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C-17 > QRI MQF Study Questions > Flashcards

QRI MQF Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The AP has 2 modes of operation: _____ and _____.

A

normal, AP degraded

Dash-1: 1-1247

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2
Q

AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma airspeeds with invalid aircraft weights (both MCs inop, etc.).

A

False

AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma airspeeds with invalid aircraft weights (both MCs inop, etc.). Dash-1: 1-1275 (W)

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3
Q

During MC degraded Modes, _____ use(s) the last valid altitude and heading data they received prior to the Degraded Mode. Advise ATC as necessary.

A

IFF & TCAS

Dash-1: 1-2240 (N)

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4
Q

There are normally _____ first-aid kits installed on the aircraft with provisions for _____ total.

A

6, 26

Dash-1: 1-2652

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5
Q

There are _____ fire extinguishers onboard the aircraft with _____ in the cockpit and ______ in the crew rest area.

A

(9) total
- (2) in cockpit,
- (1) in crew rest
- (6) in cargo compartment

Dash-1: 1-2654

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6
Q

Bank angles greater than _____ degrees are not recommended. The maximum bank angle is _____ degrees.

A

60 degrees not recommended
70 degrees max

Dash-1: 5-38

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7
Q

On Extended Range aircraft with more than _____ pounds total fuel, delay braking until nose gear touchdown unless there is less than _____ pounds of fuel in the four extended range compartments combined.

A

165,000 pounds total fuel
4,000 pounds

Dash-1: 2-385

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8
Q

The maximum allowable crosswind component is _____ knots.

A

30 knots

Dash-1: 5-14

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9
Q

The maximum allowable component is _____ knots for tailwinds (except for crews certified by command guidance) and _____ knots for headwinds.

A

10 knots max tailwind
40 knots max headwind

Dash-1: 5-15, 5-16

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10
Q

Instrument approach RVR/visibility and, if required, ceiling minimums will be as published for a category _____ aircraft. If maneuvering speed exceeds 165 knots, the minimums for category _____ will be used.

Bonus: The C-17 is a category _____ aircraft.

A

category D, category E

C-17 is a category D aircraft

2C17v3: 6.16.1

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10
Q

The maximum landing touchdown sink rate (502,100 lbs) is _____ fpm.

A

660 fpm

Dash-1: Table 5-6

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11
Q

If full flight instrumentation is not available and operational, aircraft are limited to a DH/MDA based on _____.

A

HAT of 300’ and RVR 4,000
OR
3/4 mile (1200m) visibility with no RVR

2C-17v3: 6.16.5

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12
Q

The APU AUTO SHT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdown protection except _____.

A

indicated fire and overspeed

Dash-1: Figure 1-45

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13
Q

The cargo compartment APU warning horns can be inhibited during ground operations by the _____ switch on the Entrance Light Panel.

A

INTL HORN INHIBIT

Dash-1: 1-212 (N)

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14
Q

If the APU is inoperative, ensure either a _____ is in place or a _____ connected before shutting down the last engine.

A

fire guard/fire extinguisher
air cart

Dash-1: 2-498 (N)

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15
Q

The APU starter operating limit is _____ minute(s) and any APU starter engagement is considered a start attempt.
_____ starts may be attempted per one hour rolling cycle with a minimum delay of _____ minutes between attempts.

A

1 minute
3 starts/cycle
5 minutes between attempts

Dash-1: 5-34

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16
Q

The visual signals for a BREAKAWAY are _____.

A

tanker flashing Pilot Director Lights and/or turning lower rotating beacon ON

Dash-1: Table 8-4

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17
Q

If the receiver overruns the tanker, the receiver will reduce airspeed to _____, and maintain track and altitude.

A

255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering airspeed, whichever is higher

Dash-1: 8-55

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18
Q

When the receiver pilot is closing and approaching the pre-contact position, _____.

A

the receiver will stabilize in the pre-contact position and attain a zero rate of closure

Dash-1: 8-125 (W)

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19
Q

Monitor designated A/R frequency at least _____ minutes prior to ARCT.

A

30 minutes

Dash-1: 8-130 (Step 3)

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20
Q

A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished _____.

A

only as a last resort

Dash-1: 3-89

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21
Q

(Emergency Boom Latching Procedures): It is possible to cause structural damage to the air refueling boom and slipway by severe relative movement between the 2 aircraft when operating override since the _____ are deactivated.
The _____ must initiate all disconnects before exceeding any of the limits.

A

limit switches

receiver pilot

Dash-1: 3-92 (C)

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22
Q

During the RV Delta (Point Parallel) procedure, the receiver(s) will _____.

A

All the above:
- be established at 1000’ below the assigned AAR altitude when deaprting the ARIP
- enter the track via the ARIP and be at the ARCP at ARCT
- aid the RV, by remaining in electronic contact on radar, A/A TACAN, TCAS or other means as soon as possible, but no later than 50 NM range or ARIP (whichever is first)

3-3: 2.16 (4)

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23
Q

[Double AAR Planning] Determine a combination that keeps both of the _____ fuel values and the _____ greater than zero. That amount is the minimum onload required.

A

STORED
UNID EXTRA

3-3: 6.2.2.5.3

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24
Q

In the event of loss of visual contact with the tanker in either the contact or astern position (or following a breakaway), _____.

A

All of the above:
- immediately disconnect, transition to instruments, make radio call “loss of visual contact”, and slow 10 knots
- hold tanker heading & descend 1000’; resume normal speed after 30 sec
- roll wings level & descend 1000’; turn on tanker’s heading; resume normal speed after 30 sec

3-3: 2.46

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25
Q

During a breakaway, the receiver will drop aft of the tanker until _____.

A

the entire tanker is in sight

ATP-3.3.4.2: 2.45

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26
Q

(RNAV) Activating a missed approach procedure prior to using TOGA (DIR-TO) _____, while activating the missed approach procedure using TOGA does not.

A

deletes intervening waypoints

Dash-1: 2-402

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27
Q

The SC/EFC includes a fixed gains mode that is automatically enabled in the event of air data loss. When the SCEFC FIXED GAIN mode is enabled, asymmetric outboard spoiler deflections are locked out and only symmetric spoiler deflections are commanded.

A

True

Dash-1: 1-1133

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28
Q

Pressing the SPD NAV pushbutton engages/disengages Speed Intervention if selected while in _____ with the NAV SEL Switch not in SKE.

A

MSN VNAV

Dash-1: Fig 1-158 (sheet 6)

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29
Q

The value in the AFCS Altitude Window is displayed in both feet and _____ on the MCD’s CONVERT FEET/_____ page.

A

meters
FEET / METERS page

Dash-1: Fig 1-158 (sheet 8)

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30
Q

Select engine anti-ice on when temperature is _____°C or below (OAT on ground, TAT inflight) and icing conditions exist.

A

10°C

Dash-1: 7-171

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31
Q

If excessive ice formations remain on the aircraft after climbing through an icing layer, level off and increase airspeed to obtain at least _____ or higher.

A

+10°C TAT

Dash-1: 7-208

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32
Q

(Icing Conditions) Use of the autothrottles for takeoff is required unless using them puts the aircraft at a greater risk as determined by the aircraft commander. If an EPR probe icing condition should occur, the autothrottles will ignore the erroneous EPR and maintain the correct power setting via computed throttle lever angle.

A

True

Dash-1: 7-205

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33
Q

(IRCM) The laser is invisible and can injure eyes or skin within _____ feet for a single aft turret or _____ if the 2 forward turrets are installed.

A

187 feet (1)
200 feet (2)

Dash-1: 1-1735 (W)

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34
Q

With no source of electrical power to the aircraft and the battery switch OFF, only the _____ bus is powered since it is connected directly to the batteries.

A

Battery Direct bus

Dash-1: 1-404

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35
Q

The electrical system is normally operated in the _____ mode with generators No. 1 and No. 2 supplying left side power and generators No. 3 and No. 4 supplying the right side power.

A

split parallel

Dash-1: 1-378

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36
Q

The battery switch must be ON to provide battery power to the _____.

A

AC & DC Emergency buses

Dash-1: 1-391 (N)

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37
Q

As a minimum, the batteries are designed to provide emergency power for up to _____ of operation.

A

one half-hour (30 minutes)

Dash-1: 1-404

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38
Q

The aircraft batteries provide power to the _____ which provides power to the AC Emergency Bus.

A

static inverter

Dash-1: 1-374

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39
Q

When the APU alert start feature is used, there will be no _____ until the Battery Bus is powered.

A

fire detection or protection

Dash-1: 1-198 (C)

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40
Q

(OBIGGS II) A total loss of electrical power during high pressure pneumatic air supply operation may lead to a(n) _____. Immediately shut down the pneumatic cart.

A

OBIGGS filter fire

Dash-1: 1-675 (W)

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41
Q

During engine start, ensure engine oil pressure rises greater than _____ psi before turning the ENG SHUT OFF switch to ON.

A

5 psi

Dash-1: 2-826, Step 5

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42
Q

If ENG OIL PRESS X asserts on the WAP during engine start and the pressure is greater than 5 psi, you should _____.

A

monitor the oil pressure for 10 minutes and shut down the engine if the message does not extinguish

Dash-1: 2-826, Step 8 (C)

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43
Q

Once an engine is stabilized at idle following a start, the typical fuel flow range is _____ depending on ambient conditions.

A

800 - 1200 pph

Dash-1: 2-826, Step 8

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44
Q

Low EGT margin engines are more susceptible to ENG EGT X events when OAT is at or above _____ and takeoff thrust is within 0.05 EPR of maximum thrust.

A

24°C (75°F)

Dash-1: 1-93

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45
Q

THRUST LOSS annunciator lights (amber) will illuminate in flight when thrust of a single engine is _____ less than the average EPR of the remaining engines.

A

0.15 EPR

Dash-1: 1-114

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46
Q

In the event of boost pump failure, fuel can be suction fed by the engine-driven fuel pump at _____ thrust rating up to an altitude of _____ feet and at a pitch angle no greater than 21.5°.

A

MAX thrust
10,000’

Dash-1: 1-135

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47
Q

The starter is designed to start the engine with normal starting loads. Excessive loads are applied when the engine-driven hydraulic pumps are on. A _____ may result if the pumps are on during engine start.

A

hung start

Dash-1: 1-143 (N)

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48
Q

(Engine Start Buttons) The button will stay in until engine N2 RPM reaches approximately _____ %.

A

51%

Dash-1: 1-145

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49
Q

If FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB on the _____ is open, the _____ will be inoperative.

A

overhead panel
APU Fire Agent DISCH switch

Dash-1: 2-37, Step 28 (C)

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50
Q

Engine anti-ice provides icing protection to the engine fan blades.

A

False

Dash -1: 1-813

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51
Q

Do not change the ENGINE IGNITION source during engine start. Switching sources may result in a _____.

A

tailpipe fire

Dash-1: 2-52, Step 2 (C)

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52
Q

To prevent damage to the reverse interlock solenoids, do not move the throttle beyond the reverse idle detent until _____.

A

either the REV indication is illuminated on the MFDs or until the solenoids are heard to release

Dash-1: 2-101, Step 2 (C)

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53
Q

If the starter valve will not close after engine start (light remains illuminated more than 30 seconds after the button pops out), ________ could result in a starter failure.

A

shutting down the engine before removing the bleed air supply pressure

Dash-1: 2-826, Step 7b (C)

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54
Q

Delay the engine starter re-engagement for _____ once N2 RPM indication is lost from the MFD engine display to ensure that engine rotation has come to a stop.

A

40 seconds

Dash-1: 2-830, Step 5 (C)

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55
Q

In addition to an engine fire and disintegration, the Emergency Engine Shutdown procedure will be run for a(n) _____.

A

All of the above:
seizure
engine sparking (continuous)
engine/ pylon fuel leak (on the ground)

Dash-1: 3-208

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56
Q

If an engine reverts to the N2 mode, all engine and throttle responses are normal except _____.

A

All of the above:
reverse thrust is not recommended,
autothrottle operation is inhibited,
no overspeed protection is provided

Dash-1: 3-238

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57
Q

If the N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all engine displays are blank, _____.

A

this could indicate catastrophic engine failure

Dash-1: 3-206 (W)

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58
Q

A Four Engine Flameout is most likely to occur when flying through _____.

A

All of the above:
heavy rain
volcanic ash
hail & icing

Dash-1: 3-245

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59
Q

[Four Engine Flameout] Wings level C-17 average glide ratio is _____.

A

2.6 NM/1000’ (260 KIAS glide)

Dash-1: 3-247, Step 8 (N)

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60
Q

[Engine Failure During Takeoff] If the throttles are advanced to MAX, exercise caution to ensure directional controllability. True or false?

A

True

Dash-1: 3-215 (C)

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61
Q

If experiencing severe engine vibration, _____.

A

immediately shut down the engine using the Emergency Engine Shutdown procedure

Dash-1: 3-266

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62
Q

There is a maximum of _____ engine start attempts in 1 hour, followed by a _____ minimum cooling period.

A

5 start attempts
1 hour cooling period

Dash-1: 5-29

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63
Q

Engine rotation will be completely stopped before the starter is re-engaged.
Exception: In an emergency, the starter may be engaged when below _____ N2.

A

20% N2

Dash-1: 5-31 (N)

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64
Q

The maximum time limit at MAX/DRT thrust is _____ minutes when no needed for engine failure on takeoff or engine out go-around for obstacle clearance.

A

5 minutes at MAX/DRT

Dash-1: Table 5-2

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65
Q

Minimum EGT for engine start is ______ ° (ground) and _____° (air).

A

495° (ground)
655° (air)

Dash-1: Table 5-2

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66
Q

The recommended minimum airspeed for in-flight reverse thrust is _____ KCAS or Vmma, whichever is higher.

A

250 KCAS

Dash-1: Table 5-11 (Note 3)

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67
Q

If flight through contaminated air is experienced with the air conditioning pack(s) operating, the conditioned airflow used for the cooling avionics will be _____.

A

contaminated

Dash-1: 1-736 (W)

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68
Q

If the ambient temperatures are above _____, avionics cooling airflow must be supplied from conditioned air augmentation (APU or air conditioner ground unit).

A

90° F

Dash-1: 1-753 (N)

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69
Q

Pitch Reference Trim is available _____.

A

[B & C]
- with the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in EFCS
- with the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in MECH

Dash-1: 1-1078 - 1080 (N)

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70
Q

If the _____ fails, automatic ground spoilers may not deploy during a rejected takeoff or subsequent landing.

A

GND SPLR/LAPES switch

Dash-1: 1-1149 (W)

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71
Q

In frontside configuration, the basic mode for the AFCS pitch axis is the _____ mode.

A

Vertical Speed / Altitude Hold

Dash-1: 1-1336

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72
Q

T or F: The Alpha Speed function provides flight guidance and/or control to limit minimum airspeed to configuration Alpha Speed, which provides safe buffet or stall margin for the existing aircraft configuration (flaps, slats, thrust level, weight & altitude).

A

True

Dash-1: 1-1359

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73
Q

When the FPV drift angle exceeds the limit of the HUD or PFD field of view, pitch information from the flashing FPV is _____ and only the _____ FPV symbol will provide correct vertical path information.

A

flashing FPV - unusable
caged FPV - correct vertical path information

Dash-1: 1-1506 (W)

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74
Q

The Stall Warning System provides stick shaker and aural “STALL” alerts to pilots when flight conditions (airspeed) approach what range?

A

1.05 - 1.15 Vs

Dash-1: 1-1211

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75
Q

_____ will not re-arm spoilers for RTO mode during touch-and-go landings.

A

Moving all four throttles to the idle reverse detent

Dash-1: 1-1166

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76
Q

Ground operations longer than _____ minutes with the OAT above 38° C (100° F) may result in IRCM TX x FAIL and degraded IRCM performance.

A

25 minutes

Dash-1: 2-55, Step 2 (C)

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77
Q

[Block 21 only] If takeoff roll or initial climbout is accompanied by unusual aircraft yaw motion or abnormal rudder movement, the EFCS may have reverted to FORZEN GAINS. _____.

A

All of the above:
- Prior to Vgo, a reject is recommended.
- If takeoff is continued, repeatedly press EFCS RESET, allowing 1 sec between button presses.
- Transition to FCC FIXED GAIN is not available until 2 criteria are met: weight-off-wheels & A/R Mode not engaged
Dash-1: 3-348-349

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78
Q

[FCC FIXED GAIN] Large abrupt rudder inputs at speeds over _____ KCAS can overstress the vertical stabilizer and rudders.

A

200 KCAS

Dash-1: 3-236 (C)

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79
Q

The maximum airspeed for extending the slats is _____ KCAS; for retracting is _____ KCAS.

A

280 KCAS - extending
270 KCAS - retracting

Dash-1: Table 5-11

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80
Q

Recover from a stall by simultaneously accomplish the following:

A

All of the above:
- smoothly apply down stick for adequate nose down pitch rate
- advance throttles to MAX and retract speedbrakes
- level wings while maintaining nose down attitude
Dash-1: 6-17

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81
Q

[Block 21 only] T or F: Operations at airfields with the OAT 43° C or above may result in EFCS reversion to FROZEN GAINS.

A

True

Dash-1: 5-8

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82
Q

[Block 21 only] If you encounter FROZEN GAINS, maintain airspeed within +/- _____ of the airspeed when FROZEN GAINS occurred.

A

30 KCAS

Dash-1: 3-349-351

83
Q

[Block 21 only] T or F: If stabilized on approach speed and you encounter FROZEN GAINS, land in FROZEN GAINS.

A

True

Dash-1: 3-350

84
Q

What is the fuel allowance for a typical approach and landing?

A

3,800 lbs

Dash-1-1: 11-44

85
Q

Ensure and imbalance no greater than _____ lbs exists between wither wing, and between either tank on a given wing, except when fuel requirements dictate.

A

1,000 lbs

Dash-1: 2-43, Step 20c

86
Q

If an individual fuel tank indicator on the overhead panel is inoperative, the Total Fuel Indicator (totalizer) displays _____.

A

the correct total fuel

Dash-1: Fig 1-55, sheet 2 (N)

87
Q

When fuel quantities drop below approximately _____ lbs for the inboard tanks or _____ lbs for the outboard tanks, the respective transfer pumps become uncovered and ineffective.

A

28,000 lbs - inboard XFER pumps
12,000 lbs - outboard XFER pumps

Dash-1: Fig 1-56, sheet 4 (N)

88
Q

Fuel dump above _____ feet may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure.

A

20,000’

Dash-1: 3-405 (W)

89
Q

Normally fuel dump is accomplished with the center separation valve closed. Confirm that both lights illuminate or _____.

A

open the separation valve immediately

Dash-1: 3-405, Step 10 (C)

90
Q

(Block 21C - 23A w/ OBIGGS II) When the aircraft has been electrically powered for greater than _____ continuous hours with either or both OBIGGS switchlights selected OFF, both WCCs will fail. This also occurs when both OBIGGS switchlights are selected ON and either or both OBIGGS remain in STBY.

A

17 continuous hours

Dash-1: 1-345

91
Q

GPWS Mode 4C (gear down, flaps 1/2 detent or less, and below 500’ RA) is inoperative when _____.

A

TACTICAL mode is selected

Dash-1-2: 1-197 (W)

92
Q

During taxi with speed greater than 20 knots with symmetric thrust (15 knots asymmetric thrust), a 20° nose wheel steering angle applies if gross weight exceeds _____ lbs or with more than _____ lbs of fuel.

A

490,000 lbs gross weight
165,000 lbs fuel

Dash-1: Table 5-5

93
Q

The maximum taxi speed for paved taxiways is _____ knots; maximum speed for semi-prepared taxiways is _____ knots with gross weight/fuel weight less than or equal to 435,000/82,000 lbs respectively.

A

40 knots - paved
30 knots - semi-prepared

Dash-1: Table 5-5 & 5-14

94
Q

Minimum runway & taxiway widths for C-17 operations are:

A

90 feet - runway
50 feet - taxiway

2C-17V3: 5.11.1

95
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _____ feet.

A

25 feet - no wing walkers
10 feet - w/ wing walkers

2C-17V3: 5.12.1

96
Q

From the left seat, an imaginary line drawn from the row of rivets inside the number _____ engine cowling at approximately the _____ o’clock position closely identifies 25-foot wingtip clearance.

A

1 engine
4 o’clock

3-3: 3.2.3.4.1

97
Q

(Legacy HUD) While taxiing the aircraft straight ahead, the position of the nosewheel is approximately by _____.

A

All of the above:
- the inboard screw of the HUD
- the inboard leg of the pilot
- the first inboard dot of the lateral deviation indicator in the HUD

3-3: 3.2.3.2

98
Q

(RHUD) T or F: The legacy HUD references for nosewheel position remain valid for taxiing the aircraft straight ahead. The RHUD centerline reference is between the center and first lateral deviation dot (cross-cockpit side).

A

True

C-17 RHUD Training & Ground References, Slides 30 & 31

99
Q

On a dry surface, with symmetric engine thrust and no differential braking, the aircraft can execute a 180° turn in _____ feet.

A

143 feet

3-3: 3.2.3.7

100
Q

T or F: Operating engines in idle reverse thrust for extended periods during high OATs may cause 1 or more engine FIREX bottles to discharge uncommanded.

A

True

Dash-1: 2-82, Step 6 (C)

101
Q

The primary purpose of the transfer pump is to _____ in the event of No. 2 or No. 3 engine loss.

A

Both A & B
- assist in cargo door and ramp closing
- assist in landing gear retraction

Dash-1: 1-851

102
Q

The HSC determines the demand pump operation in the following sequence of priority for hydraulic system No. 3:

A

(1) primary
(2) secondary
(3) XFER
(4) AUX

Dash-1: 1-873

103
Q

Do not attempt to take off with any hydraulic reservoir temperature indicating less than _____° C. Low rudder temperature indicates insufficient rate of rudder deflection to correct for an engine failure on takeoff.

A

7° C

Dash-1: 2-57, Step 14 (W)

104
Q

Primary flight controls are powered by how many hydraulic systems?

A

2

Dash-1: 3-339, step 3 (N)

105
Q

T or F: To prevent cavitation and extend the service life of hydraulic pumps in systems 1 & 4, leave the respective system PRI/SEC/AUX pumps on until LOW illuminates in both PRI-SEC pump switchlights.

A

True

Dash-1: 2-74, Step 18 (N)

106
Q

If steering commands from the tillers and rudder pedals are in disagreement, _____.

A

the rudder command will be overridden

Dash-1: 1-912

107
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes?

A

No. 2

Dash-1: 1-917

108
Q

If ground speed on the MFD ND appears excessive, _____.

A

all 4 IRUs should be realigned if on the ground

Dash-1: 1-926

109
Q

If a large disparity occurs between the IRU ground speed and anti-skid brake controller sensed ground speed, braking capability will be reduced. If in flight, accomplish the landing using _____.

A

Landing with Erroneous Ground Speed procedure

Dash-1: 1-926

110
Q

What is the maximum airspeed allowable for extending the landing gear?

A

250 KCAS

Dash-1: Table 5-11

111
Q

(Tire cord limits) The maximum wear limit (MWL) is defined as the exposure of the _____ cord layer plus _____ additional landings.

A

third cord layer
2 additional landings

Dash-1: 5-69

112
Q

T or F: After an MC Degraded Mode, the MC may generate extreme navigation errors, as indicated by PPOS-related depictions shifting on the MFD. Wait 10 seconds for the MCs to self recover, then perform a FLUSH ALL.

A

True

Dash-1-2: 1-1174 (C)

113
Q

(Before Taxi Checklist) If MC1/MC2 are not in proper BC/BU configuration, _____ may occur.

A

permanent degraded mode

Dash-1: 2-55, Step 6 (C)

114
Q

A personnel restraint harness or parachute is required to be worn _____.

A

when inspecting aircraft doors after an in-flight door/hatch warning

Dash-1: 3-540, Step 24

115
Q

What is the aircraft configuration for an emergency descent?

A

Throttles - IDLE or IDLE REV
Speedbrakes - Deployed (As Req’d)
Airspeed - As Required

Dash-1: 3-541

116
Q

If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker _____.

A

after landing and terminating the emergency

11-202V3 AMC SUP: 22.4.5

117
Q

The TO 1C-17A-1 provides _____ operating instructions under _____ circumstances, but it is not a substitute for _____. Multiple emergencies, adverse weather, terrain, etc. may require modification of the procedures.

A

the best possible
most
sound judgement

Dash-1: Page iii

118
Q

The C-17A is a category _____ for turbulence. Air Force turbulence forecasts in TAFs and hazard charts are specified for category _____ aircraft.

A

III
II

11-202V3/Army TC 3-04.14-2, 2.4.2.1.2 & Table 2.2

119
Q

Wind component data displayed on the Map and Compass Formats of the MFDs display mission computer-filtered solutions of air data over the past _____ seconds.

A

60 sec

Dash-1: Fig 1-183, Sheet 9 (N)

120
Q

When turbulence is encountered or expected, _____ ignition will be used.

A

A & B

Dash-1: 2-63, Step 6

121
Q

During a rejected takeoff, _____.

A

move all 4 throttles to idle reverse, then only symmetrical throttles beyond idle reverse

Dash-1: 3-572

122
Q

Which of the following results in an individual being declared NMR?

A

Any of the above
- failure to maintain flying currency
- failure to complete semi-annual flying continuation training requirements
- failure to complete ground continuation training requirements

2C-17V1 (4.10)

123
Q

Crew Duty Time (CDT) _____.

A

All of the above
- is the period of time and aircrew may perform combined ground/flight duties
- begins when an individual reports for their 1st duty period (mil or civ)
- includes both military and civilian work

11-202V3_AMC SUP (3.2.5)

124
Q

The maximum crew duty time (CDT) for a basic crew (including Basic + 1) is _____ hours; it is _____ hours for an augmented crew.

A

18 hours
24 + 45 hours

11-2C-17V3 (2.5.3)

125
Q

Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins _____.

A

All of the above:
- when an aircrew member first reports for official duty
- at aircrew show time when self-alerting
- for planning purposes, NLT 1 hour after alert

11-202V3_AMC SUP (3.2.1)

126
Q

The maximum flight duty period (FDP) for a basic crew (including Basic + 1) is _____ hours; it is _____ hours for an augmented crew.

A

16 hours
24 hours

11-2C-17V3 (2.5.1.1 & 2.5.2)

127
Q

T or F: Both pilots will VERIFY the intended changes prior to execution to include the correct mode is selected (e.g. ensure LNAV is selected when cleared to a point while on a heading).

A

TRUE

11-202V3 AMC SUP (29.4.5.2)

128
Q

(Destination Requirements for Filing Purposes) File 2 alternates when:

A

the forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than published for the available precision approach

11-202V3 AMC SUP (4.16.7)

129
Q

For RNAV approaches, ensure that the _____ is updating the MC position for civil approaches.

A

selected GPS source

Dash-1: 2-231, Step 5

130
Q

T or F: MGPS loaded with PPS keys is authorized for sole-source navigation in civil airspace. Refer to MAJCOM guidance.

A

TRUE

Dash-1-2: Table 1-1 (N)

131
Q

To select the IRU1/MGPS1 blended solution present position (PPOS) with CGPS containment for navigation, use the following configuration:

A

Pilot ID switch (P) pilot side, CGPS UPDATE selected on LSK 2L of NAV SENSORS - CONTROL page 6/7

Dash-1-2 (1-1157)

132
Q

The cabin pressurization SEMI mode controls cabin pressure according to _____.

A

the baro-corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT-FT display window

Dash-1 (1-769)

133
Q

When the CREW OXY LOW message illuminates on the WAP, it indicates that oxygen quantity _____.

A

O2 < 5 L or supply pressure < 60 ± 5 psi

Dash-1 (1-2417)

134
Q

(Assuming the aircraft has accelerated to 250 KCAS or Vmsr) During a Standard Departure Profile, the PM will engage the desired climb power on the SED _____. During the Alternate Departure Profile, the PM will engage the desired climb power on the SED _____.

A

when directed by the PF

when directed by the PF

Dash-1 (2-142 & 2-146)

135
Q

Pressing SC ZERO whenever the IRUs are in the ON position erases encryption keys, almanac and position information, forcing the _____ to reacquire. It will take much longer than normal on the next power up for the _____ to synchronize.

A

(M)GPS
(M)GPS

Dash-1 (2-76, Step 12 C)

136
Q

For RSC greater than _____ and an RCR less than _____, the actual runway required for takeoff/landing could exceed runway available.

A

RCR > 0.00
RCR < 12

Dash-1-1 (3-120 (W) & 9-70 (W))

137
Q

Each successful FCC and SC/EFC preflight BITs (PFBIT) can be considered valid for a period of _____ hours provided FCC, SC/EFC, flight control or hydraulic system integrity have not been compromised during that time period. Reaccomplish the PFBIT if maintenance has been performed on any of these systems.

A

72 hours

Dash-1 (2-879)

138
Q

In general, address malfunctions in the following order:

A

(1) Aural CAWS
(2) MASTER WARNING
(3) MASTER CAUTION
(4) EFCS/MISSION STATUS page

Dash-1 (3-5)

139
Q

T or F: Land as soon as possible means a landing should be accomplished at the nearest suitable airfield, whereas land as soon as practical means landing at the nearest suitable airfield may not be necessary.

A

TRUE

Dash-1 (3-15)

140
Q

The following rule(s) should be followed regarding circuit breakers:

A

All of the above
- do not reset or cycle any fuel pump circuit breaker
-never pull & reset CBs as a means to recover lost components unless directed to do so
-except where prohibited, open CBs may be reset once in the event that the electrical condition was transient

Dash-1 (3-28 W)

141
Q

Whenever using EFCS RESET, allow _____ seconds after pressing the button for the LRU to be reset and EFCS RESET to extinguish from the WAP, unless directed otherwise in the procedures.

A

5 seconds

Dash-1 (3-35)

142
Q

The warning bell signals for Crash Landings are:
Immediately after takeoff _____ ring(s)
Prepare for crash landing _____ ring(s)
Brace of impact _____ ring(s).

A

TO - 1 long
Crash - 6 short
Impact - 1 long

Dash-1 (Table 3-1)

143
Q

T or F: Prior to completing a critical action, the PM shall point to the affected switch/handle/level and verbally seek confirmation from the PF.

A

TRUE

Dash-1 (3-12)

144
Q

The GROUND EVACUATION checklists are only located _____.

A

in the Quick Reaction Guide (QRG)

Dash-1 (3-52 & 3-54)

145
Q

If entering a tactical environment immediately after takeoff, TACTICAL can be selected on the GPWS/TAWS CONTROL page, but the displays will not switch to tactical until the aircraft is _____.

A

farther than 15 NM from the runway OR above 1500’ AGL

Dash-1 (Table 1-79)

146
Q

[Thrust Reverser Status, 3l] When a SPAM runway is selected for EMERGENCY RETURN or LANDING, the MC adds another thrust reverser selection for 4 engine (4ENG). 4 ENG assumes _____.

A

all 4 engines operating and in maximum reverse thrust

Dash-1-2: 1-932

147
Q

T or F: Aircrews must ensure the rolling friction factor (RFF) permits a takeoff at maximum planned weight prior to landing.

A

TRUE

3-3 (3.4.1.6.1)

148
Q

_____ terrain masking is placing terrain behind the aircraft, so it is difficult to distinguish the aircraft from the background.
_____ terrain masking is placing the terrain between the aircraft and the threat.

A

Indirect

Direct

3-3 (Figure 4.7)

149
Q

[Time Control] If there are no waypoints between the top and bottom of descent, expect to be 1 minute early/late per _____ feet of descents/climbs, respectively.

A

10,000

3-3 (4.5.2.2.3)

150
Q

[Time Control, High Altitude] Take _____% of TAS to determine how long a 360° turn will take in minutes.

A

1%

3-3 (4.5.2.3.2.1)

151
Q

[Time Control, Low Altitude] Turn _____° off course for 1 minute, then turn back to course on a _____° intercept for 1 minute. This allows the crew to intercept the original course and lose 1 minute.

A

60° off course
60° intercept

3-3 (4.5.2.10.1)

152
Q

For low-altitude, level slowdown, use _____ of ground speed as a general rule of thumb. Add _____ if above 280 KCAS to allow time to configure.

A

1%
1 NM

3-3: Table 5.1

153
Q

What approximate descent gradient can be obtained flying 230 KCAS and configured with Slats and Speed Brakes?

A

525 ft/NM

3-3: Table 5.5

154
Q

In a tactical environment, a _____ is an established reference point from which the position of an object can be referenced by bearing (magnetic) and range (NM) from this point.

A

BULLSEYE

3-3: A4.2 Brevity Codes

155
Q

Weather minimums for NVG departures for crewmembers who are non-current and/or unqualified is _____. Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures weather down to _____ (OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to _____).

A

1500-3
600-2
300-1

2C-17v3: 5.13.1

156
Q

(NVG Operations) Maximum crosswind component for takeoff or landing is _____ knots for runways 90-120 feet wide.

A

15 knots

2C-17v3: 5.13.2.1 & 5.18.2.1

157
Q

To back the C-17 when all 4 engines overhang identically prepared or, if unavoidable, unprepared ground surface, _____.

A

stagger the outboard throttles 1/4 to 3/4 knob width relative to the inboard throttles, with the outboards providing greater reverse thrust (frowny face)

Dash-1: Table 2-1

158
Q

To back the C-17 when any outboard engine overhangs an unprepared or debris covered surface, with inboard engines completely over a prepared debris-free surface.

A

modulate reverse thrust on the inboard engines while holding the outboard engines at or near idle reverse (smiley face)

Dash-1: Table 2-1

159
Q

T or F: When adequate visual reference to the surrounding terrain is not available, GPWS/TAWS warning requires prompt and decisive action to avoid contact with the ground. Exceptions will be annotated in command guidance.

A

TRUE

Dash-1: 2-67 (W)

160
Q

The F/D Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) submode is engaged by pressing the _____ when a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) is present and the A/R mode is not engaged.

A

AP disengage switch on either control stick

Dash-1: 1-1447

161
Q

A target aircraft is within 6 NM and could be potentially hazardous. This is _____.

A

a Traffic Advisory (TA)

Dash-1: 1-1658

162
Q

The PPI SKE and ND Map formats depict only _____ altitudes for TCAS traffic.

A

relative

Dash-1: Figure 1-210 (Sheet 4)

163
Q

The Standard Departure Profile uses a select MC data element, _____, and aero performance data, rather than an MC calculated solution, to validate the aircraft flight path meets or exceeds a given climb gradient when flown as published.

A

MC COF: ACT

Dash-1: 2-141

164
Q

Use the lower of the following two altitudes to determine the planned 3-engine acceleration altitude:

A

MC ACC ALT
MIN IFR Altitude

Dash-1: 3-222

165
Q

T or F: During high ambient air temperatures and reverse idle conditions, primary TOLD and allowable cargo load calculations may be overly restrictive. Use secondary TOLD to compare against primary TOLD to determine if allowable cargo load is overly restrictive.

A

TRUE

Dash-1: 2-10 (N)

166
Q

T or F: The mission computer TOLD pages will accept OAT entries up to 60° C (140° F) and will display incorrect data without annunciating this condition to the aircrew. Therefore, takeoff at OAT limits above the 1C-17A-1 MAX OAT values is not allowed.

A

TRUE

Dash-1: 5-7

167
Q

If AGS does not deploy on landing, DLC spoilers are available to manually deploy _____ of AGS effectiveness.

A

25%

Dash-1: 2-388 (N)

168
Q

Intermediate Thrust Rating (INT) is the _____. This is the recommended rating for engine-out climbs.

A

highest thrust certified for continuous use

Dash-1-1: 2-9

169
Q

Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) rating is the _____.

A

highest thrust recommended for normal climb operation

Dash-1-1: 2-11

170
Q

Go speed (Vgo) is the lowest of _____, _____, or _____.

A

Vrot, Vr, Vbmax

Dash-1-1: 3-26

171
Q

T or F: The aircraft static air temperature shall not be used for takeoff calculation since heat radiation picked up by the sensing element can cause considerable error. Using an incorrect temperature may result in an unsafe takeoff.

A

True

Dash-1-1: 3-115 (W)

172
Q

A lineup distance penalty must be applied anytime the takeoff is not commenced from the beginning of the usable runway. Apply a standard distance of _____ feet to account for turnign the aircraft around on the runway or accessing the runway from a taxiway.

A

250 feet

Dash-1-1: 3-86

173
Q

If VBO LDG DIST exceeds _____ and LDG DIST is valid, VBO LDG DIST is highlighted and VBO LDG DIST/nnn.nGW (MSG) is generated. If VBO GND ROLL exceeds _____ and VBO GND ROLL is highlighted and VBO GD ROLL/nnn.nGW (MSG) is generated.

A

RWY AVAIL
RWY AVAIL

Dash-1-2: 1-970 & 1-971

174
Q

MC ACC ALT calculations may allow level-off acceleration altitudes well below obstacle/climb gradient altitudes. Compliance with ______ is essential in achieving computed performance capability.

A

climb out procedures

Dash-1: 3-220 (N)

175
Q

For 3/4 flap precision approaches with glide path angles steeper than 3.2 degrees, increase landing distance by _____ feet and do not exceed _____ feet per minute descent rate.

A

300 feet
900 feet

Dash-1: 2-246 & 2-247

176
Q

For full-flap precision approaches (non-assault) with glide path angles between 3.8° and the MC-calculated full-flap approach angle, increase landing distance by _____ feet. This can be accomplished in the MC by reducing runway available by _____ feet.

A

600 feet
600 feet

Dash-1: 2-247

177
Q

The MC uses _____ thrust to compute ACC ALT, including when evaluating 3-engine climb gradients.

A

the selected takeoff

Dash-1: 3-220

178
Q

When taking off from an airfield with a pressure altitude over _____ feet, review Operations at High Altitude Airports procedures in Section VII.

A

8,000

Dash-1: 2-55

179
Q

After an in-flight Degraded Mode, the MC re-enables _____, which will assert during subsequent touch-and-go landings or go-around-after-touchdowns.

A

takeoff warnings ““FLAPS”, “STABILIZERS”, etc.)

Dash-1: 2-411 (N)

180
Q

If ALS is flashing when the aircraft reference symbol representing aircraft pitch attitude is within _____° of the Flight Path Vector (FPV), the ALS is erroneously activating.

A

8°

Dash-1: 3-353

181
Q

T or F: During touch-and-go landings, takeoff warnings are inhibited.

A

TRUE

Dash-1: 2-411 (N)

182
Q

Flight through extremely heavy rain, particularly with low thrust settings (<45% N1), _____.

A

may results in flameout of 1 or more engines
Dash-1: 7-82 (W)

183
Q

_____ should be used for flight in known or anticipated turbulent air or icing.

A

Engine ignition

Dash-1: 7-94 (C)

184
Q

(TO & Approach) During wind shear recovery, unless a sink rate exists, do not exceed _____° of pitch below _____ feet AGL.

A

15°
200 feet AGL

Dash-1: 7-148 (W)

185
Q

If icing conditions are present, engine anti-ice must be used continuously to help prevent _____.

A

engine damage due to ice ingestion

Dash-1: 7-97, Step 7(C)

186
Q

Takeoff will not be attempted with over _____ inch of slush or water, over _____ inch(es) of wet snow, or over _____ inches of dry snow on the runway.

A

1/2 inch
1 inch
3 inches

Dash-1: 7-202

187
Q

Failure to periodically perform the Fan Blade Ice Shedding procedure can result in engine damage. If more than _____ minutes have expired since engine start and icing conditions persist, delay takeoff until the procedure is accomplished.

A

10 minutes

Dash-1: 7-195 (C)

188
Q

Under no circumstance will flights be planned through ______ icing conditions. Aircraft operation in _____ icing conditions may be tolerated for short periods of time (climb or descent), but evasive action should be taken to exit icing conditions as soon as practicable.

A

forecast or known severe

moderate

Dash-1: 7-210 (W)

189
Q

If icing conditions are expected during the descent, engine anti-ice, wing anti-ice, and windshield anti-ice will be turned on at least _____ feet above the expected icing level in order to provide adequate warmup time.

A

10,000

Dash-1: 7-226

190
Q

The Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check is required if holdover time has expired or if freezing precipitation is occurring on an aircraft that was not anti-iced. The contamination check must be completed from OUTSIDE the aircraft within _____ minutes.

A

5 minutes

Dash-1: 7-250

191
Q

(Fluid Holdover Times) The C-17 is considered a(n) _____ aircraft.

A

aluminum
Dash-1: 7-255 (N)

192
Q

(Weather Minimums for Takeoff) What minimum visibility is required to depart on an operational mission in the absence of RVR readout?

A

B or C
1/2 statute mile
OR 800 meters

11-202v3 AMC SUP: Table 5.7

193
Q

In order to minimize exposure to thunderstorm hazards when approaching or departing an airport in an area where thunderstorms are occurring or are forecast aircrews should:

A

all of the above:
- attempt to maintain VMC
- maintain at least 5 NM separation from heavy rain showers
- avoid areas of high lightning potential (i.e. clouds within ±5,000’ of freezing level or ±8°C of freezing level)

11-202v3 AMC SUP: 5.3.1

194
Q

If the pilot encounters a windshear, the recovery procedures must employed _____.

A

immediately

Dash-1: 7-144

195
Q

(Wx Radar) What mode would be selected on the Radar Control Panel to see rainfall inside/behind areas of turbulence?

A

WX MAN

Dash-1: 1-2221 (C)

196
Q

(Wx Radar) For an aircraft cruising at or above 29,000 feet, existing weather will be depicted as non-relevant (striped) when _____.

A

A & B
- actual weather is not within ±4,000’ relative to aircraft’s actual/projected altitude
- actual weather below 25,000’

Dash-1: 1-2214

197
Q

(Wx Radar) The magenta areas represent areas of _____ turbulence and should always be avoided.

A

moderate to severe

Dash-1: 7-7

198
Q

(ERO) Do not onload or offload through the crew entrance door and cargo ramp/door at the same time unless both doors are directly supervised by a(n) _____.

A

C-17A qualified pilot/loadmaster

11-2C-17v3: 14.4.2

199
Q

T or F: Concurrent Servicing operations are not required unless refueling/defueling with JP-4, loading/downloading flares, or servicing LOX.

A

TRUE

11-2C-17v3: 9.3.4

200
Q

T or F: Maintenance personnel or crew member should be used to act as “ground” during engine starts. The engines may be started without someone outside the aircraft. If this option is used, ensure all crew members are thoroughly briefed.

A

TRUE

11-2C-17v3: 4.27

201
Q

T or F: Maintain a minimum 9-foot radius from operating engines. Engines at any power setting are capable of developing enough inlet duct suction to cause fatal injuries to a person too close to the inlet.

A

TRUE

Dash-1: 2-425, Step 1 (W)

202
Q

At _____ thrust, the engine blast is 68 MPH at 95 feet.

A

FWD IDLE

Dash-1: Fig 2-23 (Sheet 1)

203
Q

T or F: The Before Takeoff Checklist will be accomplished before all takeoffs, unless executing the Full Stop Taxi-Back checklist.

A

TRUE

Dash-1: 2-57

204
Q

The After Landing Checklist will be run after every landing, unless the _____ checklist will be accomplished.

A

Full Stop Taxi-Back

Dash-1: 2-71

205
Q
A

C-17 (2 decks)

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