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RTR A > Question 5 > Flashcards

Question 5 Flashcards

1
Q

VT - RES WS wrng at OM Rwy 18

A

VT - RES Wind shear warning at Outer marker Runway 18

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2
Q

AIP has section GEN, MAP, FAL

A

Aeronautical information publication has section general, aeronautical chart publish , facilitation

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3
Q

X – RDL 156 3000 or abv

A

Crossing radial 156 altitude 3000’ or above

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4
Q

SAR is being carried out by IAF RH

A

Search and rescue is being carried out by Indian Air Force rescue helicopter

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5
Q

AI889 req ETO & your spd

A

Air India 889 request estimated time over Next significant reporting point and your speed

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6
Q

VFR flight cannot be flown more than 100NM seaward from ______ in ______

A

VFR flight cannot be flown more than 100NM seaward from shoreline in controlled airspace

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7
Q

EAT is the time ______ a delay an A/C will leave its ______ for its ______ to Land

A

EAT is the time following a delay an A/C will leave its holding fix for its approach to Land.

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8
Q

A/C is in vicinity of aerodrome when it is leaving or entering _____

A

A/C is in vicinity of aerodrome when it is leaving or entering aerodrome traffic circuit

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9
Q

Taxi is when a/C moves under its own power Excluding ______ and ________

A

Taxi is when a/C moves under its own power Excluding takeoff and landing

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10
Q

VMC relate to met condition________ and ______,_______

A

VMC relate to met condition visibility and cloud ceiling, distance from clouds

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11
Q

A/C is req dev by 17 NM due LSQ

A

Aircraft is requesting deviation by 17 nautical miles due line squall

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12
Q

Hldg over NDB DP blw lvl 3500’ not permitted

A

Holding over non-directional beacon, DP below level altitude 3500 feet not permitted.

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13
Q

NC in RENL OPNS

A

No change in primary runway end light operation

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14
Q

Mntn ROD 600 till altitude 5000’

A

Maintain rate of decent 600 till altitude 5000’

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15
Q

AIRAC is issued by DGCA

A

Aeronautical information regulation and control is issued by directorate general of civil aviation

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16
Q

In RT cleared means _________

A

In RT cleared means authorised to proceed under condition specified

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17
Q

In RT altitude, 10000’ is given as ________

A

In RT altitude, 10000’ is given as one zero thousand feet

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18
Q

Visibility is ability to ______, ______, and ______,______

A

Visibility is ability to see, identify and distant, prominent

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19
Q

VHF emergency frequency ______, ______, ______

A

VHF emergency frequency, 121.5 MHz, 123.1 MHz, 243 MHz

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20
Q

In India, SAR LUT are at _____, _____ and MCC at _____

A

In India, SAR LUT are at Bangalore, Lucknow and MCC at Bangalore

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21
Q

In RT message direction finding message have priority over _______and met message over _______

A

In RT message direction finding message have priority over flight safety message and met message over flight regulatory message

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22
Q

XCVR has XMTR and REC

A

Transceiver has transmitter and receiver

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23
Q

A/c clr for FSL WS in T/O Path

A

Aircraft cleared for full stop landing wind shear in takeoff path

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24
Q

Co ords are given in lat and long , not in dist

A

Coordinates are given in latitude and longitude, not in distance

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25
Q

AD VEJT is clsd TFN

A

Aerodrome Jorhat is closed till further notice

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26
Q

LLZ is left of RCL

A

Localiser is left of runway centre line

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27
Q

WxR is showing CB

A

Weather radar is showing cumulonimbus

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28
Q

A/C to GA due GLD on final

A

Aircraft to go around due glider on final

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29
Q

Lsq APPCH AD from NNE

A

Line squall approaching Aerodrome from North North east

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30
Q

Mnt tfc for safety

A

Monitor traffic for safety

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31
Q

L/W should not be more than PCN

A

Landing weight should not be more than pavement classification number

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32
Q

A/C is Req Dev by 17 NM due LSQ

A

Aircraft is requesting deviation by 17 nautical miles due line squall

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33
Q

Hldg over NDB DP blw lvl 3500 not permitted

A

Holding over non-directional beacon DP below level altitude 3500 feet, not permitted

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34
Q

NC in RENL OPNS

A

No change in runway end light operations

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35
Q

Mntn ROD 600 till alt 5000

A

Maintain rate of descend 600 till altitude 5000 feet

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36
Q

AIRAC is issued by DGCA

A

Aeronautical information regulation and control is issued by directorate general of civil aviation

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37
Q

AIP published by ______ contains ______ information of a ______ character to ______

A

AIP published by AAI contains general information of a lasting character to air navigation

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38
Q

International NOTAMS are issued by ________ Office

A

International NOTAMS are issued by international NOTAM( NOF ) Office

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39
Q

Position report shall be made when _____ or as soon as possible, ______ compulsory reporting point

A

Position report shall be made when requested by ATC or as soon as possible, reaching compulsory reporting point

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40
Q

Operation information in routine air report contains ____ and ____

A

Operation information in routine air report contains ETA and end

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41
Q

Class A bearing is accurate within (plus -1, plus -2, plus-3) degree and psn accurate within 5Nm

A

Class A bearing is accurate within (plus -2) degree and psn accurate within 5Nm

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42
Q

(low, medium, high ) wake turbulence is MTOM of an Acft between 7000–13600KG

A

(medium) wake turbulence is MTOM of an Acft between 7000–13600KG

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43
Q

The word(medium, super, heavy) is to be included after the call sign on initial contact for A380

A

The word (super) is to be included after the call sign on initial contact for A380

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44
Q

In case of hijack or grave violence, which transponder mode to code (7500, 7600, 7700)

A

In case of hijack or grave violence, which transponder mode to code (7500)

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45
Q

During night, D layer disappears and electron density (increases / decreases)

A

During night, D layer disappears and electron density (decreases)

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46
Q

Heading

A

Direction in which longitudinal axis a aircraft is pointing

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47
Q

MAP

A

The procedure to be followed when approach cannot be continued due to any reason

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48
Q

Threshold

A

Beginning portion of runway usable for landing

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49
Q

Minimum descend altitude

A

Altitude below, which descend may not be made without visual reference in non-precision approach

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50
Q

Cruising level

A

The significant level flown during the flight

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51
Q

Use proper phrases
VT – HIP watch out for a glider flying near aerodrome.

A

VT – HIP exercise, caution, glider flying in vicinity of aerodrome

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52
Q

Use proper phrase

IT3321 runway surface is slippery, be careful

A

IT3321 runway surface wet exercise caution

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53
Q

Use proper phrases

Jodhpur VT – EDL, what are your operational hours?

A

Jodhpur VT-EDL request watch hours

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54
Q

Use proper phrase

Delhi VT – LOM. Yes, we are approved for RVSM.

A

Delhi VT – LOM affirm RVSM approved

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55
Q

Use proper phrase

Madurai VT – BNJ, we are established on VASIS

Visual approach slope indicator system

A

Madurai VT – BNJ maintain VASIS

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56
Q

ITU stands for _______ headquarter at _____

A

ITU stands for international telecommunication union headquarter at Geneva, Switzerland

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57
Q

ATC service are _____ a/C to a/C service is ____

A

ATC service are ground to air a/C to a/C service is air to air

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58
Q

Inter pilot frequency are ______

A

Inter pilot frequency are 123.45 MHz

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59
Q

In HF communication, we use ____ and _____

A

In HF communication, we use primary and secondary frequency

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60
Q

WPC holds exam for RTR (A) COP

A

Wireless planning and coordination wing holds exam for radio telephony restricted for aeromobile certificate of proficiency

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61
Q

Prkg is posl btn The two A/C

A

Parking is possible between two aircrafts

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62
Q

RENL are svcbl but Instst is low

A

Runway end lights are serviceable, but intensity is low

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63
Q

Mntn ROD 600 till alt 5000

A

Maintain rate of descend 600 till altitude 5000

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64
Q

AIRAC is an imp publication

A

Aeronautical Information regulations and control is an important publication

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65
Q

AWY

A

Airway

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66
Q

EXR

A

Exercise

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67
Q

CTN

A

Caution

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68
Q

Aerodrome reference point is designated ______ of an aerodrome

A

Aerodrome reference point is designated geometrical centre of an aerodrome

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69
Q

Position at which taxing a/C and vehicles shall stop until further cleared by ATC is ______ position

A

Position at which taxing a/C and vehicles shall stop until further cleared by ATC is hold short position

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70
Q

Runway used for operation of a/C after visual approach procedures is called ______ rwy

A

Runway used for operation of a/C after visual approach procedures is called non instrumental rwy

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71
Q

Aeronautical beacon used to designate a danger to air navigation is _______

A

Aeronautical beacon used to designate a danger to air navigation is hazard beacon

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72
Q

Device that indicate visually the direction of landing and takeoff is ________ indicator

A

Device that indicate visually the direction of landing and takeoff is landing direction indicator

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73
Q

In RT, standby means ____ and ______

A

In RT, standby means wait and I will call you

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74
Q

In RT control is suffix to ______

A

In RT control is suffix to area control centre

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75
Q

9W is ____ of ____ Airways

A

9W is IATA code of jet Airways

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76
Q

In AIP section of RAC relates to ____ and ____ service

A

In AIP section of RAC relates to air and air traffic service

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77
Q

Airway is a _____ in the form of a _____ having Nav aid

A

Airway is a controlled in the form of a corridore having Nav aid

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78
Q

In AIP section map relates to _____

A

In AIP section map relates to aeronautical chart publish

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79
Q

An instrument approach has ____ segment ____ segment ____ segment

A

An instrument approach has initial segment intermediate segment final segment

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80
Q

Rwy stripes comprises of _____, _____ of _____ aerodrome

A

Rwy stripes comprises of stopway, clearway of landing aerodrome

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81
Q

ATC service to aerodrome traffic is provided by _____

A

ATC service to aerodrome traffic is provided by aerodrome control tower

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82
Q

Annexure 10 volume two relates to _____

A

Annexure 10 volume two relates to communication procedure

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83
Q

Approach control service is provided by ______

A

Approach control service is provided by approach control office

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84
Q

Guwahati FIR is from _____ to _____

A

Guwahati FIR is from GL to FL265

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85
Q

NOTAM is _____ distributed by ____

A

NOTAM is notice to airmen distributed by respective NOF

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86
Q

PANS is _____

A

PANS is procedure for air navigation services

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87
Q

AFTN data is ____

A

AFTN data is forwarded and coded form to all en route ATC

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88
Q

DATIS info _____ Wx and other info about aerodrome

A

DATIS info is about Wx and other info about aerodrome

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89
Q

VTRES WS wrng at apch Path

A

VTRES wind shear warning at approach Path

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90
Q

AIP contains COM, RAC, FAL

A

Aeronautical information, publication contains communication, rules of air and air traffic control , facilitation

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91
Q

SAR being carried out by IAF RH

A

Search and rescue being carried out by Indian Air Force rescue helicopter

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92
Q

AI889 request SPOT and present SPD

A

AI889 request spot wind and speed

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93
Q

VHF frequency

A

118 MHz to 136 MHz

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94
Q

Frequency ?
NDB
ADF
NDB

A

NDB 190-1750 KHz
ADF 190-1750 KHz
NDB 190-450 KHz

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95
Q

Frequency ?
VOR

A

108-117.95 MHz

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96
Q

Frequency ?
ILS

A

Localiser 108- 112 MHz odd
Glide scope 328 - 335 MHz (UHF)

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97
Q

Frequency ?
Radio Altimeter

A

4200 MHz to 4400 MHz (SHF)

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98
Q

Frequency ?
SSR

A

Secondary Surveillance Radar
Interrogator signal (on ground) 1030 MHz
Transponder signal (Aircraft) 1090 MHz

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99
Q

Frequency ?
Airborne Wx Radar

A

9375 MHz
Or
10 MHz

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100
Q

Frequency ?
DME

A

Distance measuring equipment
962 MHz to 1213 MHz
UHF
Transponder on Ground
Interpreter aircraft

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101
Q

Frequency ?
GPS

A

L1 band 1575.42 MHz for civilians
L2 band 1227.6 MHz encrypted

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102
Q

If any other aircraft jams your signals

A

Make sure before transmitting frequency not occupied

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103
Q

Pax showing lack of oxygen

A

On txy B
Cancel dep, req taxi back to Apron
Due one Pax suffering from hypoxia
Req medical on arrival

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104
Q

An ATS route-
a. Connect one aerodrome to another
B. It’s a corridor to channelise flow of air traffic
C.it’s an airway along which aircraft flies
D. Both b& c

Choose correct option

A

Both b&c

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105
Q

UTC time signal can be obtained from ?

A

ATC

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106
Q

True / false
Frequency band 3- 300 MHz is VHF Band

A

False

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107
Q

True / false

Ground waves are the waves which travel along the surface of the earth

A

True

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108
Q

True / false

Frequency range 4 -8 GHz is known as L band

A

False

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109
Q

True / false

The height of Ionosphere apparently decreases during night

A

False

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110
Q

True / false

VOR stands for visual omni range

A

False

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111
Q

Morse code of SOS is

A

… - - - …

112
Q

Controlled airspace at aerodrome is called _____

A

Controlled airspace at aerodrome is called
Controlled aerodrome

113
Q

At airport we get the wind direction ____

A

At airport we get the wind direction wind shock

114
Q

Area we park the aircraft is ____

A

Area we park the aircraft is Apron

115
Q

Morse code of urgency

A

XXX
_ .. _ , _ .. _ , _ .. _

116
Q

Runway light types are ____, ____, ____, ____, ____

A

Runway light types are REDL(edge light), RENL(end light), centre light, THR(threshold) light, APP(approach) light

117
Q

AIRAP is given by the ____ at designated point or ___

A

AIRAP is given by the aircraft’s automatic reporting system at a designated point or altitude

118
Q

Your FIC no. Has expired. Obtain from appropriate authority

A

Company dispatch VT-OLK
Rev ETD 0700
Req FIC & ADC no.

119
Q

Getting hot tyre indication

A

ATC Your call sign
On twy B
Getting hot tyre indication
Req FFS for visual inspection

120
Q

ADF unsvcbl

A

Will carry out visual approach

121
Q

Tail of your aircraft is on fire

A

Stopping slowly and switching off engines
Evacuating Pax thru emergency slide
Rush all assistance immediately POB 120

122
Q

All station call:

A

When ATC not in CTC; RCF; Deviated from current route

All station All station in VCTS(vicinity)
Of IDASO VT-ABC on 121.5
Psn IDASO 1340 P761 FL370
Deviating 15NM right of ATC route due Wx ahead
Will maintain FL350 till 10 NM
Then will climb to FL353 and fly offset till clr of Wx
Rejoin @ BASOP FL350
Est
Est
Rev ETA
TEET
End
TAS
Req keep a lookout All extend light and TCAS ON

123
Q

Experience RCF, descending to BHOPAL passing FL100 for FL70

A

BPL TWR AI898 on 122.5
Tx blind due Rex failure
Psn passing FL100 for FL70
On reaching will maintain FL70 till o/H Bhopal @ETA 1100
Then will establish in hold
At EAT 1100 will commence descent I’m hold over BPL for FL50
Then will carry out ILS approach Rwy 09
Will call again reaching FL70
(I say again) X2

124
Q

Experience RCF, descending to BHOPAL passing FL100 for FL70

A

BPL TWR AI898 on 122.5
Tx blind due Rex failure
Psn passing FL100 for FL70
On reaching will maintain FL70 till o/H Bhopal @ETA 1100
Then will establish in hold
At EAT 1100 will commence descent I’m hold over BPL for FL50
Then will carry out ILS approach Rwy 09
Will call again reaching FL70
(I say again) X2

125
Q

Air prox

A

AAE ACC VT ABC Boeing IMC
Air prox - Risk of collision/Air prox - Safety not assured
TOI 1040
Monitored an aircraft @15NM crossed @FL350 from left to right
Psn O/H PRA 1045 A474 FL350
TAS 400 KTs

126
Q

Wind Shear- sudden change in wind speed and direction

A

Delhi TWR VT-ABC
WS Report
Time of Occurence 1030
Intensity Moderate
Level of occurrence

  1. T/o path Rwy 09 @1000’
    Deviating 15 degree right
  2. On finals Rwy 09 @1000’
    2 miles, landing is difficult, initiating Go around
127
Q

Microburst intense down drought

A

Delhi Tower VTABC
experienced MB
Strong down, drought, heavy rain, thunderstorm, lightning
Lost height, 500 feet
Visibility reduced 50 m
On takeoff approach, path of runway 09
At 2 miles altitude, 1500 feet
Deviating 15° right to avoid microburst/
landing is difficult initiating, go around

128
Q

You are 50DME to Udaipur at your filed flight plan, seek necessary permission

A

Udaipur tower VT ABC
Position 50DME to Udaipur
radial 330 UUD 1100 FL130
Will join W13S @UUD FL140
Estimate UUD1100
Estimate AAE 1100
ETA BBB 1200
TAS 300 KTs
Request joining route clearance

129
Q

Crossing

A

Nagpur ACC AI89 on 123.9
Position overhead, DUBOX 1100 FL230
Will cross G472 @ FL230
Estimated crossing G472 1110
ETA BPL 1130
TAS 400KTS
Request crossing route clearance

130
Q

Transit clearance

A

Khajuraho Tower AI898 on 122.3
Position 50 DME to KKJ 1100 W66 FL140
Will transit through your airspace @ FL 140
estimated entering KKJ CTR boundary 1110
estimated KKJ 115
Estimated exiting KKJ CTR boundary 1120
Estimated IGONA 1130
ETA LKN 1150
TAS 300KTS
Request transit clearance

131
Q

Entering Indian airspace clearance

A

Delhi ACC AI889 on 124.5
Position 50 DME to TIGER 1050 G452 FL350
Will enter Indian airspace at FL350
Estimated TIGER 1100
Estimated LKA 1110
ETA DPN 1200
TAS 400KTS
FIC number A123
ADC number B410
Authority number YA123
Request entering Indian airspace clearance

132
Q

Aerodrome where ATC service is provided to Aerodrome Traffic is called_____

A

Aerodrome where ATC service is provided to Aerodrome Traffic is called
Controlled Aerodrome.

133
Q

Morse Code … - - -… stands for____and is___signal.

A

Morse Code … - - -…
stands for SOS and is Distress signal.

134
Q

A designated area on an apron used for parking a/c is called ____

A

A designated area on an apron used for parking a/c is called Aircraft Stand.

135
Q

Aeronautical ground light, visible all around, to designate a point is called _____

A

Aeronautical ground light, visible all around, to designate a point is called
Aeronautical Beacon.

136
Q

Device that gives visual indication of wind direction and approximate speed on aerodrome is _____

A

Device that gives visual indication of wind direction and approximate speed on aerodrome is Wind Shock.

137
Q

Broadcast is a transmission addressed to ____ station or_____

A

Broadcast is a transmission addressed to Specific station or Stations.

138
Q

In duplex_____takes place between two stations_____

A

In duplex Telecommunication takes place between two stations Simultaneously.

139
Q

Location Indicator relates to location of an ____, _____, ______

A

Location Indicator relates to location of an Aeronautical Fixed Stations.

140
Q

In UTC system midnight is represented as _____and beginning of day as_____

A

In UTC system midnight is represented as 2400 and beginning of day as 0000.

141
Q

Aircraft in_____shall maintain watch except for the reason of_____

A

Aircraft in Flight shall maintain watch except for the reason of Safety.

142
Q

In case of SELCAL of an aircraft fails it should____,_____,_____,_____,_____

A

In case of SELCAL of an aircraft fails it should Maintain Listening Watch all the Time.

143
Q

Radiotelephony distress signal should be spoken_____three times.

A

Radiotelephony distress signal should be spoken Preferably three times.

144
Q

VOLMET

A

Volume Meteorological Information for Aircraft in Flight

145
Q

TORA

A

Take off run available

146
Q

RVSM

A

Reduced vertical separation minima

147
Q

CFL

A

Cruising flight level

148
Q

ATS

A

Air Traffic Services

149
Q

UTC

A

Co-ordinated Universal Time

150
Q

METAR

A

Meteorological Aviation Routine Report

151
Q

NOTAM

A

Notice to Airman

152
Q

PRESFR

A

Pressure falling rapidly

153
Q

ICAO

A

International Civil Aviation Organisation

154
Q

Portion of runway after threshold for aircraft touchdown is ______

A

Portion of runway after threshold for aircraft touchdown is Touchdown Zone.

155
Q

Runway intended for Takeoff only is ______

A

Runway intended for Takeoff only is Takeoff Runway.

156
Q

Taxiway including its adjoining prepared area is called _____

A

Taxiway including its adjoining prepared area is called Taxiway Strip.

157
Q

Communication between aircraft and ATC is _____ communication method.

A

Communication between aircraft and ATC is Air to Ground communication method.

158
Q

To home on to a facility, one of the station should be _____ to the _____ station.

A

To home on to a facility, one of the station should be Continuosly Monitoring to
the Other station.

159
Q

Angle between a radio beam from an aircraft and reference beam of Direction Finding
station to true North is _____ _____ _____

A

Angle between a radio beam from an aircraft and reference beam of Direction Finding
station to true North is True Radio Bearing.

160
Q

Pilots when out of range of VHF can communicate with each other on Inter pilot _____
channel.

A

Pilots when out of range of VHF can communicate with each other on
Inter pilot Air to Air channel.

161
Q

Primary frequency is assigned to an aircraft as first choice for _____ communication
in _____ _____ _____

A

Primary frequency is assigned to an aircraft as first choice for Air to Ground
communication in Radio Telephony Network.

162
Q

ITU Headquarters are at _____ and ITU stands for _____ _____ _____

A

ITU Headquarters are at Geneva in Switzerland and ITU stands
for International Telecommunication Union.

163
Q

SARPS stands for _____ _____ _____ _____

A

SARPS stands for Standard And Recommended Practices.

164
Q

ITU headquarters is located in _____ and its full form is _____ _____ _____

A

ITU headquarters is located in Geneva in Switzerland and its full form
is International Telecommunication Union.

165
Q

Urgent call to be transmitted as _____ and Medical distress as _____

A

Urgent call to be transmitted as PAN-PAN and Medical distress as MEDICAL.

166
Q

Before RT call check, make sure _____ _____ _____ and _____ _____ _____

A

Before RT call check, make sure Frequency is not Occupied
and Tuned to Correct Frequency.

167
Q

_____ is issued when weather at station changes _____

A

SPECI is issued when weather at station changes Significantly.

168
Q

EET

A

Estimated Elapsed Time

169
Q

EAT

A

Estimated Approach Time

170
Q

QFE

A

‘Q’ Code for Field Elevation

171
Q

QNE

A

Standard Atmospheric Setting 29.92 inch of mercury or 1013.25 hectopascal
Q code for Nautical elevation or HEIGHT or pressure at aerodrome

172
Q

Simultaneous T/o from Parl Rwys is Pos

A

Simultaneous Takeoff from Parellel Runways is Possible.

173
Q

Obst must be Lgtd in & around AD

A

Obstacle must be Lighted in and around Aerodrome.

174
Q

RNN aft xng tfc on Rte

A

Resume Normal Navigation after crossing Traffic on Route.

175
Q

Cfm LH PTN Cmpl

A

Confirm Left hand Procedure turn complete.

176
Q

In Ady airspace Adz is provided

A

In Advisory airspace Advice is provided.

177
Q

Minimum Lateral Separation between 2 aircrafts from NDB is _____ degrees at _____ KM.

A

Minimum Lateral Separation between 2 aircrafts from NDB is 30 degrees
at 28 KM.

178
Q

Height is _____ distance measured from a _____ level.

A

Height is Vertical distance measured from a Specified level.

179
Q

VFR flight cannot be operated when Cloud Ceiling is below _____ feet
above _____ or _____

A

VFR flight cannot be operated when Cloud Ceiling is below 1500 feet
above Ground or Water.

180
Q

Flight Plan filed with ATS is known as _____ Flight Plan.

A

Flight Plan filed with ATS is known as Filed Flight Plan.

181
Q

In Weather report, Cloud amount ‘SCT’ means _____ to _____ OKTAS.

A

In Weather report, Cloud amount ‘SCT’ means 3 to 4 OKTAS.

182
Q

Cfrm RTE R460 is an AWY

A

Confirm Route R460 is an Airway.

183
Q

Exer Ctn bfr x-ing Tax Charlie

A

Exercise Caution before crossing Taxiway Charlie.

184
Q

Cld Hgt is Abv 1000 ft Wx Dtrt

A

Cloud Height is above 1000 feet Weather Deteriorating

185
Q

ATD not Rec Fm Dep AD

A

Actual Time of Departure not Received from Departure Aerodrome.

186
Q

CAT at lower Lvl Exer Ctn

A

Clear Air Turbulence at lower Level Exercise Caution.

187
Q

NDB

A

Non Directional Beacon

188
Q

AFTS

A

Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Service

189
Q

FIR

A

Flight Information Region

190
Q

WILCO

A

Will Comply

191
Q

RDARA

A

Regional Domestic Air Route Area

192
Q

CPDLC

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communication

193
Q

GNSS

A

Global Navigation Satellite System

194
Q

PANS

A

Procedure for Air Navigation Services

195
Q

TAS

A

True Air Speed

196
Q

ADF uses a loop aerial to determine the direction and a sense aerial to resolve
180 degrees ambiguity.

A

True

197
Q

Frequency band used for NDB in India is 200 to 400 KHz.

A

False, 190 to 450 Khz.

198
Q

In secondary radar, radio signal retransmitted from the position to be determined.

A

True

199
Q

Middle Marker transmits 2 dashes per second tone which is audio modulated on 400 Hz.

A

False, Outer Marker.

200
Q

DME is working on the principle of primary radar.

A

False, Secondary Radar.

201
Q

QDR means Magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the station.

A

TRUE

202
Q

VOR transmits two signals at the same time, one signal in all directions, while the other
is rotated about the station.

A

True

203
Q

Frequency range 8 to 12 GHz is known as ‘S’ band.

A

False, ‘X’ band.

204
Q

The height of ionosphere apparently decreases during night.

A

False, Increases.

205
Q

ACAS III uses mode ‘S’ to give horizontal advisories also.

A

True.

206
Q

Location indicator for Jaipur is VEJP.

A

False, VIJP.

207
Q

ICAO code for Indigo airlines is 6E.

A

False, IGO.

208
Q

For above flight, SELCAL facility is not available.

A

True.

209
Q

QRM is interference due to equipment or man interference.

A

True.

210
Q

Area marked East of Songarh is Prohibited area.

A

False, Restricted.

211
Q

In case of emergency, make the initial call on the frequency in use, but if that is not
possible Squawk 7600 and Call on 121.5.

A

False, Squawk 7700.

212
Q

If automatic altitude keeping device fails, pilot will use NEG RVSM.

A

False, Unable RVSM.

213
Q

Operating frequency band for VHF communication is 118 to 136 MHz and voice is
modulated using frequency modulation.

A

False, Amplitude Modulation.

214
Q

In radio wave propagation, the Direction and Velocity both changes while passing from
one medium to other.

A

TRUE

215
Q

Static disturbance, larger antenna size and high transmission power are the drawbacks of
lower frequency.

A

TRUE

216
Q

A/C

A

Aircraft

217
Q

A/D

A

Aerodrome

218
Q

AAI

A

Airport Authority of India

219
Q

ABM

A

Abeam

220
Q

ACAS

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System

221
Q

ACARS

A

Aircraft Communication Addressing and Reporting System

222
Q

ACC

A

Area Control Centre

223
Q

ADC

A

Air Defence Clearance

224
Q

ADF

A

Automatic Direction Finder

225
Q

ADIZ

A

Air Defence Identification Zone

226
Q

ADS

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance

227
Q

AFSRA

A

Aeronautical Fixed Service Routing Area

228
Q

AFTN

A

Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network

229
Q

AIC

A

Aeronautical Information Circular

230
Q

AIP

A

Aeronautical Information Publication

231
Q

AIRAC

A

Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control

232
Q

AIREP

A

Air Report

233
Q

AIRMET

A

Airmen Meteorological Report

234
Q

AIRPROX

A

Air Proximity Report

235
Q

ALERFA

A

Alert Phase

236
Q

ALS

A

Approach Lighting System

237
Q

AMHS

A

Air Traffic Services Message Handling System

238
Q

ATA

A

Actual Time of Arrival

239
Q

ATD

A

Actual Time of Departure

240
Q

ATIS

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

241
Q

ATM

A

Air Traffic Management

242
Q

ATS

A

Air Traffic Services

243
Q

BCN

A

Beacon

244
Q

BFO

A

Beat Frequency Oscillator

245
Q

CANPA

A

Constant Angle Non Precision Approach

246
Q

CAT

A

Clear Air Turbulence

247
Q

CAVOK

A

Cloud and Visibility Okay

248
Q

CDFA

A

Continuos Descend Final Approach

249
Q

CFL

A

Cruising Flight Level

250
Q

CIDIN

A

Common Int’l Civil Aviation Organisation Data Interchange Network

251
Q

COM BRFG

A

Communication Briefing

252
Q

CPDLC

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communication

253
Q

CTA

A

Control Area

254
Q

CTR

A

Control Zone

255
Q

CVR

A

Cockpit Voice Recorder

256
Q

CVOR

A

Conventional Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Radio Ranging

257
Q

CVSM

A

Conventional Vertical Separation Minima

258
Q

DA

A

Decision Altitude

259
Q

DATIS

A

Datalink Automated Terminal Information Service

260
Q

DDA

A

Derived Decision Altitude

261
Q

DETRESFA

A

Distress Phase

262
Q

DME

A

Distance Measuring Equipment

263
Q

DOC

A

Designated Operational Coverage

264
Q

DR

A

Dead Reckoning

265
Q

DSB

A

Double Side Band

266
Q

DVOR

A

Doppler Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Radio Ranging

267
Q

EAT

A

Estimated Approach Time

268
Q

EET

A

Estimated Elapsed Time

269
Q

EFIS

A

Electronic Flight Instrumentation System

270
Q

EGPWS

A

Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System

271
Q

EGNOS

A

European Geostationary Navigation Overlay System

272
Q

ELBA

A

Emergency Locator Beacon Aircraft

273
Q

ELT

A

Emergency Locator Transmittor

274
Q

EOBT

A

Estimated Off Block Time

275
Q

EQPT

A

Equipment

RTR A (3 decks)

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