QRI MQF Study Questions

Question 1

The AP has 2 modes of operation: _____ and _____.

Answer 1

normal, AP degraded

Dash-1: 1-1247

Question 2

AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma airspeeds with invalid aircraft weights (both MCs inop, etc.).

Answer 2

False

AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma airspeeds with invalid aircraft weights (both MCs inop, etc.). Dash-1: 1-1275 (W)

Question 3

During MC degraded Modes, _____ use(s) the last valid altitude and heading data they received prior to the Degraded Mode. Advise ATC as necessary.

Answer 3

IFF & TCAS

Dash-1: 1-2240 (N)

Question 4

There are normally _____ first-aid kits installed on the aircraft with provisions for _____ total.

Answer 4

6, 26

Dash-1: 1-2652

Question 5

There are _____ fire extinguishers onboard the aircraft with _____ in the cockpit and ______ in the crew rest area.

Answer 5

(9) total
- (2) in cockpit,
- (1) in crew rest
- (6) in cargo compartment

Dash-1: 1-2654

Question 6

Bank angles greater than _____ degrees are not recommended. The maximum bank angle is _____ degrees.

Answer 6

60 degrees not recommended
70 degrees max

Dash-1: 5-38

Question 7

On Extended Range aircraft with more than _____ pounds total fuel, delay braking until nose gear touchdown unless there is less than _____ pounds of fuel in the four extended range compartments combined.

Answer 7

165,000 pounds total fuel
4,000 pounds

Dash-1: 2-385

Question 8

The maximum allowable crosswind component is _____ knots.

Answer 8

30 knots

Dash-1: 5-14

Question 9

The maximum allowable component is _____ knots for tailwinds (except for crews certified by command guidance) and _____ knots for headwinds.

Answer 9

10 knots max tailwind
40 knots max headwind

Dash-1: 5-15, 5-16

Question 10

Instrument approach RVR/visibility and, if required, ceiling minimums will be as published for a category _____ aircraft. If maneuvering speed exceeds 165 knots, the minimums for category _____ will be used.

Bonus: The C-17 is a category _____ aircraft.

Answer 10

category D, category E

C-17 is a category D aircraft

2C17v3: 6.16.1

Question 10

The maximum landing touchdown sink rate (502,100 lbs) is _____ fpm.

Answer 10

660 fpm

Dash-1: Table 5-6

Question 11

If full flight instrumentation is not available and operational, aircraft are limited to a DH/MDA based on _____.

Answer 11

HAT of 300’ and RVR 4,000
OR
3/4 mile (1200m) visibility with no RVR

2C-17v3: 6.16.5

Question 12

The APU AUTO SHT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdown protection except _____.

Answer 12

indicated fire and overspeed

Dash-1: Figure 1-45

Question 13

The cargo compartment APU warning horns can be inhibited during ground operations by the _____ switch on the Entrance Light Panel.

Answer 13

INTL HORN INHIBIT

Dash-1: 1-212 (N)

Question 14

If the APU is inoperative, ensure either a _____ is in place or a _____ connected before shutting down the last engine.

Answer 14

fire guard/fire extinguisher
air cart

Dash-1: 2-498 (N)

Question 15

The APU starter operating limit is _____ minute(s) and any APU starter engagement is considered a start attempt.
_____ starts may be attempted per one hour rolling cycle with a minimum delay of _____ minutes between attempts.

Answer 15

1 minute
3 starts/cycle
5 minutes between attempts

Dash-1: 5-34

Question 16

The visual signals for a BREAKAWAY are _____.

Answer 16

tanker flashing Pilot Director Lights and/or turning lower rotating beacon ON

Dash-1: Table 8-4

Question 17

If the receiver overruns the tanker, the receiver will reduce airspeed to _____, and maintain track and altitude.

Answer 17

255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering airspeed, whichever is higher

Dash-1: 8-55

Question 18

When the receiver pilot is closing and approaching the pre-contact position, _____.

Answer 18

the receiver will stabilize in the pre-contact position and attain a zero rate of closure

Dash-1: 8-125 (W)

Question 19

Monitor designated A/R frequency at least _____ minutes prior to ARCT.

Answer 19

30 minutes

Dash-1: 8-130 (Step 3)

Question 20

A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished _____.

Answer 20

only as a last resort

Dash-1: 3-89

Question 21

(Emergency Boom Latching Procedures): It is possible to cause structural damage to the air refueling boom and slipway by severe relative movement between the 2 aircraft when operating override since the _____ are deactivated.
The _____ must initiate all disconnects before exceeding any of the limits.

Answer 21

limit switches

receiver pilot

Dash-1: 3-92 (C)

Question 22

During the RV Delta (Point Parallel) procedure, the receiver(s) will _____.

Answer 22

All the above:
- be established at 1000’ below the assigned AAR altitude when deaprting the ARIP
- enter the track via the ARIP and be at the ARCP at ARCT
- aid the RV, by remaining in electronic contact on radar, A/A TACAN, TCAS or other means as soon as possible, but no later than 50 NM range or ARIP (whichever is first)

3-3: 2.16 (4)

Question 23

[Double AAR Planning] Determine a combination that keeps both of the _____ fuel values and the _____ greater than zero. That amount is the minimum onload required.

Answer 23

STORED
UNID EXTRA

3-3: 6.2.2.5.3

Question 24

In the event of loss of visual contact with the tanker in either the contact or astern position (or following a breakaway), _____.

Answer 24

All of the above:
- immediately disconnect, transition to instruments, make radio call “loss of visual contact”, and slow 10 knots
- hold tanker heading & descend 1000’; resume normal speed after 30 sec
- roll wings level & descend 1000’; turn on tanker’s heading; resume normal speed after 30 sec

3-3: 2.46