469
Q
  1. What is the MAX permissible fuel imbalance?
A

a. 800 lbs.

470
Q
  1. MAX differential pressure up to FL370 is?
A

a. 7.8 psi

471
Q
  1. MAX differential pressure above FL370 is?
A

a. 8.3 psi

472
Q
  1. What is the MAX differential pressure for takeoff and landing?
A

a. 0.2 psi

473
Q
  1. During takeoff or go around, do not turn the autopilot on until above ft. AGL?
A

a. 400

474
Q
  1. During landing turn the autopilot of prior to ft. AGL?
A

a. 50

475
Q
  1. What is MAX continuous ITT?
A

a. 960°C

476
Q
  1. What is the MAX time with the starter engaged during the first two (2) engine start attempts on the ground?
A

a. 90 seconds

477
Q
  1. How long must you wait after a dry motor before you attempt another start or Dry motoring attempt
A

a. 5 Minutes

478
Q
  1. The starter rest time after the third start attempt is?
A

a. 5 Minutes

479
Q
  1. What is the APU starter rest time after the first start attempt?
A

a. 60 sec

480
Q
  1. What is the MAX altitude to start the APU?
A

a. 30,000 ft

481
Q
  1. What is the MAX Altitude to use the APU for electrical power?
A

a. 33,000 ft

482
Q
  1. What is the minimum BATT2 temperature for APU starting?
A

a. - 20°C

483
Q
  1. The MAX allowable in flight difference between CA and FO altitude displays for RVSM operations is __ft.
A

200

484
Q
  1. On the ground primary altimeter readings must be no more than _ ft. of each other.
A

75

485
Q
  1. When must the MCDU be set to ALL for taxi and takeoff?
A

a. When the OAT is 10°C or below and Ice Conditions exist or are anticipated

486
Q
  1. What is the definition of Ice Conditions (OAT on the ground and TAT inflight)?
A

a. 10°C or below
b. Visible moisture (clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals)
c. When operating on ramps, taxiways, runways where snow, ice, standing water or slush may be ingested by engines, freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes

E175 (Envoy) (3 decks)

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