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SPI Exam Study ! > Quality Assurance > Flashcards

Quality Assurance Flashcards

1
Q

The hydrophone can be used to evaluate all of the following, except ?
A: Pulse duration
B: Pulse Amplitude
C: Pulse Repetition Period
D: Dead zone depth

A

D: Dead Zone Depth

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2
Q

Normal range of the intensities used in diagnostic Doppler US?
A: 100-1000 mW/cm2
B: 100- 1000 mW/cm
C: 0.2-400 W/cm
D:0.2-400 mW/cm2

A

D:0.2-400 mW/cm2

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3
Q

What is defined as the spatial peak intensity divided by the spatial average intensity?
A: Bandwidth
B: Quality factor
C: Duty factor
D: Beam uniformity ratio

A

D:beam uniformity ratio

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4
Q

No bioeffects have been identified with TI values less than ___ and mI values less than ______.
A: 1, 0.4
B:2, 1
C: 1, 0.8
D: 2,0.2

A

A:1, 0.4

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5
Q

Elastography is used in breast imaging to determine the relative ______ of a mass.
A: compression
B: stiffness
C: amount of reflection
D: amount of through transmission

A

B:Stiffness

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6
Q

Why can’t ultrasound probes be thermally sterilized?
A: because they do not detach from the cord and wiring
B: because the plastic components would probably melt
C: if the probe is heated above the Curie point, the piezoelectric properties will be lost
D: because the electrical wiring cannot get wet

A

C: if the probe is heated above the Curie point, the piezoelectric properties will be lost

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7
Q

Prior to any invasive procedure, the patient should be educated about the procedure, expected outcomes and any possible complication. The patient will be required to sign a document stating this understanding of these topics in order to proceed with the procedure. This form is called:?
A: informed consent form
B: patient acceptance form
C: litigation wavier
D: health insurance waiver

A

A: informed consent form

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8
Q

Which of the following is responsible for thermal bio effects?
A: sound beam reflection
B: sound beam refraction
C: sound beam scattering
D: sound beam absorption

A

D: sound beam absorption

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9
Q

Axial resolution refers to the ability to resolve two objects that are parallel to the axis of the beam. When the phantom is scanned from the side of the phantom, lateral resolution can evaluated.

A
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10
Q

Which of the following will increase with increase output, power?
A: patient exposure
B: pulse length
C: beam frequency
D: propagation speed

A

A: patient exposure

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11
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a specificity of a testing technique?
A: if the test result is positive, specificity is the probability that the patient actually has the disease
B: The ability of a test to rule out disease when it is NOT present
C: if the test result is a negative specificity is the probability that the patient does not have disease
D: the ability of a test to detect disease when it IS present

A

B: the ability o a test to rule out disease when it IS NOT present

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12
Q

While using a linear phased array to perform a vascular exam, you notice that the color box will only allow you to place it centrally and steer 20 degrees to the right. The issue is most suggestive of:
A: cracked acoustic lens
B: PE element damage
C: Reduced voltage to the pulse
D: Loose connection of the transducer to the machine

A

B: PE element damage

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13
Q

If. You use a tissue phantom that contains a substance with an average propagation speed of 1600 cm/s to evaluate a standard ultrasound system, how will this affect the depth calibration testing?
A: reflectors will appear more lateral then they actually are located within the phantom
B: reflectors will appear more shallow. Then they actually are located within the phantom.
C: reflectors will appear more medial than they actually are located within the phantom
D: reflectors will appear deeper than they actually are located within the phantom

A

B: reflectors will appear more shallow then they actually are located within the phantom

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14
Q

Ultrasound hybrid imaging has shown to be beneficial for ?
A: the cardiac muscle contraction rate
B: liver tumor vascularity
C: the progression of kidney failure
D: the anatomy of the Circe Willis

A

B: Liver tumor vascularity

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15
Q

Temporal peak intensity is

A

The peak intensity measured when the beam is “on”

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16
Q

Pulse average

A

The average when the beam is “on”

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17
Q

Temporal average intensity

A

Measured over the whole time that the beam is “on “ and “off”

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18
Q

Which of the following describes the best way to identify an unconscious patient?
A: ask the patient to give you their birthdate
B: check the hospital wristband on the patient’s arm
C: ask the patient to give you their medical record number
D: verify that the name on the chart matches the name on the order

A

B: check the hospital wristband on the patients arm

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19
Q

Which ultrasound bioeffecct occurs due to sound absorption?
A: stable cavitation
B: thermal
C: schlierin effect
D: transient cavitation

A

B: thermal

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20
Q

Glutaraldehyde is used to
A: opacity blood vessels and cardiac chambers on a contrast exam
B: disinfect the transducer after a patient exam
C: sterilize the transducer after a patient exam
D: provide a liquid “cushion” element in a mechanical wobbler transducer

A

B: disinfect the transducer after a patient exam

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21
Q

Potential bioeffects of ultrasound can be minimized by which of the following?
A: increases PRF
B: using a lower frequency
C: reduce exam time
D: decrease overall gain

A

C: reduce exam time

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22
Q

Cardiac strain imaging is used to evaluate the function of the :
A: cardiac valves
B: pericardium
C: electrical conduction system
D: myocardium

A

D: myocardium

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23
Q

What is the expected appearance of a malignancy on elastography evaluation ?
A: malignant masses demonstrate no deformability
B: deep blue throughout the area that contains the mass
C: clear with demonstration of yellowing coloring over that area contains the mass
D: clear with no demonstration of color over the area that contains the mass

A

A: malignant masses demonstrate no deformability

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24
Q

Which of the following correctly describes Real-time Virtual Sonography?
A: technique that enables the display of molecular activity in breast masses
B: techniques that enables the display of real-time ultrasound b-mode images and CT or MR images
C: techniques that enables the display of an ultrasound B-mode image and CT or MR images on a PACS system
D: technique that enables the display of molecular activity in the liver masses to

A

B; technique that enables the display of real-time ultrasound b-mode images and CT or MR images

25
Q

If the 2thermal index demonstrates a value of 2.4
A: the exposed tissues could experience an increase in temperature up to 2.4 degrees Celsius
B: the exposed tissue have a 2.4% chance of increasing in temperature
C: the exposed tissues could experience a decrease in temperature up to 2.4 degrees Celsius D: the exposed tissues could experience an increase in temperature up to 2.4 degrees Fahrenheit

A

A; the exposed tissues could experience an increase in temperature up to 2.4 degrees Celsuis

26
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the negative predictive value (NPV) of a testing technique?
A: the ability of a test to rule out disease when it IS NOT present
B: if the test result is positive, NPV is the probability that the patient actually has the disease
C: if the test result is negative, NPV is the probability that the patient does not have disease
D: the ability of a test to detect disease when it IS present

A

C; if the test result is negative, NV is the probability that the patient does not have disease

27
Q

Which of the following requires health care providers and organizations to develop and follow procedures that ensure that confidentiality and security of protected health information?
A: ALARA principle
B: Health insurance probability and accountability act
C: Stark Law
D: Informed consent

A

B: Health insurance probability and accountability act

28
Q

Which type of phantom is necessary to evaluate temporal resolution?
A: hydrophone
B: AIUM test object
C: tissue phantom
D: Fluid filled Doppler phantom

A

D: fluid filled Doppler phantom (because it requires moving structures)

29
Q

Which of the following describes the table placement for performing an ultrasound exam?
A: Table height should allow the Sonographers arm to be slightly abducted with the wrist fully flexed toward the side being examined
B: The table should be placed in reverse trendelenburg position to assist in moving blood flow in the cerebral vessel
C: Table height should allow the Sonographers arm to be slightly abducted with the wrist fully extended
D: The table should be place in the trendeleburg potion to assist moving blood flow into the cerebral vessel

A

C: Table height should allow the Sonographer arm to be slightly abducted with the wrist fully extended

30
Q

All of the following patients would require a guardian to sign an informed consent form for a renal biopsy except?
A: a patient with Alzheimer’s diseases
B: A patient with Parkinson’s disease
C: a 16 year old patient
D: A patient that has no language translator and does not speak English

A

B: a patient with Parkinson’s disease

31
Q

if you set the gain to the lowest level and slowly increase it until an echo is identified on the image, what are you evaluating on the US system?
A: minimum sensitivity
B: dead zone
C: spatial resolution
D: registration accuracy

A

A: minimum sensitivity

32
Q

Ultrasound contrast media is least likely to be used in which of the following exams?
A: echocardiography for suspected septal defect
B: echocardiography for suspected coronary artery disease
C: evaluation of liver tumor vascularity
D: evaluation of gallbladder function

A

D: Evaluation of gallbladder function

33
Q

The term “in vitro” refers to:
A: tissues grown from stem cells
B: tissues grown in a laboratory
C: living human tissues

A

B: tissues grown in a laboratory

34
Q

There is no known adverse biological effect in Vito using an unfocused ultrasound transducer at the intensities below ____.
A.100 W/cm2 SPTA
B. 100 mW/cm2 SPTA
C.1000 mW/cm2 SATA
D. 1000 mW/cm2 SPT

A

B. 100 mW/cm2 SPTA

35
Q

The ALARA principle describes:
A: the recommendation for universal precaution use
B:the formula for using PISA to obtain MRI grade
C: the rule of thumb for adjusting gain before output power to minimize ultrasound exposure
D: the formula for causation of the right atrial area

A

C: the rule of thumb for adjusting gain before output power to minimize ultrasound exposure

36
Q

The AIUM has stated that there have been no confirm report of thermal bioeffects to living mammals with Ultrasound exposure if the temperature rise in tissue is less than?

A: 2 degrees Fahrenheit
B: 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
C: 1 degree kelvin
D: 2 degrees Celsuis

A

D: 2 degrees Celsuis

37
Q

Tissue Doppler imaging uses _____ settings than PW Doppler?
A: lower frequencies
B: higher filter
C: higher frequencies
D: lower filter

A

D: low filter

38
Q

______ is a QA process using the re-fraction properties of water to evaluate the beam pattern and measure intensity.
A: Schiliren method
B: Snell’s method
C: Hydrostatic Doppler Tank Method
D: Bernoulli’s method

A

A: Schiliren method

39
Q

All of the following are used as a contrast agency’s in U.S except:
A: agitated saline bubbles
B:per-fluorocarbon base contrast
C: agitated iodine bubbles
D: gas filled bubbles

A

C: agitated iodine bubbles

40
Q

Which of the following will maintain compliance with the a ALARA, principle?
A: reducing transducer frequency
B: reducing overall gain
C: reducing the number of images taken in standard protocol
D: all of the above

A

C: reducing the number of images taken in standard protocol

41
Q

What type of precautions is required for a patient with MRSA?
A: droplet precaution
B:contact precautions
C: protective environment precaution
D: enteric precautions

A

B: Contact precautions

42
Q

Which of the following conditions requires staff to use a personal respirator when entering the patient’s room and providing care?
A: mumps
B: recent organ transplant
C: tuberculosis
D: pneumonia

A

C: tuberculosis

43
Q

While performing a funeral ultrasound exam, what can be done to minimize patient exposure?
A: perform a transvaginal scan, instead of a transabdominal scan
B: provide an optimal exam in the short exam time possible
C: if twins are present scan each Vitas on us every day to reduce the exam times for each fetus
D: use PW Doppeler, instead of M mood to evaluate the fetus heart rate

A

B: provide an optimal exam in the short exam time possible

44
Q

Which of the following describes how the Ultrasound transition should be clean after performing an ultrasound exam on a patient that has an open room near the area of interest?
A: the face of the prove in the court are thoroughly clean and soaked in a high level disinfectant
B: The probe should be sent to the bio medical department for thermal sterilization
C: the face of the probe and a quarter thoroughly clean with a Saniwipe
D: an arterial Doppler exam should not be performed on a patient with an open sore or wound

A

A: the face of the prove in the court are thoroughly clean and soaked in a high level disinfectant

45
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a gold standard test?
A: a type of test that has been use for over 15 years to successfully diagnose disease when it is present
B: a type of test that has been used for over 15 years to successfully Diagnose rule out disease when it is absent
C: an accepted test that is assumed to be able to determine the true disease state of a patient regardless of positive or negative test finding
D: a test is performed by most doctors to make a specific diagnosis

A

C: an accepted test that is assumed to be able to determine the true disease state of a patient regardless of positive or negative test finding

46
Q

All of the following information should be entered into the Ultrasound system prior to the start of the exam, except?
A: date of birth
B: medical record number
C: Social Security number
D: patient gender

A

C: social Security

47
Q

When removing a protective gown?
A: remove your gloves, untie the strings, pull the gown forward from the shoulders using the neck strings grab the inside shoulder, seems to pull it off the arms and turned inside out as it is removed wash your hands
B: remove your gloves, untie the strings, pull the gown forward from the center of the front of the gown to remove it with expose side out roll into a ball wash your hands
C: untie the strings with the gown forward from the shoulder, using the neck strings to turn it inside out as it is removed. Remove your gloves, wash your hands.
D: untie the strings of all the gown upward from the bottom edge to turn it inside out pull it from the shoulders and off the arms. Remove your gloves, wash your hands.

A

A: remove your gloves, untie the strings, pull the gown forward from the shoulders using the neck strings grab the inside shoulder, seems to pull it off the arms and turned inside out as it is removed wash your hands

48
Q

Which of the following fetal structures carry the greatest risk of thermal energy from Ultrasound exposure?
A: tissue surrounding the fluid, filled cavities in the brain and spinal column
B: free floating portion of the umbilical cord
C: Cardiac muscle tissue
D: tissue adjacent to the femur

A

D: tissue adjacent to the femur

49
Q

The tissue phantom skin from the top there are six pins, separated by different millimeter intervals from each other from the top to bottom in the phantom. If you measure the minimum visible distance between the paint, what are you testing on your Ultrasound system?
A: slice thickness resolution
B: lateral resolution
C: axial resolution
D: contrast resolution

A

C: axial resolution

50
Q

A thermocouple device is ?
A: used to heat the ultrasound gel for patient comfort
B: used to assess beam intensity at specific locations
C: used to assess total beam intensity
D: only used in therapeutic Ultrasound

A

B: used to assess beam intensity at specific locations

51
Q

When preparing the sterile Tray for an invasive procedure to cover, the Tray should be opened?
A:while wearing sterile gloves
B: no more than two hours before the procedure begins
C: by the radiologist
D: By pulling the far corner of the wrapper toward you

A

D: By pulling the far corner of the wrapper toward you

52
Q

Young’s modulus is used to determine what is displayed on the image during?
A: spectral Doppler
B: color Doppler
C:elastrography
D: power Doppler

A

C:elastrography

53
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility of a sonographer, when assisting with an intravascular Ultrasound?
A: to advance the Ultrasound catheter during the procedure
B: to send Ultrasound catheter for sterilization after the procedure
C : to operate the ultrasound machine controls from outside the sterile field
D: to perform preliminary IVUS image before the start of the angioplasty procedure

A

C : to operate the ultrasound machine controls from outside the sterile field

54
Q

What effect will a mechanical index of 1.0 have on a contract exam?
A: An MI setting of 1.0 or greater is preferred for contrast exams?
B: mechanical index has no effect on contrast exams. The thermal index must be properly set for an optimal contrast exam.
C: the increased beam intensity, will burst the contrast bubbles quickly
D: the decreased beam intensity will reduce the appearance of the bubbles on the image

A

C: the increased beam intensity, will burst the contrast bubbles quickly

55
Q

Which of the following adjustments would improve the appearance of Microbubble contrast on the image?
A: turn off harmonic imaging
B: increase the thermal index
C: decrease output, power
D: use multiple focal zone

A

C: decrease output, power

56
Q

Which statement regarding US bioeffects is incorrect?
A: patient exam time should be minimized reduce potential for bioeffects
B: the SCHILIEREN method is used to minimize patient exposure
C: there are no new ultrasounds exposure. Injuries documented in humans due to diagnostic use
D: cavilation and heat are potential bioeffects of ultrasound exposure

A

B: the SCHILIEREN method is used to minimize patient exposure

57
Q

During your first exam of the day, you need a small crack in the face of the transducer. Which of the following describes the correct action to take next.
A. Contact service immediately and the damage prove should not be used until it is repaired.
B: contact service immediately, but you can use the transducer with a standoff pad until the new one s arrives
C: no action needed, unless the Piezoelectric elements are exposed
D: No action needed unless the electrical components are exposed

A

A. Contact service immediately and the damage prove should not be used until it is repaired.

58
Q

Transesophageal and transnational transducers are considered ____ devices that should be disinfected using ____?
A: critical, thermal sterilization
B: critical ,high level disinfection
C: semi-critical, thermal sterilization
D: semi-critical, high level disinfectant

A

D: semi-critical, high level disinfectant

59
Q

What can be done to reduce the Mechanical Index level during an exam?
A: reduce output power
B: decrease, probe frequency
C: increase the threshold setting
D: use contrast materials on the exam

A

A: reduce output power

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