QRC ChT Q&A

Question 1

Mass ____

A. has the SI unit of pounds.
B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.
C. is the quantitative measure of acceleration, a fundamental property of all matter.
D. constitutes the force exerted on matter by the gravitational attraction of Earth, and so it varies slightly from place to place.

Answer 1

B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.

Question 2

Which of the following is escribed as having components that CANNOT be physically separated?

A. mixture
B. solution
C. suspension
D. pure substance

Answer 2

D. pure substance

Question 3

Which of the following is TRUE?

A. Compounds have only one type of atom.
B. Elements can be chemically decomposed.
C. Solutions are considered as pure substances.
D. Heterogeneous mixtures have phase boundaries.

Answer 3

D. Heterogeneous mixtures have phase boundaries.

Question 4

Mothballs are used as deodorizer and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in air for a few hours, they disappeared. Which of the following BEST explains the scenario?

A. It underwent sublimation.
B. It melted then vaporized.
C. It reacted with something in the air.
D. None of the above.

Answer 4

A. It underwent sublimation.

Question 5

Which does NOT indicate a chemical change?

A. change in color
B. increase in temperature
C. change in shape
D. evolution of gas

Answer 5

C. change in shape

Question 6

Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?

A. density
B. viscosity
C. freezing point
D. number of moles

Answer 6

D. number of moles

Question 7

Which of the following is an intensive property?

A. density
B. melting point
C. electric potential
D. all of the above

Answer 7

D. all of the above

Question 8

The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is _____.

A. 1 atm
B. 760 mmHg
C. 760 torr
D. all of the above

Answer 8

D. all of the above

Question 9

The flasks in the image above (labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4) contains the same number of molecules. In which flask is pressure the highest?
(flask in increasing volume)

A. flask 2
B. flask 1
C. flask 3
D. flask 4

Answer 9

B. flask 1

Question 10

What is the molar mass of an unknown gas if 1.60 g of the gas occupies a volume of 2.24 L at STP?

A. 35.8 g/mol
B. 160 g/mol
C. 16.0 g/mol
D. 81.0 g/mol

Answer 10

C. 16.0 g/mol

Question 11

Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?

A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.

Answer 11

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

Question 12

What is the most common isotope of Hydrogen?

A. Hydrogen only has one isotope
B. Deuterium
C. Tritium
D. Protium

Answer 12

D. Protium

Question 13

From left to right in a periodic table _____.

A. atomic radius increases
B. ionization energy decreases
C. electronegativity increases
D. none of the above

Answer 13

C. electronegativity increases

Question 14

Which of the following atoms is the largest?

A. Cesium
B. Strontium
C. Gallium
D. Arsenic

Answer 14

A. Cesium

Question 15

Chromium is a member of which of the following?

A. Actinides
B. Lanthanides
C. Alkali metals
D. Transition metals

Answer 15

D. Transition metals

Question 16

Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?

A. Zinc
B. Boron
C. Lithium
D. Calcium

Answer 16

B. Boron

Question 17

Noble gases are unreactive because they have complete outer electron shells. Which of the following elements is NOT a noble gas?

A. Chlorine
B. Krypton
C. Helium
D. Argon

Answer 17

A. Chlorine

Question 18

Which is NOT an acceptable name for Hg2Cl2?

A. Mercury(II) chloride
B. Mercury(I) chloride
C. Mercurous chloride
D. Dimercury dichloride

Answer 18

A. Mercury(II) chloride

Question 19

What is the chemical formula of diphosphorus monobromide?

A. PBr2
B. PBr
C. P2Br2
D. P2Br

Answer 19

D. P2Br

Question 20

Sodium carbonate is also known as?

A. baking soda
B. soda ash
C. caustic potash
D. caustic soda

Answer 20

B. soda ash

Question 21

All of these elements are strict followers of the octet rule, EXCEPT

A. Boron
B. Carbon
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen

Answer 21

A. Boron

Question 22

Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?

A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describes a nonpolar bond.

Answer 22

C. It has a dipole moment.

Question 23

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.
D. None of the statements above is true.

Answer 23

C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

Question 24

Which of the following covalent compounds has a tetrahedral geometry?

A. CH4
B. NH3
C. H2O
D. BF3

Answer 24

A. CH4

Question 25

Which of the following is a polar molecule?

A. CO2
B. SF4
C. CCI4
D. XeF4

Answer 25

B. SF4

Question 26

Polar molecules include which of the following?
I. CO2
II. COCI2
III. CH2Cl2

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only

Answer 26

D. II and III only

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA?

A. high viscosity
B. high volatility
C. high boiling point
D. high melting point

Answer 27

B. high volatility

Question 28

What is the principal intermolecular force that must be overcome when hexane is vaporized?

A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Covalent bonding between carbons
C. Dipole-dipole forces
D. London dispersion forces

Answer 28

D. London dispersion forces

Question 29

Which compound has the strongest intermolecular forces of attraction?

A. CO
B. CH4
C. CH3OH
D. CH3OCH3

Answer 29

C. CH3OH

Question 30

A polar solute dissolves in a polar solvent and a nonpolar solute dissolves in a nonpolar solvent. This is the ______.

A. Hund’s rule
B. Henrys law
C. solubility rule
D. ‘like dissolves like’ rule

Answer 30

D. ‘like dissolves like’ rule

Question 31

Tin(II) fluoride (156.7 g/mol) is often added to toothpaste as an ingredient to prevent tooth decay. What is the mass of fluoride (19 g/mol) in 24.6 g of tin(II) fluoride?

A. 0.31 g
B. 2.98 g
C. 5.97 g
D. 101.4g

Answer 31

C. 5.97 g

Question 32

The empirical formula of a compound is CH. The molar mass of the compound is 78 g/mol, what is its molecular formula?

A. C2H2
B. C6H6
C. C8H8
D. None of the above

Answer 32

B. C6H6

Question 33

For which compound are the empirical and molecular formulas the same?

A. C6H5COOH
B. C6H4(COOH)2
C. HOOCCOOH
D. CH3COOH

Answer 33

A. C6H5COOH

Question 34

Which of the following is a chemical equation?

A. CO2
B. C + O2 → CO2
C. Ice + Heat → Water
D. Iron + Oxygen → Rust

Answer 34

B. C + O2 → CO2

Question 35

Consider the combustion of butane C4H10 + O2 → CO2 + H2O where in a particular reaction, 5 mol of C4H10 are reacted with an excess of O2. Calculate the mol of CO2 formed.

A. 1.25 mole
B. 10 mol
C. 12.5 mol
D. 20 mol

Answer 35

D. 20 mol

Question 36

A 1.00-g sample of which compound will produce the greatest amount of CO2 after complete combustion with excess oxygen?

A. CH4
B. C3H6
C. C6H14
D. C8H18

Answer 36

B. C3H6

Question 37

Ammonia is produced in according to the equation N2 + 3H2 - 2NH3. In a particular experiment, 0.25 mol of NH3 is formed when 0.5 mol of N2 is reacted with 0.5 mol of H2. What is the percent yield?

A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 33%
D. 25%

Answer 37

A. 75%

Question 38

The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is an exothermic reaction. Which of the following will favor the formation of ammonia?

A. decrease in temperature
B. increase in temperature
C. removal of nitrogen
D. addition of ammonia

Answer 38

A. decrease in temperature

Question 39

Which of the following can change the value of the equilibrium constant?

A. addition of a catalyst
B. change in temperature
C. change in concentration
D. change in pressure or volume

Answer 39

B. change in temperature

Question 40

Which statement is TRUE?

A. The greater the activation energy, the faster the rate of reaction.
B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.
C. The value of the equilibrium constant increases with the addition of a catalyst.
D. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the number of collisions.

Answer 40

B. A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reaction rates.

Question 41

In NaH, what is the oxidation state of hydrogen?

A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2

Answer 41

A. -1

Question 42

When Cr³⁺ changes from an oxidation state of +3 to +6, Cr³⁺ will

A. gain 6 electrons
B. lose 6 electrons
C. lose 3 electrons
D. gain 3 electrons

Answer 42

C. lose 3 electrons

Question 43

Reduction involves _____ oxidation number.

A. increase of
B. decrease of
C. independence of
D. no change in

Answer 43

B. decrease of

Question 44

For the reaction Mg + H2O → MgO + H2, which is FALSE?

A. H2O is the oxidizing agent
B. Mg lost electrons
C. Mg is the oxidizing agent
D. H2O gained electrons

Answer 44

C. Mg is the oxidizing agent

Question 45

Oxidation is the same as _____

A. addition of hydrogen
B. removal of oxygen
C. addition of oxygen
D. removal of Nitrogen

Answer 45

C. addition of oxygen

Question 46

Which part of an electrochemical cell maintains electrical neutrality?

A. anode
B. salt bridge
C. cathode
D. voltmeter

Answer 46

B. salt bridge

Question 47

It is an electrochemical cell where electrical energy is used to drive a nonspontaneous redox reaction.

A. Daniell cell
B. Voltaic cell
C. Galvanic cell
D. Electrolytic cell

Answer 47

D. Electrolytic cell

Question 48

In an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs

A. at the anode
B. at the cathode
C. at either the cathode or the anode
D. between the cathode and the anode

Answer 48

A. at the anode

Question 49

During electroplating of silver, silver ions in solution

A. are oxidized at the anode
B. are oxidized at the cathode
C. are reduced at the cathode
D. remain in solution unchanged

Answer 49

C. are reduced at the cathode

Question 50

In maintenance and storage of pH meters, which of the following must NOT be done?

A. Use mild soap solution in general cleaning of electrode.
B. Store the electrode in distilled water to keep the electrode bulb moist during storage.
C. Blot electrode dry after rinsing the pH electrode.
D. Rinse pH electrode in between measurements.

Answer 50

B. Store the electrode in distilled water to keep the electrode bulb moist during storage.

Question 51

A solution is _____ if more solute can dissolve in it.

A. saturated
B. unsaturated
C. supersaturated
D. concentrated

Answer 51

B. unsaturated

Question 52

How many grams of NaOH (40 g/mol) is needed to prepare 500 mL of 0.500 N solution of NaOH?

A. 4.00 g
B. 5.00 g
C. 10.0 g
d. 10.3 G

Answer 52

C. 10.0 g

Question 53

An exact amount of 0.8214 g of KMnO4 (158 g/mol) was dissolved in water and made up to volume in a 500-mL volumetric flask. A 2.00-mL portion of this solution was transferred to a 1000-mL flask and diluted to volume. Then 10.00 mL of the diluted solution was transferred to a 250-mL flask and diluted to volume. What is the molar concentration of the final solution?

A. 0.104 M
B. 2.08x10^-5 M
C. 8.32x10^-7 M
D. none of the above

Answer 53

C. 8.32x10^-7 M

Question 54

Which procedure produces a 0.2 M solution of Na2SO4?

A. Dissolving 0.2 M solid Na2SO4 in 500 mL water.
B. Diluting 400 mL of 0.3 M Na2SO4 to a final volume of 1.0 L.
C. Mixing 500 mL of 0.4 M NaOH with 500 mL of 0.2 M Na2SO4.
D. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na2SO4.

Answer 54

D. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na2SO4.

Question 55

The lining of the stomach contains cells that secrete a solution of HCI. Which drink would best alleviate heartburn, i.e., excess acid in the stomach?

A. diet soda (pH 4.3)
B. milk of magnesia (pH 10.5)
C. milk (pH 6.5)
D. wine (pH 3.8)

Answer 55

B. milk of magnesia (pH 10.5)

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?

A. NH3 and NH4⁺
B. H2S and OH⁻
C. H2O and OH⁻
D. HCN and CN⁻

Answer 56

B. H2S and OH⁻

Question 57

The acid secreted by the cell of the stomach lining is a hydrochloric acid solution that typically contains 1.2x10^-3 M. What is the pH of the acid in the stomach?

A. 1.50
B. 2.92
C. 3.50
D. 6.19

Answer 57

B. 2.92

Question 58

When ammonium chloride undergoes ionization, the resulting solution will have a pH _____.

A. <7
B. 7
C. >7
D. 14

Answer 58

A. <7

Question 59

Which of these conjugate acid-base pairs must be used to prepare a buffer with pH near 7.15?

A. formic acid and sodium formate (pKa 3.74)
B. succinic acid and sodium succinate (pKa 5.64)
C. glycylglycine and sodium glycylglycate (pKa 8.35)
D. sodium dihydrogen phosphate and sodium hydrogen phosphate (pKa₂ 7.20)

Answer 59

D. sodium dihydrogen phosphate and sodium hydrogen phosphate (pKa₂ 7.20)

Question 60

What are the products for the reaction between HNO3 and NH4OH?

A. HNO2 + H20
B. NH2OH + H2O
C. NH4NO3 + H2O
D. No reaction will occur

Answer 60

C. NH4NO3 + H2O

Question 61

Which of the following statements best describes a primary method?
I. Set of instructions about how to carry out a method issued by a national standards body.
II. It has the highest metrological qualities.
III. Method that employs the use of materials such as certified reference materials.
IV. Titration of hydrochloric acid with anhydrous sodium carbonate to determine the concentration of the acid is an example of this method.

A. I only
B. II only
C. II and IV
D. I and IV

Answer 61

C. II and IV

Question 62

It is the fraction of the named material present in the stated chemical form.

A. Potency
B. Purity
C. Stability
D. Activity

Answer 62

B. Purity

Question 63

If you reported that a sample with 9 mg/L of a substance has only 5 mg/L and the acceptable limit according to standard is 7 mg/L, this is ____.

A. false positive
B. false negative
C. accurate
D. precise

Answer 63

B. false negative

Question 64

It is a performance parameter that could be used to analyze a blank sample matrix.

A. Bias estimate
B. Selectivity
C. Limit of quantification
D. Limit of detection

Answer 64

D. Limit of detection

Question 65

Which of the following factors affects the choice of analytical methods?

A. The type of analysis required
B. The accuracy required
C. Possible interferences from components of the material other than those of interest.
D. All of the above

Answer 65

D. All of the above

Question 66

Which chemical grade is commonly used for low-grade applications such as cleaning and qualitative testing?

A. USP Grade
B. NF Grade
C. Technical Grade
D. Laboratory Grade

Answer 66

C. Technical Grade

Question 67

Consider the analysis of the determination of sugar concentration in powdered juice dissolved in water. Which of the following is the matrix?

A. Sugar
B. Powdered juice
C. Water
D. B and C

Answer 67

D. B and C

Question 68

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) TRUE about instrumental background signal?
I. Even when no sample is being analyzed, the instrument will generate a background signal.
Il. LOD for an instrument improves if the S/N can be increased.
III. LOD for an instrument is not affected by S/N.

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, Il, and III

Answer 68

B. I and II

Question 69

The portion of the calibration curve which includes the range of concentrations of analyte that can be determined with demonstrated precision, accuracy, and response function.

A. Limit of Detection
B. Limit of Quantitation
C. Working range
D. Linear dynamic range

Answer 69

C. Working range

Question 70

The property of an analytical method to determine simultaneously several components independently from each other.

A. Selectivity
B. Specificity
C. Sensitivity
D. Ruggedness

Answer 70

A. Selectivity

Question 71

It is a part of quality systems that is officially defined by the ISO as the assembly of all planned and systematic actions to provide adequate confidence that a product, proves or service will satisfy the given quality requirements.

A. Quality Management
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Manual

Answer 71

B. Quality Assurance

Question 72

This quality system standard is a general requirement for the competence of testing and calibration laboratories.

A. GLP
B. GMP
C. ISO 9001
D. ISO/IEC 17025

Answer 72

D. ISO/IEC 17025

Question 73

If you are going to mass produce vitamin C, which standard should you subscribe in?

A. GMP
B. HACCP
C. ISO 9001
D. All of these

Answer 73

D. All of these

Question 74

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) TRUE about Quality Assurance?
I. Quality Assurance is a set of activities for ensuring quality in the process by which products are developed.
II. Quality Assurance is a corrective tool and product oriented.

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. None of these

Answer 74

A. I only

Question 75

A drug sample contains 10.0 ug/L of its active ingredient. A 5.0 ug/L of spike was added to a replicate portion of the drug. The spike sample gave a concentration of 14.6 μg/L. What is the %recovery of the spike?

A. 34
B. 96
C. 37
D. 92

Answer 75

D. 92

Question 76

Which of the following observation(s) will require a process to stop immediately?
I. Results lie outside action limits
II. Three consecutive measurements on one side of the central limit
III. Seven consecutive measurements create an increasing trend
IV. A measurement is within warning limits

A. I only
B. I and III
C. I, II, and IV
D. I, II, and IV

Answer 76

B. I and III

Question 77

When a deviation from critical limits happens, what should be done?

A. Documentation of corrective actions
B. Stop the process and inform the supervisor
C. Reassess the standards being implemented
D. All of these

Answer 77

D. All of these

Question 78

A type of blank that is commonly used with techniques such as spectrophotometry to zero the instrument before measuring test samples and other blanks.

A. Reagent blank
B. Method blank
C. Trip blank
D. Field blank

Answer 78

A. Reagent blank

Question 79

Which of the following are characteristics of a QC sample?

A. Similar in composition to the types of samples normally examined
B. Must be stable
C. Must be available in large quantities
D. All of these

Answer 79

D. All of these

Question 80

A reactive part of the quality management system that is concerned on the quality of the product, especially those materials that are soon to be released to the customer.

A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
C. Quality Audit
D Quality Evaluation

Answer 80

B. Quality Control

Question 81

When exposure to hazards cannot be engineered completely out of normal operations and admin controls are deemed ineffective, this supplementary method of control can be used.

A. Elimination
B. Substitution
C. Administrative control
D. Use of PPE

Answer 81

D. Use of PPE

Question 82

The area around surrounding a safety shower/eyewash _____.

A. can be used to store boxes if they can be removed quickly
B. must remain clear of all items at all items
C. is typically marked with yellow and black floor tape as a reminder to keep it clear
D. Both B and C

Answer 82

D. Both B and C

Question 83

Laboratory chemical hoods are best placed in a location that is _____.

A. near the aisle for ease of access.
B. near the windows and doors
C. away from air diffuser
D. None of these

Answer 83

C. away from air diffuser

Question 84

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) GOOD practices when using lab chemical hood?
I. Place chemical sources and apparatus at least 6 cm behind the face.
Il. Scrubbers must be installed especially when the lab is dealing with highly toxic vapors.
III. Avoid opening and closing the sash rapidly.
IV. Store odoriferous materials inside the chemical hood to prevent personnel from inhaling the toxic vapors.

A. I, and II
B. I, II, and III
C. II, III, and IV
D. I and III

Answer 84

D. I and III

Question 85

The white section of the NFPA diagram corresponds to the special hazard of the material. Which of the following is NOT considered as “special hazard”?

A. acid
B. corrosive
C. explosive
D. radioactive

Answer 85

C. explosive

Question 86

Concentrated hydrochloric acid is a highly corrosive material. It is expected that its container contains the following GHS label(s).

I. flame over circle pictogram
II. Exclamation Point pictogram
III. pictogram of a container dripping liquid onto a piece of metal and another container dripping liquid onto a hand\
IV. pictogram of a human skull with two crossed bones behind it

A. I
B. II
C. II, III
D. III, IV

Answer 86

C. II, III

Question 87

Which of the following is NOT a GHS pictogram?

A. Exploding bomb
B. Gas tank
C. Skull and crossbones
D. Health hazard

Answer 87

B. Gas tank

Question 88

The following information can be found in a safety data sheet EXCEPT _______.

A. Manufacturer name
B. Manufacturer contact details
C. Require PPEs
D. None of the choices

Answer 88

D. None of the choices

Question 89

The SDS of certain chemical contains the given pictogram. Determine the corresponding hazards related to the material.

Health — Fire — Reactivity — Specific Hazard
A. Normal material - Above 200°F - Violent chemical change - Alkaline
B. Slightly hazardous - Below 100°F - Unstable if heated - Oxidizer
C. Slightly hazardous - Below 73°F - Violent chemical change - Reacts violently with water
D. Hazardous - Below 100°F - Unstable if heated - Reacts violently with water

Answer 89

C. Slightly hazardous - Below 73°F - Violent chemical change - Reacts violently with water

Question 90

How long should you rinse the affected area in an eyewash during accidental chemical splashes on the eyes?

A. 5 mins
B. 10 mins
C. 15 mins
D. 30 seconds

Answer 90

C. 15 mins

Question 91

Common hazards posed by different chemicals in the laboratories can be found at _____.

A. CHP
B. SDS
C. GHS labels
D. All of these

Answer 91

D. All of these

Question 92

At this concentration, the mixture of flammable liquids is considered too “lean” to burn.

A. at lower explosion limit
B. below lower explosion limit
C. above upper explosion limit
D. between upper and lower explosion limit

Answer 92

B. below lower explosion limit

Question 93

According to the Department of Trade and Industry-Bureau of Philippine Standards (DTI-BPS), what color designations correspond to a foam type fire extinguisher?

A. red body, white band
B. red body, black band
C. red body, blue band
D. light green body, white band

Answer 93

C. red body, blue band

Question 94

The fire extinguisher mentioned above is most appropriately used for which type of fire?

A. Fires involving ordinary combustible materials
B. surface fire
C. electrical fire
D. Both A and B

Answer 94

D. Both A and B

Question 95

This general type of reaction results in sudden rapid rise in temperature upon heating of the material that usually becomes violent.

A. vigorous reaction
B. combustion reaction
C. runaway reaction
D. reaction under pressure

Answer 95

C. runaway reaction

Question 96

Which of the following functional groups pose explosion hazards?
I. Azide
Il. Peroxide
III. Thiol
IV. Hydrocarbons

A. I and II
B. Il and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, and III

Answer 96

A. I and II

Question 97

During a mercury spillage in the laboratory, what is the most appropriate action to do?

A. Wipe mercury spill with dry cloth.
B. Clean spill with an aspirator bulb.
C. Smother the spill with powdered graphite.
D. Use calcinated absorbent product such as Oil-Dri or Zorball.

Answer 97

B. Clean spill with an aspirator bulb.

Question 98

What are the components of the fire triangle?

A. oxygen, heat, material
B. oxygen, fuel, heat
C. air, fuel, spark
D. air, fuel, fire

Answer 98

B. oxygen, fuel, heat

Question 99

What hazards are represented by the given Globally Harmonized System (GHS) pictogram?
(picture: flame over circle)

A. Flammable and self-reactive substances
B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides s
C. Carcinogens
D. Explosives

Answer 99

B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides s

Question 100

These materials ignite due to the rapid oxidation by oxygen or moisture in the air.

A. Water reactive substances
B. Pyrophoric substances
C. Explosives
D. Flammables

Answer 100

B. Pyrophoric substances

Question 101

The following are gases under pressure EXCEPT _____.

A. Aerosols
B. Liquefied gases
C. Compressed gases
D. All are gases under pressure

Answer 101

A. Aerosols

Question 102

It refers to the production of reversible damage to the skin occurring after exposure to a substance or mixture.

A. Skin allergy
B. Skin corrosion
C. Skin irritation
D. Skin necrosis

Answer 102

C. Skin irritation

Question 103

These are solid particles of a substance or mixture suspended in a gas (usually air).

A. Fog
B. Dusts
C. Mists
D. Vapor

Answer 103

B. Dusts

Question 104

Which of the following can be best used to handle liquid acid spills?

A. Soda ash
B. Aspirator bulb
C. Activated charcoal
D. Acetic acid

Answer 104

A. Soda ash

Question 105

This type of toxins in the chemical laboratory may potentially cause allergies or allergic-like reactions.

A. Allergen
B. Corrosive substance
C. Sensitizer
D. Asphyxiants

Answer 105

C. Sensitizer

Question 106

In the acquisition of chemicals for the laboratory, the following are important considerations EXCEPT ______.

A. Cost: chemical purchases must be determined by the cheaper unit price basis of large quantities. Buying bulk quantities will save significant amount of acquisition cost.
B. Availability: check first if the material is available from another laboratory in the institution.
C. Facilities: the incoming chemicals must be managed safely when it arrive
D. Security: the institution must have adequate security measures and Crequired documentations if purchasing a controlled substance

Answer 106

A. Cost: chemical purchases must be determined by the cheaper unit price basis of large quantities. Buying bulk quantities will save significant amount of acquisition cost.

Question 107

It is a record (usually a database), which in some cases is a required document for
compliance, that lists the chemicals in the laboratory, along with information essential for their proper management.

A. Safety datasheet
B. Material safety datasheet
C. Chemical inventory
D. Chemical list

Answer 107

C. Chemical inventory

Question 108

Which of the following acids are stored properly?

A. Hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, phosphoric acid, sulfuric acid
B. Hydrochloric acid, acetic acid, sulfuric acid, lactic acid
C. Lactic acid, acetic acid, trichloroacetic acid
D. Lactic acid, acetic acid, perchloric acid

Answer 108

C. Lactic acid, acetic acid, trichloroacetic acid

Question 109

Sodium metal should be best stored in

A. dry, ventilated cabinet
B. closed container under kerosene, or mineral oil
C. tightly screw-cap glass bottle
D. closed metal container

Answer 109

B. closed container under kerosene, or mineral oil

Question 110

This refers to the net result of uptake, transformation and elimination of a substance in an organism due to all routes of exposure.

A. Bioaccumulation
B. Bioavailability
C. Availability
D. Bioconcentration

Answer 110

A. Bioaccumulation

Question 111

A hazardous waste characteristic that refers to substances that are unstable under normal conditions and readily undergo violent reaction without detonation.

A. Ignitability
B. Corrosivity
C. Reactivity
D. Toxicity

Answer 111

C. Reactivity

Question 112

This refers to a type of waste in which when placed in a landfill is reasonably expected NOT to undergo any physical, chemical, and biological changes to such an extent as to cause health or safety hazards

A. Stable wastes
B. Infectious wastes
C. Special wastes
D. Inert wastes

Answer 112

D. Inert wastes

Question 113

What type of container must be used to store waste such as paints and solvents?

A. Polyethylene drum
B. Metal drum
C. Fiber drum
D. Glass drum

Answer 113

B. Metal drum

Question 114

It is an act regulating and modernizing the practice of chemistry in the Philippines, otherwise known as the Chemistry Law of the Philippines,

A. RA 6969
B. RA9514
C. RA 10657
D. RA 3720

Answer 114

C. RA 10657

Question 115

A sample of water was collected from immediately downstream of an industrial outfall to assess the worst possible situation with regard to potential pollution. What type of sample is used in the situation?

A. Selective sample
B. Random sample
C. Representative sample
D. Composite sample

Answer 115

A. Selective sample

Question 116

Which of the following laboratory activities practices green chemistry?

I. Waste prevention
Il. Microscale work
III. Use of digital thermometers
IV. Catalysis

A. I and II
B. I, II, and III
C. I and II
D. I, II, III, and IV

Answer 116

D. I, II, III, and IV

Question 117

When collecting waste in the laboratory a good way to reduce the expense of waste management is to _____.

A. Put non-halogenated and halogenated solvents in separate primary containers
B. Plan to recycle solvents
C. Put acids and mixtures of acids and metals in separate primary containers
D. All of the above

Answer 117

D. All of the above

Question 118

An “alkali waste” has a pH of

A. 7
B. ≥2
C. 10
D. ≥12.5

Answer 118

D. ≥12.5

Question 119

A sample that is taken at a specific time to check for the quality of the materials in-process for necessary adjustments.

A. Grab sample
B. Catch sample
C. Composite sample
D. Both A and B

Answer 119

D. Both A and B

Question 120

What type of sampling is employed when the goal is to obtain a representative of the entire population and free of bias?

A. Probability sampling
B. Non-probability sampling
C. Acceptance sampling
D. Constant percentage sampling

Answer 120

A. Probability sampling

Question 121

Express the number 0.051065 to four significant figures.

A. 0.051
B. 0.051
C. 0.05106
D. 0.0511

Answer 121

C. 0.05106

Question 122

The number 2.34x10^7 is the scientific notation for

A. 234000
B. 23400
C. 23400000
D. 2340000

Answer 122

C. 23400000

Question 123

The volume of a liquid is 20.5 mL. Which of the following sets of measurement represents the value with good accuracy?

A. 19.2 mL, 19.3 mL, 18.8 mL, 18.6 mL
B. 18.9 mL, 19.0 mL, 19.2 mL, 18.8 mL
C. 18.6 mL, 17.8 mL, 19.6 mL, 17.2 mL
D. 20.2 mL20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 mL

Answer 123

D. 20.2 mL20.5 mL, 20.3 mL, 20.1 mL

Question 124

A prediction or a possible explanation to the question or problem which can be tested in an experiment is called

A. hypothesis
B. procedure
C. graph
D. data

Answer 124

A. hypothesis

Question 125

A colorless liquid and a yellowish liquid were mixed in a test tube. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. There will be no reaction if the test tube will get hot.
B. There will be a reaction if a precipitate will be formed.
C. There will be no reaction if the liquids will be on top of each other.
D. There will be a reaction if the yellow color will drastically disappear.

Answer 125

A. There will be no reaction if the test tube will get hot.

Question 126

Which of the following is the closest to being an ideal gas?

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Helium
D. Hydrogen

Answer 126

C. Helium

Question 127

What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day?

A. its volume decreases
B. its volume increases
C. it remains the same
D. its volume becomes equal to zero

Answer 127

A. its volume decreases

Question 128

Whose atomic model illustrates that negative charges are scattered around an atom?

A. Dalton
B. Thomson
C. Rutherford
D. Bohr

Answer 128

B. Thomson

Question 129

An element has a notation ⁴⁰₁₈Ar. How many neutrons does this element have?

A. 18
B. 22
C. 40
D. 58

Answer 129

B. 22

Question 130

What is the name of Cu2O?

A. Dicopper monoxide
B. Cupric oxide
C. Copper (I) Oxide
D. Copper (II) Oxide

Answer 130

C. Copper (I) Oxide

Question 131

Which of the following is arranged in increasing atomic size?

A. Cs < Ca < O < Ne
B. Cs < O < Ca < Ne
C. Ne < Ca < O < Cs
D. Ne < O < Ca < Cs

Answer 131

D. Ne < O < Ca < Cs

Question 132

Which of the following does NOT follow octet rule?

A. CH4
B. CCl4
C. HCI
D. NO2

Answer 132

D. NO2

Question 133

What is the shape of the molecule NH3?

A. Square pyramidal
B. V-shape
C. Triagonal pyramidal
D. Tetrahedral

Answer 133

C. Triagonal pyramidal

Question 134

Which of the following molecules geometry is TRUE?

A. BrFs: Triagonal pyramidal
B. CIF3: T-shaped
C. PCIs: See-saw
D. SF4: Trigonal bipyramidal

Answer 134

B. CIF3: T-shaped

Question 135

Which of the following molecules has a net dipole movement?

A. N2
B. CH4
C. BeF2
D. H2O

Answer 135

D. H2O

Question 136

HCI possess(es) which of the following intermolecular interactions?

A. Hydrogen bonds
B. London dispersion forces only
C. Dipole-dipole forces only
D. London dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces

Answer 136

D. London dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces

Question 137

Metals and solutions of electrolytes are

A. insulators
B. polar
C. negative
D. conductors

Answer 137

D. conductors

Question 138

Balance the following equation: Ag + O2 → Ag2O

A. Put 2 for Ag
B. Put 4 for Ag and 2 for Ag2O
C. Put subscript 2 after Ag2O
D. Put 2 for Ag and 1 for Ag2O

Answer 138

B. Put 4 for Ag and 2 for Ag2O

Question 138

Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following data. Mass of water 50.1227 g, Density of water at 25C is 0.99707 g/mL.

A. 50.27 mL
B. 50.37 mL
C. 50.17 mL
D. 50.45 ML

Answer 138

A. 50.27 mL

Question 139

The water content of an 875.4-mg sample of cheese was determined with a moisture analyzer. What is the amount of water in the cheese if the final mass was found to be 545.8 mg?

A. 35.23%
B. 30.69%
C. 31.45%
D. 37.65%

Answer 139

D. 37.65%

Question 140

What is the molarity of a solution containing 72.9 g HCI (36.46 g/mol) in enough water to make 500 mL of solution?

A. 2.0 mol/L
B. 4.05 g/L
C. 5.0 mol/L
D. 4.05 mol/L

Answer 140

D. 4.05 mol/L

Question 141

What volume of 0.25 M CH3COOH is needed to prepare a liter of a 0.005 M dilute solution?

A. 0.020 mL
B. 20 mL
C. 50 mL
D. 75 mL

Answer 141

B. 20 mL

Question 142

Under the Lewis definition of acid and bases, an acid is a(an)

A. electron pair donor
B. proton acceptor
C. proton donor
D. electron pair acceptor

Answer 142

D. electron pair acceptor

Question 143

Which of the following is NOT an acid?

A. milk of magnesia
B. apple juice
C. milk
D. gastric juice

Answer 143

A. milk of magnesia

Question 144

Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?

A. Acetic acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
D. Ammonium hydroxide

Answer 144

C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

Question 145

The dynamic range in analytical measurement refers to the range where

A. the detection limit lies
B. the instrument reading is constant
C. the sensitivity of the instrument is highest
D. instrument reading linear to the input value

Answer 145

A. the detection limit lies

Question 146

It is a non-negative parameter characterizing the dispersion of the quantity values being attributed to a measurand, based on the information used.

A. Measurement uncertainty
B. Accuracy
C. Error
D. Precision

Answer 146

A. Measurement uncertainty

Question 147

The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to determination of metals is

A. 48 hours
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 week

Answer 147

C. 6 months

Question 148

Glass container is NOT suitable for

A. oil and grease determination
B. microbiological analyses
C. all of the choices
D. inorganic trace analyses

Answer 148

D. inorganic trace analyses

Question 149

The main ISO Standard used by testing and calibration laboratories to gain accreditation and formal of their competence to carry out tests and/or calibrations, including sampling.

A. ISO/IEC 17025
B. EURACHEM
C. AOAC
D. ISO 9000:2000

Answer 149

A. ISO/IEC 17025

Question 150

According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall Include

A. Generator ID Number
B. Volume of Waste
C. Container Material
D. All of the above

Answer 150

D. All of the above

Question 151

Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?

A. wearing of masks and gloves
B. drying of glassware after washing
C. tying or braiding long hairs
D. adding water to strong acid

Answer 151

D. adding water to strong acid

Question 152

Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?

A. glass bottle
B. amber bottle
C. plastic bottle
D. none of these

Answer 152

B. amber bottle

Question 153

Minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with confidence at the analyte concentration is greater than zero refers to

A. Lower Warning Limit
B. Method Detection Limit
C. Control Limit
D. Limit of Quantitation

Answer 153

B. Method Detection Limit

Question 154

The fire triangle consists of which of the following?

A. oxygen, heat, material
B. air, heat, fire
C. air, fuel, spark
D. oxygen, heat, fuel

Answer 154

D. oxygen, heat, fuel

Question 155

Which is TRUE about laboratory hoods?

A. Provides further protection by diluting low of flammable gases below explosion limits.
B. It protects you from being exposed in chemical fume.
C. Must always be on
D. All of the above.

Answer 155

D. All of the above.

Question 156

Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems?

A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 17025
C. ISO 15189
D. GLP

Answer 156

A. ISO 9001

Question 157

There is a definite correlation between orderliness and level of safety in the laboratory. In addition, a disorderly laboratory can hinder or endanger emergency response personnel. Which of the following housekeeping rules should NOT be adhered to?

A. Never obstruct access to exits and emergency equipment.
B. Properly label and store all chemicals.
C. Store chemical containers on the floor.
D. Clean work areas, including floors, regularly.

Answer 157

C. Store chemical containers on the floor.

Question 158

Consider that you are working with vitamin C table production, to which standard’s should your quality management should subscribe?

A. GMP
B. HACCP
C. ISO 9001:2008
D. All of the above

Answer 158

D. All of the above

Question 159

Sampling type that eliminates questions of bias in selection.

A. Composite
B. Stratified
C. Systematic
D. Random

Answer 159

D. Random

Question 160

This system is used in the food industry to identify and control potential hazards (i.e. biological, chemical, and physical) that could compromise food safety.

A. GLP
B. GMP
C. HACCP
D. ISO 9001

Answer 160

C. HACCP

Question 161

First consideration for chemical storage shall be based on its

A. frequency of usage
B. compatibility with other chemicals
C. size of container
D. alphabetical order

Answer 161

B. compatibility with other chemicals

Question 162

In labeling commercially packaged chemicals, the following are correct EXCEPT

A. The label usually includes the name of the chemical and any necessary handling and hazard information.
B. The label includes the CAS registry number to avoid ambiguity about chemical names.
C. The label is supplemented by the date received.
D. Replace the existing labels on incoming containers of chemicals and other materials to avoid confusion.

Answer 162

D. Replace the existing labels on incoming containers of chemicals and other materials to

Question 163

Waste is

A. a material that has no intended use or reuse
B. a material that has a lapsed expiration date
C. any material that has been processed
D. a material that has no current use

Answer 163

A. a material that has no intended use or reuse

Question 164

The total error of an analytical result is the sum of

A. sampling
B. sample preparation
C. analytical errors
D. all of the above

Answer 164

D. all of the above

Question 165

Process by which a sample population is reduced in size to an amount of homogeneous material that can be conveniently handled in the lab in which the composition is representative of the population.

A. Selection
B. Monitoring
C. Sampling
D. Segregation

Answer 165

C. Sampling

Question 166

The method of standardization can be used if a _____ reacts quantitatively with the reagent needed in the standard solution.

A. primary standard
B. secondary standard
C. working standard
D. intermediate solution

Answer 166

A. primary standard

Question 167

During acid spills, which of the following can be applied to the spill before treating it with adsorbent material?

A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Water
C. Acetic acid
D. Sodium bisulfite

Answer 167

A. Sodium bicarbonate

Question 168

These are any waste materials that can be retrieved from the waste stream and free from contamination that can still be converted into suitable beneficial use.

A. Recyclable wastes
B. Residual wastes
C. Compostable wastes
D. Special wastes

Answer 168

A. Recyclable wastes

Question 169

Symbols indicated in waste labels that instantly identify the kind of hazard the chemical possesses.

A. Signal words
B. Pictograms
C. Precautionary statements
D. Hazard statements

Answer 169

B. Pictograms

Question 170

How many significant figures does the universal gas constant (R = 0.0821 L-atm/mol-K)?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. infinite

Answer 170

D. infinite

Question 171

Which of the following is a chemical change?

A. an air conditioner cooling the air
B. none of these choices
C. bleaching your clothes
D. melting of ice

Answer 171

C. bleaching your clothes

Question 172

A cylinder containing a gas is compressed to half its original volume. What will happen to its pressure at constant temperature?

A. doubled
B. halved
C. no effect
D. cannot be determined

Answer 172

A. doubled

Question 173

A 30-L gas initially has 110 kPa and 147C. Its volume became 40 L and the pressure increased to 120 kPa. What is the new temperature?

A. 65°C
B. 214°C
C. 338°C
D. 611°C

Answer 173

C. 338°C

Question 174

What is the pressure of hydrogen gas if 0.412 mol at 16C occupies a volume of 3.25 L?

A. 1 atm
B. 2 atm
C. 3 atm
D. 4 atm

Answer 174

C. 3 atm

Question 175

Which does NOT correspond to this electron configuration? 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶

A. K*
B. CI⁻
C. S²⁻
D. Kr

Answer 175

D. Kr

Question 176

Which of the following elements has greater electron affinity than Oxygen?

A. Sulfur
B. Carbon
C. Neon
D. Fluorine

Answer 176

D. Fluorine

Question 177

This atomic model depicts atoms as small, positively charged nuclei surrounded by electrons in circular orbits.

A. Bohr’s model
B. Dalton’s model
C. Thomson’s model
D. Rutherford’s model

Answer 177

A. Bohr’s model

Question 178

From top to bottom down the periodic table

A. atomic size trend can’t be predicted
B. electronegativity decreases
C. ionization energy increases
D. atomic radius decreases

Answer 178

B. electronegativity decreases

Question 179

From left to right across the periodic table

A. atomic radius increases
B. atomic radius decreases
C. ionization energy decreases
D. electronegativity decreases

Answer 179

B. atomic radius decreases

Question 180

What is the name of this compound? Pb(CIO4)2

A. Lead (II) perchlorate
B. Lead (IV) perchlorate
C. Plumbic perchlorate
D. Plumbous chlorate

Answer 180

A. Lead (II) perchlorate

Question 181

What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid?

A. HN3
B. HNO2
C. HNO3
D. H2NO3

Answer 181

B. HNO2

Question 182

What is the other name for oil of vitriol?

A. paraffin
B. olefin
C. sulfuric acid
D. wax

Answer 182

C. sulfuric acid

Question 183

Which molecular geometry has the largest bond angle?

A. linear
B. tetrahedral
C. octahedral
D. trigonal bipyramidal

Answer 183

A. linear

Question 184

Alcohols and carboxylic acids have -OH groups. What type of chemical bond occurs between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms?

A. ionic
B. polar covalent
C. hydrogen
D. non-polar covalent

Answer 184

B. polar covalent

Question 185

It is a result of instantaneous dipole in a nonpolar molecule?

A. Van der Waals forces
B. Dipole-dipole interaction
C. lon-dipole interaction
D. Hydrogen bonding

Answer 185

A. Van der Waals forces

Question 186

Which among the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?

A. decanol
B. lauric acid
C. phenol
D. benzene

Answer 186

D. benzene

Question 187

What IMFA is(are) present in this compound? CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO

A. Van der Waals forces only
B. Dipole-dipole interactions only
C. Van der Waals and dipole-dipole interactions
D. Van der Waals, dipole-dipole interactions, and hydrogen bonding

Answer 187

C. Van der Waals and dipole-dipole interactions

Question 188

Nitrogen gas can be prepared by passing gaseous ammonia (17.04 g/mol) over solid Copper(II) oxide (79.55 g/mol) at high temperatures. The other products of the reaction are solid copper and water vapor as shown in the reaction below:
NH3 (g) + CuO(s) → N2(g) + Cu(s) + H2O(g)

If 30.5 g of NH3 is reacted with 99.7 g of CuO, which is the limiting reactant?

A. NH3
B. CuO
C. N2
D. H2O

Answer 188

B. CuO

Question 189

Nitrogen gas can be prepared by passing gaseous ammonia (17.04 g/mol) over solid Copper(II) oxide (79.55 g/mol) at high temperatures. The other products of the reaction are solid copper and water vapor as shown in the reaction below:
NH3 (g) + CuO(s) → N2(g) + Cu(s) + H2O(g)

How much nitrogen gas (28.02 g/mol) will be produced?

A. 11.7 g
B. 14.2 g
C. 7.9 g
D. 9.1 g

Answer 189

A. 11.7 g

Question 190

Nitrogen gas can be prepared by passing gaseous ammonia (17.04 g/mol) over solid Copper(II) oxide (79.55 g/mol) at high temperatures. The other products of the reaction are solid copper and water vapor as shown in the reaction below:
NH3 (g) + CuO(s) → N2(g) + Cu(s) + H2O(g)

How much water vapor (18.02 g/mol) will be formed?

A. 48.4 g
B. 23.4 g
C. 32.3 g
D. 22.5 g

Answer 190

D. 22.5 g

Question 191

An unknown white powder is analyzed and found to contain 43.64% Phosphorus (31 g/mol) and 56.36% Oxygen (16 g/mol).

What is the empirical formula of the compound?

A. P2O5
B. P4O10
C. P1O1.3
D. P1.4O3.5

Answer 191

A. P2O5

Question 192

An unknown white powder is analyzed and found to contain 43.64% Phosphorus (31 g/mol) and 56.36% Oxygen (16 g/mol).

The compound has a molecular weight of 283.88 g/mol. What is the molecular formula of the compound?

A. P2O5
B. P4O10
C. P2O2.6
D. P2.8O7

Answer 192

B. P4O10

Question 193

How many grams of K2Cr2O7 (294.2 g/mol) is required to prepare 250 mL of 0.10 M solution K of K2Cr2O7? This is solution is an oxidizing agent used in organic chemistry.

A. 1.18 g
B. 7.36 g
C. 6.38 g
D. 2.94 g

Answer 193

B. 7.36 g

Question 194

How much of a 2.0 M stock solution do you need to prepare 50 mL of a 1.0 M solution?

A. 75 mL
B. 30 mL
C. 25 mL
D. 50 mL

Answer 194

C. 25 mL

Question 195

CaCO3 (s) + heat → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
The thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate is an endothermic reaction. Which of the following will favor the formation of carbon dioxide?

A. decrease in temperature
B. increase in temperature
C. removal of nitrogen
D. addition of ammonia

Answer 195

B. increase in temperature

Question 196

Under the Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases, a base is a/an

A. proton donor
B. proton acceptor
C. electron pair donor
D. electron pair acceptor

Answer 196

B. proton acceptor

Question 197

Determine the concentration of H* ions in apple cider vinegar if the pH was measured to 3.57.

A. 2.7x10^-4 M
B. 3.7x10^-3 M
C. 5.5x10^-1 M
D. 1.3x10^-1 M`

Answer 197

A. 2.7x10^-4 M

Question 198

The following statements are TRUE about pH EXCEPT

A. it is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution
B. a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution
C. a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution
D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

Answer 198

D. does not change when there are changes in temperature

Question 199

In which of the following titrations does pH = 7.0 occur at the equivalence point?
I. Strong acid and strong base
II . Weak acid and strong base
III. Strong acid and weak base

A. II and III only
B. III only
C. I only
D. II only

Answer 199

C. I only

Question 200

A type of analysis in terms of sample size that can resolve fine-scale variations in chemical elements, as well as determine the presence and distribution of different phases in materials.

A. Macro
B. Semi-macro
C. Micro
D. Ultra-micro

Answer 200

C. Micro

Question 201

An analyst determines that the analytical balance he used in a given analytical test is wrongly calibrated. Determine what type of error is represented.

A. Systematic error
B. Random error
C Gross error
D. Cannot be determined

Answer 201

A. Systematic error

Question 202

It is a plot of an instrument’s readout vs. concentration, the data for which are the results of measuring a series of standard solutions prepared for the experiment.

A. Linear range
B. Calibration curve
C. Dynamic range
D. Linear dynamic range

Answer 202

B. Calibration curve

Question 203

It describes the policies and procedures the laboratory has to manage in relation to quality, or K references where those procedures can be found. An essential requirement of ISO 9000 series of standards and ISO 17025.

A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality Control
C. Quality Manual
D. Documentation

Answer 203

C. Quality Manual

Question 204

It is a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices that are capable of protecting employees from the health hazard presented by hazardous chemicals used in the workplace.

A. Safety Manual
B. Chemical Hygiene Plan
C. Safety Rules and Policies
D. Safety Plan

Answer 204

B. Chemical Hygiene Plan

Question 205

This type of method consists of a set of instructions about how to carry out a method issued by a national standards body and legislated by the national government to become mandatory.

A. Standard method
B. Regulatory method
C. Reference method
D. Validated method

Answer 205

B. Regulatory method

Question 206

In starting-up laboratory operations, the following should be observed EXCEPT

A. Turning on the hoods, vents, exhaust fans.
B. Turning the equipment and instruments on.
C. Performing analysis immediately.
D. Monitoring operating parameters.

Answer 206

C. Performing analysis immediately.

Question 207

The following groups are known to be peroxide-forming compounds EXCEPT

A. Ethers with primary and/or secondary alkyl groups.
B. Hydrocarbons with allylic, benzylic, or propargylic hydrogens.
C. Conjugated dienes, eneynes, and diynes.
D. All are peroxide-formers.

Answer 207

D. All are peroxide-formers.

Question 208

Which of the following is/are TRUE about the laboratory chemical hood?

I. All work should be carried out at least 15 cm (6 inches) from the front edge of the hood.
Il. Before each work, be sure that the hood exhaust system is functioning properly.
IIl. Store hazardous chemicals in the hood to protect personnel from toxic fumes exposure.
IV. The performance of laboratory chemical hood is highly dependent on its location.

A. I and II
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, and IV

Answer 208

D. I, II, and IV

Question 209

What hazards are represented by a GHS pictogram with a flame over circle symbol?

A. Flammable and self-reactives
B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides
C. Carcinogens
D. Explosives

Answer 209

B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides

Question 210

It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to waste liquids with a flash point less than 140C or solids capable of spontaneous combustion under normal temp and pressure.

A. Ignitability
B. Reactivity
C. Corrosivity
D. Toxicity

Answer 210

A. Ignitability

Question 211

What is the pH of an acidic waste?

A. pH ≤ 2
B. pH ≤ 3
C. pH ≥ 12.5
D. pH = 7

Answer 211

A. pH ≤ 2

Question 212

Person who produces hazardous wastes, through any institutional, commercial, industrial, or trade activities.

A. Waste generator
B. Waste treater
C. Waste transporter
D. Pollution Control Officer

Answer 212

A. Waste generator

Question 213

The correct hierarchy of control principle (decreasing priority) from a chemical exposure perspective is
I. PPE
Il. Engineering controls
III. Administrative controls
IV. Elimination
V. Substitution

A. I > II > III > IV > V
B. I > III > II > IV > V
C. V > IV > II > III > I
D. IV > V > II > III > I

Answer 213

D. IV > V > II > III > I

Question 214

An exposure limit that indicates the maximum average concentration to which workers can safely be exposed for a normal 8-hour workday or 48-hour workweek.

A. Time weighted average (TWA)
B. Short-term exposure limit (STEL)
C. Ceiling (C)
D. Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH)

Answer 214

A. Time weighted average (TWA)

Question 215

This refers to a single sample or measurement taken at specific time or over a short period as feasible.

A. Grab sample
B. Composite sample
C. Laboratory sample
D. None of the above

Answer 215

A. Grab sample

Question 216

The following are good sampling practices EXCEPT

A. Take several increments and composite them to form the sample.
B. If possible, mix the material before getting the sample.
C. Collect sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.
D. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification of process cycles.

Answer 216

C. Collect sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

Question 217

Which of the following are TRUE about uncertainty?
I. It is a difference between a single measurement or result and its true value.
II. The range of possible values for a measurement.
III. A measure of bias in a result or measurement.
IV. It accounts for all errors (both determinate and indeterminate).

A. I and II
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV

Answer 217

D. II and IV

Question 218

It is a graph showing the time-dependent change in the results of an analysis that is used to monitor whether an analysis is in a state of statistical control.

A. Calibration curve
B. Standard Curve
C. QC chart
D. Monitoring chart

Answer 218

C. QC chart

Question 219

A clean sample (e.g. distilled water) processed through the instrumental steps or the measurement process to determine instrument contamination.

A. Method blank
B. Instrument blank
C. Surrogate
D. Reagent blank

Answer 219

B. Instrument blank

Question 220

The following will cause drift errors in an analytical balance EXCEPT

A. Balance door is open.
B. Balance is not levelled.
C. Air currents are present in the laboratory.
D. Temperature of the balance and the sample to be weighed is the same.

Answer 220

D. Temperature of the balance and the sample to be weighed is the same.

Question 221

Objects cannot be weighed when hot or warm. But if you were to take a sample out and wait for it to cool it would pick up moisture so it should be placed in a/an/at

A. oven
B. desiccator
C. room temperature
D. fume hood

Answer 221

B. desiccator

Question 222

It is the nominal volume of water (or mercury) contained, or delivered by an article of volumetric glassware, at its reference temperature.

A. accuracy
B. calibration
C. capacity
D. measurand

Answer 222

C. capacity

Question 223

A student is tasked to measure 12 mL of a liquid as precisely as possible. Which measuring device should be selected for this task?

A. 25 mL beaker
B. 25 mL graduated cylinder
C. 25 mL conical flask
D. 25 mL volumetric flask

Answer 223

B. 25 mL graduated cylinder

Question 224

Determine the volumes of the liquids in these graduated cylinders.

A. 6.60 mL and 2.00 mL
B. 6.60 mL and 2.30 mL
C. 6.70 mL and 2.00 mL
D. 6.70 mL and 2.30 mL

Answer 224

B. 6.60 mL and 2.30 mL

Question 225

Which of the following is TRUE about TC pipets?

A. TC means “to carry”
B. It commonly does not have a colored band.
C. It is used if the liquid left in the pipet is already accounted.
D. None of the above.

Answer 225

D. None of the above.

Question 226

A student needs to transfer his precipitant from the beaker to the filter paper. Which of the following would be the best procedure in order to ensure a quantitative transfer of the precipitate?

A. Most of the supernatant liquid is decanted then bulk of precipitate is transferred to filter paper through a stirring rod, then the beaker is washed with large volumes of wash solution.
B. Most of the supernatant liquid decanted first, then bulk of the precipitate is transferred through a stirring rod. The beaker is washed several times with small volumes of wash solution.
C. Solution is shaken, then immediately filtered; beaker is washed with big volumes of wash solution.
D. None of the above.

Answer 226

B. Most of the supernatant liquid decanted first, then bulk of the precipitate is transferred through a stirring rod. The beaker is washed several times with small volumes of wash solution.

Question 227

To determine the density of a liquid, which of the following should be used?

A. graduated cylinder
B. volumetric flask
C. pycnometer
D. pipette

Answer 227

C. pycnometer

Question 228

Which is TRUE for a 19/22 stopper?

A. radius =19 mm, height = 22 mm
B. radius = 22 mm, height = 19 mm
C. diameter = 19 mm, height = 22 mm
D. diameter = 22 mm, height = 19 mm

Answer 228

C. diameter = 19 mm, height = 22 mm

Question 229

Which technique is recommended for determining the odor of an unknown liquid in the laboratory?

A. Hold a test tube of the liquid under the nose and inhale the vapor.
B. Transfer a few drops of the liquid to the bench top and inhale the vapor from there.
C. Use a dropper to collect a small quantity of the vapor and squirt this under the nose while inhaling.
D. Use a hand to fan some of the vapor from the test tube to the nose and inhale.

Answer 229

D. Use a hand to fan some of the vapor from the test tube to the nose and inhale.

Question 230

The size of the sample taken for analysis depends on the

A. concentration of analyte
B. equipment to be used
C. specific chemical tests
D. all of the above

Answer 230

D. all of the above

Question 231

Possible sources of contamination during sample preparation include

A. reagents
B. glassware from previous experiment
C. equipment from previous experiment
D. all of the above

Answer 231

D. all of the above

Question 232

Which of the following can cause ERRORS during the sample preparation?
I. Loss of sample during weighing or dissolution.
Il. Contamination by impurities in reagents and in the environment.
IIl. Changes in mass due to varying humidity and temperature.
IV. Obtaining nonhomogeneous sample from the bulk.

A. I and II only
B. I, III, and IV
C. I, Il, and III
D. I, II, III, and IV

Answer 232

D. I, II, III, and IV

Question 233

Method of passing the sample through a metal or plastic mesh of a uniform cross-sectional area to separate particles into uniform sizes.

A. sieving
B. milling
C. pulverizing
D. macerating

Answer 233

A. sieving

Question 234

Which of the following can remove a fairly large amount of water from a sample that contains thermally labile material?

A. hotplate
B. freeze dryer
C. convection oven
D. microwave equipment

Answer 234

B. freeze dryer

Question 235

In an experiment to determine the percentage of water in a solid hydrate by heating, what is the best indication that all the water has been removed?

A. The solid melts.
B. The solid changes color.
C. Water vapor no longer appears.
D. Successive weighings give the same mass.

Answer 235

D. Successive weighings give the same mass.

Question 236

Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals.

A. sieving
B. clean-up
C. acid digestion
D. liquid-liquid extraction

Answer 236

C. acid digestion

Question 237

Which of the following should NOT be used during dry ashing?

A. Zirconium
B. Platinum
C. Porcelain
D. Glass

Answer 237

D. Glass

Question 238

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
I. Dry ashing is primarily for proximate composition and for some types of specific mineral analyses.
Il. Wet ashing is done as a preparation for the analysis of certain minerals.
III. Microwave systems are now available for both dry and wet ashing to speed the processes.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III

Answer 238

D. I, II, and III

Question 239

In the decomposition and dissolution of solids during sample preparation, which of the following is expensive and often the last resort?

A. fusion technique
B. simple dissolution
C. acid treatment using oxidation
D. dissolution using ultrasound and solvent

Answer 239

A. fusion technique

Question 240

All of the following are properties of an organic solvent for extraction EXCEPT

A. dissolve the desired substance
B. react with the desired substance
C. not react or be miscible with water
D. have a low boiling point so it can be easily removed at a later purification step

Answer 240

B. react with the desired substance

Question 241

This is done during liquid-liquid extraction to release the pressure build-up inside the separatory funnel during shaking.

A. stirring
B. venting
C. drawing
D. salting out

Answer 241

B. venting

Question 242

Which of the following should NOT be done when an emulsion is formed during extraction?

A. stirring the emulsion gently using a stirring rod
B. adding salt crystals to the mixture and then stirring it gently
C. adding a salt solution to the mixture and then stirring it gently
D. shaking the separatory funnel containing the mixture very vigorously

Answer 242

D. shaking the separatory funnel containing the mixture very vigorously

Question 243

In liquid-liquid extraction, it is often necessary to determine the aqueous and organic layers. To test the layers, a drop of water can be added to the top layer. If the drop of water dissolves in the top layer, then the top layer is

A. organic
B. aqueous
C. denser
D. nonaqueous

Answer 243

B. aqueous

Question 244

This is used to remove trace amounts of water in organic solutions. This can be added to the pooled organic layers before removal of the organic solvent.

A. drying agent
B. boiling stone
C. seed crystal
D. none of the above

Answer 244

A. drying agent

Question 245

A 5-g organic solid is dissolved in 100 mL of distilled water. What is the best way to recover most of the organic solid?

A. Single extraction using 150 mL ether.
B. Single extraction using 150 mL acetic acid.
C. Multiple extraction using three 50-mL portions of ether.
D. Multiple extraction using three 50-mL portions of acetic acid.

Answer 245

C. Multiple extraction using three 50-mL portions of ether.

Question 246

Which of the following is/are considered in purification using crystallization?
I. Polarity
II. Solubility
III. Vapor pressure

A. I only
B. Il only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III

Answer 246

C. I and II only

Question 247

Which of the following funnels should be used to filter hot mother liquor during recrystallization?

A. Hirsch funnel
B. Büchner funnel
C. long stem funnel
D. short stem funnel

Answer 247

D. short stem funnel

Question 248

In crystallization, crystal phases can be interconverted by varying

A. temperature
B. pressure
C. viscosity
D. size

Answer 248

A. temperature

Question 249

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

A. Two different pure substances have similar melting points.
B. An impure sample of a substance has a wider melting point range.
C. Melting point serves as an index of purity of a solid crystalline substance.
D. Every pure solid crystalline substance has a characteristic and unique melting point.

Answer 249

A. Two different pure substances have similar melting points.

Question 250

Which of the following techniques can be used to heat a reaction to 200°C?

A. Use a Bunsen burner to heat the reaction vessel.
B. Use a heating mantle with stirring.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with stirring.
D. Place the reaction vessel in a water bath with stirring.

Answer 250

C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with stirring.

Question 251

Which of the following can promote even boiling?

A. stones
B. chips
C. stir bars
D. all of the above

Answer 251

D. all of the above

Question 252

Where should a thermometer be placed to determine the boiling point of the distillate?

A. inside the distilling flask and it should be just below the side arm of the flask
B. inside the distilling flask and it should be immersed in the mixture being distilled
C. inside the receiver
D. inside the adapter

Answer 252

A. inside the distilling flask and it should be just below the side arm of the flask

Question 253

An organic compound decomposes at its boiling point. What is the most appropriate method for the recovery of the solid organic compound?

A. steam distillation
B. vacuum distillation
C. fractional distillation
D. liquid-liquid extraction

Answer 253

A. steam distillation

Question 254

It allows for many successive distillations to take place at once. It contains indentations or a packing material with lots of surface area.

A. adapter
B. condenser
C. round bottom flask
D. fractionating column

Answer 254

D. fractionating column

Question 255

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure is

A. lesser than internal pressure
B. equal to internal pressure
C. equal to external pressure
D. greater than internal pressure

Answer 255

C. equal to external pressure

Question 256

When the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium, the temperature of the system

A. decreases gradually
B. none of the given answers
C. increases gradually
D. remains constant

Answer 256

D. remains constant

Question 257

A liquid mixture that has a constant boiling point and whose vapor has the same composition as the liquid.

A. azeotrope
B. ideal
C. non-ideal solution
D. eutectic mixture

Answer 257

A. azeotrope

Question 258

What is the main purpose of heating under reflux?

A. To provide a very high temperature so that slow reactions occur at faster rates.
B. To increase the rate of evaporation of the solvent to increase the product yield.
C. To heat the reaction mixture in a solvent at a constant temperature without the loss of any reagents.
D. None of the above.

Answer 258

C. To heat the reaction mixture in a solvent at a constant temperature without the loss of any reagents.

Question 259

A reaction mixture needs to be cooled to -77C after refluxing. What is the best method to be used?

A. Place the reaction vessel in an ice bath.
B. Place the reaction vessel in the freezer.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a salt and crushed ice mixture.
D. Place tie reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone mixture.

Answer 259

D. Place tie reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone mixture.

Question 260

The elution power of a mobile phase is determined by

A. its overall polarity
B. the polarity of the stationary phase
C. the nature of the sample components
D. all of the above

Answer 260

D. all of the above

Question 261

Which of the following statements about columns containing more theoretical plates is TRUE?

A. Columns containing more theoretical plates make separations impossible.
B. Columns containing more theoretical plates interact irreversibly with the analyte.
C. Columns containing more theoretical plates take a long time to perform separations.
D. Columns containing more theoretical plates are better suited to separate a complex mixture.

Answer 261

D. Columns containing more theoretical plates are better suited to separate a complex mixture.

Question 262

The height equivalent of a theoretical plate (HETP) has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

A. It is defined by the van Deemter equation.
B. Equilibrium is attained at each height equivalent.
C. The smaller the value is, the better the separation attainable.
D. This quantity times the column length is equal to the number of theoretical plates in the column.

Answer 262

D. This quantity times the column length is equal to the number of theoretical plates in the column.

Question 263

All of the following are common carrier gases from gas chromatography EXCEPT

A. Helium
B. Argon
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

Answer 263

C. Oxygen

Question 264

The following are properties of an open tubular or capillary column EXCEPT

A. Poor resolution can be obtained.
B. Only small samples can be applied.
C. It has a long column length with small inner diameter.
D. It contains an enormous number of plates that permit rapid separations of closely related species.

Answer 264

A Poor resolution can be obtained.

Question 265

An air sample is subjected to gas chromatography for the analysis of Freon-11 (CCI3F). The detector
that is most suitable for this analysis is

A. TCD
B. ECD
C. FID
D. TSD

Answer 265

B. ECD

Question 266

An advantage of HPLC over GC for the separation and measurement of high molecular weight
compounds is that

A. HPLC columns and detectors are simpler and less expensive.
B. The preparation of volatile derivatives is not necessary in HPLC.
C. HPLC systems are always operated under constant conditions of eluant temp and composition.
D. The sensitivity of HPLC detectors increases as the molecular weights pf the compounds increase.

Answer 266

B. The preparation of volatile derivatives is not necessary in HPLC.

Question 267

Reversed-phase chromatography refers to which of the following?

A. A nonpolar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase
B. A polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase
C. A stationary phase and mobile phase of similar polarities
D. A nonpolar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile phase

Answer 267

A. A nonpolar stationary phase and a polar mobile phase

Question 268

Which of the following has the correct order of elution (first to last) from an HPLC column containing a reversed-phase packing?

A. acetone, dichloroethane, acetamide
B. acetamide, acetone, dichloroethane
C. dichloroethane, acetone, acetamide
D. dichloroethane, acetamide, acetone

Answer 268

B. acetamide, acetone, dichloroethane

Question 269

In anion-exchange chromatography,

A. The column has (+) resin where (+) species bind.
B. The column has (+) resin where (-) species bind.
C. Column contains (+) and (-) beads where species bind depending on their net charge.
D. None of the above.

Answer 269

B. The column has (+) resin where (-) species bind.

Question 270

In this chromatographic method, the sample may be gas or liquid injected into a gaseous mobile phase.

A. gas chromatography
B. affinity chromatography
C. thin layer chromatography
D. high pressure liquid chromatography

Answer 270

A. gas chromatography

Question 271

Analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is done using

A. Thin layer chromatography
B. Gas chromatography
C. Partition chromatography
D. lon exchange chromatograph

Answer 271

B. Gas chromatography

Question 272

Which of the following is NOT an application of high performance liquid chromatography?

A. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
B. Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
C. Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
D. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

Answer 272

D. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

Question 273

It is the more common form of HPLC where the stationary phase is nonpolar and the mobile phase is polar.

A. affinity
B. exclusion
C. normal-phase
D. reversed-phase

Answer 273

D. reversed-phase

Question 274

lon exchange particles carry fixed positive or negative charges. A sulfonic acid type resin has SO3⁻ H⁺ groups were H⁺ can be exchanged for

A. cations
B. anions
C. small cations and large anions
D. small anions and large cations

Answer 274

A. cations

Question 275

Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through a UV-Vis spectrophotometer?

A. detector, sample, source, monochromator
B. source, monochromator, sample, detector
C. source, sample, monochromator, detector
D. monochromator, source, sample, detector

Answer 275

B. source, monochromator, sample, detector

Question 276

Which light source should be used in the wavelength range of 340 to 1000 nm?

A. Deuterium
B. Tungsten
C. Mercury vapor lamp
D. Nernst glower

Answer 276

B. Tungsten

Question 277

What is the purpose of a monochromator?

A. To remove stray light from the room.
B. To serve as a polychromatic light source.
C. To focus light from the sample onto the detector.
D. To allow only light of a certain wavelength to pass from the source to the sample.

Answer 277

D. To allow only light of a certain wavelength to pass from the source to the sample.

Question 278

Why must solutions with high concentrations be diluted prior to analysis via Beer’s Law?

A. The photon source is too weak to provide accurate results.
B. The molar absorptivity of a compound is dependent on its concentration.
C. There is no need to work with dilute concentrations; any concentration will work.
D. The relationship between absorbance and concentration is not linear at high concentration.

Answer 278

D. The relationship between absorbance and concentration is not linear at high concentration.

Question 279

A solution containing 4.48 ppm KMnO4 (158.04 g/mol) exhibits 85.9 %transmittance in a 1.00-cm cell at 520 nm. Calculate the molar absorptivity of KMnO4 at this wavelength.

A. 1.47x10^33 L/mol-cm
B. 2.33x10^3 L/mol-cm
C. 4.29x10^-4 L/mol-cm
D. 2.24x10^-5 L/mol-cm

Answer 279

B. 2.33x10^3 L/mol-cm

Question 280

Widely used continuous atomization method in AAS. It is also the most reproducible of all liquid-sample introduction methods that have been developed for AAS to date.

A. Flame
B. Electrothermal
C. Direct-current plasma
D. Inductively coupled plasma

Answer 280

A. Flame

Question 281

A hollow cathode tube lamp is necessary in AAS because

A The width of an atom’s absorption band is narrow.
B. Cathode lamps are cheaper to operate and maintain.
C. Continuous spectrum lamps do not emit at the proper intensity.
D. Continuous spectrum lamps cause ionization of the molecules.

Answer 281

A The width of an atom’s absorption band is narrow.

Question 282

A mass spectrum plots the intensity of each ion versus its

A. m/z ratio
B. absorbance
C. wavenumber
D. chemical shift

Answer 282

A. m/z ratio

Question 283

A soft ionization method in mass spectrometry that is typically applied to biomolecules that involves a laser striking a solid matrix to ionize the analyte without fragmentation or decomposition.

A. EI
B. CI
C. ESI
D. MALDI

Answer 283

D. MALDI

Question 284

The peaks of the following bonds can be found at ≥3000 cm^-1 and in an IR spectrum EXCEPT

A. O-H bond
B. N-H bond
C. C-H bond
D. C-C bond

Answer 284

D. C-C bond

Question 285

Which of the following demonstrates proper drying of cuvette?

A. dry using a desiccator
B. place in an oven to dry overnight
C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry
D. none of the above

Answer 285

C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry

Question 286

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of Beer’s law?

A. Light must be of a narrow wavelength range and preferably monochromatic.
B. Presence of fluorescent species in solution may interfere in the final absorbance of solution.
C. At high concentration, molecules may polymerize, affecting the absorption of solution.
D. Beer’s law does not form the quantitative basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.

Answer 286

D. Beer’s law does not form the quantitative basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.

Question 287

Which species is used to bombard the sample in mass spectroscopy?

A. alpha
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. protons

Answer 287

C. electrons

Question 288

In order to ensure an accurate weighing when using the balances, one should

A. leave the object on the balance for several minutes to ensure a stable reading
B. not lean on the balance bench, close the draft doors on the balance and zero the balance prior to weighing
C. turn the balance off to clear any previous weighing from its memory
D. weigh the object many times on different balances and take the average of these weighing

Answer 288

B. not lean on the balance bench, close the draft doors on the balance and zero the balance prior to weighing

Question 289

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Solid reactants can be weighed directly in the weighing pan of the analytical balance
B. Weight of the liquid is approximately equal to its density
C. Solid reactants can be transferred to a reaction flask by using a metal spatula
D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first

Answer 289

D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first

Question 290

Which procedure is recommended for reading the level of an aqueous solution in a buret of graduated cylinder?

A. Keep the eye level with the top of the meniscus and record that reading
B. Read both the bottom and top of the meniscus and average those readings
C. Keep the eye level with the bottom of the meniscus and record that reading
D. Look down at the meniscus at an angle to obtain the average reading directly

Answer 290

C. Keep the eye level with the bottom of the meniscus and record that reading

Question 291

Which of the following is a mark of blow out pipets?

A. Frosted band
B. Colored band
C. TC
D. TD

Answer 291

A. Frosted band

Question 292

In purifying a material by crystallization choose the solvent according to the following EXCEPT

A. solubility
B. vapor pressure
C. reactivity
D. polarity

Answer 292

B. vapor pressure

Question 293

In crystallization, the solution which is obtained after filtration is a

A. clear solution
B. colloidal solution
C. suspended solution
D. none of the given answers

Answer 293

A. clear solution

Question 294

What is the key step in a recrystallization process?

A. Taking the melting point of wet crystals
B. Dissolving the solid in a large quantity of cold solvent
C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let crystals grow
D. Removing the soluble impurities by vacuum filtration

Answer 294

C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let crystals grow

Question 295

Which of the following is the example of crystallization process?

A. Purification of alum
B. None of the given answers
C. Separation of gases from air
D. Purification of sea water

Answer 295

A. Purification of alum

Question 296

Which treatment method is NOT typically used to remove organic compounds?

A. Thermal
B. Physical
C. Biological
D. Chemical

Answer 296

A. Thermal

Question 297

A mobile phase can be classified as
I. Solid
Il. Liquid
III. Gas

A. II only
B. III only
C. Il and III only
D. I only

Answer 297

C. II and III only

Question 298

What is the mobile phase in thin layer chromatography?

A. liquid solvent such as isopropanol
B. A smooth solid surface such as a glass plate
C. A coating on a solid surface such as silica gel
D. A chamber such as a glass jar

Answer 298

A. liquid solvent such as isopropanol

Question 299

In TLC, the relative adsorption of components of the mixture is expressed in terms of its

A. Retardation factor
B. Solubility factor
C. Acceleration factor
D. Acceleration and retardation factor

Answer 299

A. Retardation factor

Question 300

The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of

A. Wood
B. Fibro
C. Metal
D. Glass

Answer 300

D. Glass

Question 301

In chromatography, the relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the

A. rate of disappearance of solute
B. rate of movement of solvent
C. rate of disappearance of solvent
D. rate of movement of solute

Answer 301

D. rate of movement of solute

Question 302

The elution power of a solvent is determined by

A. its overall polarity
B. polarity of the stationary phase
C. all of the given answers
D. nature of the sample components

Answer 302

C. all of the given answers

Question 303

The components of a sample in column chromatography are eluted in order of

A. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
B. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
C. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
D. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

Answer 303

C. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

Question 304

Benzene has a smaller distribution ratio, D, In squalene than cyclohexane. squalene is an aliphatic type of hydrocarbon. What is the order of elution of the two compounds from a gas chromatographic column?
D = concentration of sample in stationary phase / concentration of sample in mobile phase

A. Benzene will be eluted first
B. Cyclohexane will be eluted first
C. The order of elution cannot be determined
D. The two peaks will overlap

Answer 304

A. Benzene will be eluted first

Question 305

Which would be most appropriate for determining the number of components in a nail polish
remover?

A. Gas chromatography
B. Paper chromatography
C. Boiling point determination
D. Combustion analysis

Answer 305

A. Gas chromatography

Question 306

What is the principle involved in gas-solid chromatography?

A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. lon-exchange
D. Exclusion

Answer 306

B. Adsorption

Question 307

Which of the following chromatographic methods is most suitable for the analysis of high molecular weight compounds that are soluble in nonpolar solvents?

A. Gas-liquid
B. Gel filtration
C. lon-exchange
D. Gel permeation

Answer 307

D. Gel permeation

Question 308

The different types of energies associated with a molecule are

A. electronic energy
B. rotational energy
C. all of the given answers
D. vibrational energy

Answer 308

C. all of the given answers

Question 309

Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy?

A. study of kinetics of chemical reaction
B. control of purification
C. all of the given answers
D. detection of impurities

Answer 309

C. all of the given answers

Question 310

Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy?

A. all of the given answers
B. basis of understanding of colors
C. structural investigation
D. study of excited reaction products

Answer 310

A. all of the given answers

Question 311

Which of the following is a correct statement?

A. Molecular spectra is more complicated than atomic spectra.
B. Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron between molecular energy levels
C. In molecular transitions. electronic, rotational and vibration transitions occurs .
D. All of the given choices.

Answer 311

D. All of the given choices.

Question 312

What is the wavelength range of UV in the electromagnetic spectrum?

A. 400 nm to 700 nm
B. 10 to 400 nm
C. 700 nm to 1 mm
D. 0.01 nm to 10 nm

Answer 312

B. 10 to 400 nm

Question 313

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of chromophores?

A. They may contain extensive conjugated double bonds.
B. They contain unsaturated functional groups.
C. They are added to ions that do not strongly absorb light in the UV-Visible region.
D. They absorb strongly at 800 nm.

Answer 313

D. They absorb strongly at 800 nm.

Question 314

A student performs an experiment to determine the concentration of a colored salt solution by measuring the absorbance of the solution at the wavelength of maximum absorbance (λmax) of the salt and using Beer’s Law to calculate the concentration. Which of the following could cause the measured concentration to be higher than the actual concentration?

A. The cuvette is not rinsed with the salt solution after being washed.
B. The cuvette is not wiped off before it is inserted into the spectrophotometer.
C. Less than the recommended volume of salt solution is added to the cuvette.
D. The spectrometer is set to a wavelength different from λmax.

Answer 314

B. The cuvette is not wiped off before it is inserted into the spectrophotometer.

Question 315

Alcohol and ether are often used as solvents. What is the disadvantage of using these compounds to dissolve analytes for spectroscopic analysis in the UV-Visible region?

A. They react with the analyte given the energy at this region.
B. The solvents prevent the analyte from absorbing light.
C. They also absorb light in the UV-visible region.
D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

Answer 315

D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

Question 316

The most appropriate technique to determine levels or the Pb²⁺ ion in blood is

A. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy
B. Mass Spectrometry
C. Infrared Spectroscopy
D. High Performance Liquid Chromatography

Answer 316

A. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy

Question 317

For the reaction Fe²⁺ + SCN⁻ ⇌ FeSCN²⁺, the equilibrium constant can be best determined by means of

A. ion-exchange
B. conductance
C. spectroscopy
D. chromatography

Answer 317

C. spectroscopy

Question 318

A food scientist has a sample of a plant oil and wants to determine if the oil contains saturated or unsaturated fatty adds. Which of the following techniques would be most useful for this purpose?

A. Mass Spectroscopy
B. Ultraviolet Spectroscopy
C. Infrared Spectroscopy
D. Visible Spectroscopy

Answer 318

C. Infrared Spectroscopy

Question 319

At which region will the infrared bands of N-H, C-H and O-H stretching and bending motions

A. 2500 to 2000 cm⁻¹
B. 1500 to 1000 cm⁻¹
C. 4000 to 2500 cm⁻¹
D. 2000 to 1500 cm⁻¹

Answer 319

C. 4000 to 2500 cm⁻¹

Question 320

A C7H14O compound exhibits an IR peak at 1715 cm⁻¹. The compound could be a(an)

A. ketone
B. ether
C. ester
D. alcohol

Answer 320

A. ketone

Question 321

How many hydrogen atoms are in one molecule of propene?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8

Answer 321

C. 6

Question 322

How many isomers does the formula C2H3Cl3 have?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer 322

A. 2

Question 323

The following compounds have very similar molar masses. What would be the correct order
when they are arranged in order of increasing strength of their intermolecular forces?
I. C3H8
II. CH3OCH3
III. CH3CH2OH

A. II < I < III
B. III < I < II
C. I < II < III
D. Ill < II < I

Answer 323

C. I < II < III

Question 324

Which of the following compounds has an ionic bond?
l. H₂O
II. NH₄CI
III. CH₃CI
IV. CH₃Li

A. II
B. IV
C. I
D. III

Answer 324

A. II

Question 325

In the reaction of cyanide with 1-bromobutane in methanol, what is the role of cyanide?

A. a Brønsted base
B. a nucleophile
C. an oxidant
D. a solvent

Answer 325

B. a nucleophile

Question 326

A molecule has the formula C₅H₁₀O. Which functional groups might it contain?
I. Alcohol
II. Ketone

A. I only
B. Il only
C. Either l or II
D. Neither I nor II

Answer 326

C. Either l or II

Question 327

Aldehydes and ketones generally react by

A. nucleophilic substitution
B. nucleophilic addition
C. electrophilic addition
D. electrophilic substitution

Answer 327

B. nucleophilic addition

Question 328

AlCl₃ is a catalyst used in the alkylation of aromatic compounds. It is a/an

A. Lewis acid
B. Lowry-Bronsted acid
C. Arrhenius acid
D. Lewis base

Answer 328

A. Lewis acid

Question 329

What is produced when a primary alcohol reacts with a mild/weak oxidizing agent?

A. ketone
B. acetaldehyde
C. carboxylic acid
D. carbon dioxide

Answer 329

B. acetaldehyde

Question 330

What is the product of the reaction of benzyl alcohol with KMnO₄/H₃O⁺?

A. benzoic acid
B. benzaldehyde
C. benzyl chloride
D. benzophenone

Answer 330

A. benzoic acid

Question 331

Which of the following reactions is specific for phenols?

A. reaction with FeCi₃
B. reaction with KMnO₄
C. reaction with Jones reagent
D. reaction with Lucas reagent

Answer 331

A. reaction with FeCi₃

Question 332

Which of the following is the most volatile?

A. carboxylic acid
B. alcohol
C. ether
D. aldehyde

Answer 332

C. ether

Question 333

Which of the following has highest boiling point?

A. 2-hexanone
B. 2-pentanone
C. butanoic acid
D. 3-methyl-2-butanone

Answer 333

C. butanoic acid

Question 334

An amine with the formula C4H11N will have which of these properties?

A. unpleasant odor
B. boiling point greater than 100C
C. absorption of light with λ>450 nm
D. water solubility less than 10 g/L

Answer 334

A. unpleasant odor

Question 335

Which of the following statements about carbon is NOT correct?

A. Carbon forms strong covalent bonds to itself, allowing chains and rings to be made.
B. Carbon expands its valence shell to accommodate more than eight electrons and thus forms double and triple bonds.
C. Carbon and hydrogen have similar electronegativity and form strong bonds to each other, thus avoiding the high reactivity shown by metal hydrides.
D. Carbon forms strong covalent bonds to elements like nitrogen and oxygen because it does not have lone pairs of valence electrons to destabilize the bonds.

Answer 335

B. Carbon expands its valence shell to accommodate more than eight electrons and thus forms double and triple bonds.

Question 336

Which statement about bonding is TRUE?

A. A π bond is as twice as strong as a o bond
B. A double bond consists of two π bonds.
C. A σ bond has cylindrical symmetry about the bonding axis.
D. A π bond results from the sideways overlap of hybridized orbitals.

Answer 336

C. A σ bond has cylindrical symmetry about the bonding axis.

Question 337

How many σ and π bonds are in acetylene?

Α. 2σ, 2π
B. 3σ, 2π
C. 2σ, 3π
D. 3σ, 3π

Answer 337

B. 3σ, 2π

Question 338

What is the bond angle and molecular geometry around C in CH₂=CH₂?

A. 120°, tetrahedral
B. 109.5°, tetrahedral
C. 120°, planar
D. 109.5°, planar

Answer 338

C. 120°, planar

Question 339

What is the hybridization of O in CH₃OH?

A. sp³
B. sp²
C. sp
D. sp³d

Answer 339

A. sp³

Question 340

Which of the following orbitals provide the most efficient overlap?

A. s-s
B. sp³ -sp³
C. sp - sp
D. p-p

Answer 340

C. sp - sp

Question 341

What is the IUPAC name for CH₃CH₂C(CH₃)2CH₂CH(CH₃)₂?

A. 3,3,5-trimethylhexane
B. 2,2,5-trimethylhexane
C. 2,4,4-trimethylhexane
D. 1,1,3,3-tetramethylpentane

Answer 341

C. 2,4,4-trimethylhexane

Question 342

What is the IUPAC name of (CH₃)₂CHCH=CHCH₃?

A. 1,2-methyl-isopropylethene
B. 1,1-dimethyl-2-butene
C. 1-isopropylpropene
D. 4-methyl-2-pentene

Answer 342

D. 4-methyl-2-pentene

Question 343

How many constitutional isomers are possible for the molecular formula C₅H₁₂?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer 343

C. 3

Question 344

How many distinct branched alkanes are there with the formula C₆H₁₄?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer 344

D. 4

Question 345

Which of the following is TRUE for an optically active compound?

A. The molecular configuration is chiral.
B. The molecular configuration is achiral.
C. The compound is a racemic mixture of enantiomers.
D. The molecular configuration must have two or more stereogenic centers.

Answer 345

A. The molecular configuration is chiral.

Question 346

Compounds which have different arrangements of atoms in space while having same atoms bonded to each other are

A. constitutional isomers
B. functional group isomers
C. coordination isomers
D. stereoisomers

Answer 346

D. stereoisomers

Question 347

Which of the following statements describes enantiomers?

A. They are achiral stereoisomers.
B. They are stereoisomers having a mirror plane of symmetry.
C. They are stereoisomers having non-identical mirror image configurations.
D. They are stereoisomers that do not have non-identical mirror image configurations.

Answer 347

C. They are stereoisomers having non-identical mirror image configurations.

Question 348

Which substance can exist in enantiomeric forms?

A. 3-methylpentane
B. 2-methylpentane
C. 3-methyl-1-butanol
D. 2-methyl-1-butanol

Answer 348

D. 2-methyl-1-butanol

Question 349

A racemic mixture consists of equal quantities of

A. cis-trans isomers
B. diastereomers
C. enantiomers
D. structural isomers

Answer 349

C. enantiomers

Question 350

Which of the following is NOT an addition reaction?

A. Hydration Fred
B. Dehydration
C. Halogenation
D. Hydrohalogenation

Answer 350

B. Dehydration

Question 351

In this type of reaction, one sigma bond breaks and another forms at the same carbon atom.

A. Addition
B. Elimination
C. Substitution
D. Rearrangement

Answer 351

C. Substitution

Question 352

During symmetrical bond breaking, ____ are formed.

A. Radicals
B. Electrophiles
C. Nucleophiles
D. None of the above

Answer 352

A. Radicals

Question 353

All of the following are electrophiles EXCEPT

A. Br⁺
B. BF₃
C. AICI₃
D. NH₃

Answer 353

D. NH₃

Question 354

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. It is not necessary for a nucleophile to have an unshared electron pair.
B. A species can react as an electrophile if it contains an atom (other than hydrogen) with an incomplete valence octet.
C. A species can react as an electrophile, even if it has one or more unshared electron pairs.
D. Any species bearing a lone pair can normally react as a nucleophile.

Answer 354

A. It is not necessary for a nucleophile to have an unshared electron pair.

Question 355

Liquified petroleum gas is mainly composed of

A. Methane and Ethane
B. Ethane and Propane
C. Propane and Butane
D. Butane and Hexane

Answer 355

C. Propane and Butane

Question 356

The hydrocarbon having the lowest boiling point is

A. CH₄
B. C₂H₄
C. C₄H₁₀
D. C₆H₆

Answer 356

A. CH₄

Question 357

Compared to ionic compounds of similar molar mass, hydrocarbons typically have
I. Higher water solubility
II. Higher melting points

A. I only
B. Il only
C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II

Answer 357

D. neither I nor II

Question 358

Which class of compounds consist exclusively of saturated hydrocarbons?

A. Alkenes
B. Aromatics
C. Alkynes
D. Alkanes

Answer 358

D. Alkanes

Question 359

Alkanes undergo halogenation via

A. free radical substitution
B. electrophilic substitution
C. electrophilic addition
D. nucleophilic addition

Answer 359

A. free radical substitution

Question 360

Alkenes and alkynes, because they contain Tt bonds, undergo this type of reaction.

A. Electrophilic addition
B. Nucleophilic addition
C. Electrophilic substitution
D. Nucleophilic substitution

Answer 360

A. Electrophilic addition

Question 361

Which of the following reactions can reduce an alkene yielding an alkane?

A. Oxidation
B. Bromination
C. Hydrogenation
D. Polymerization

Answer 361

C. Hydrogenation

Question 362

Which of the following is produced from addition of Cl2 to 1-butene?

A. CH₃CH₂CCI₂CH₃
B. CH₃CH₂CH₂CHCI₂
C. CH₃CH₂CHCICH₂CI
D. CICH₂CH₂CH₂CH₂CI

Answer 362

C. CH₃CH₂CHCICH₂CI

Question 363

All of the following reactions convert alkenes to alcohols EXCEPT

A. halohydrin formation
B. ozonolysis
C. hydroboration-oxidation
Dr ioxymercuration-demercuration

Answer 363

B. ozonolysis

Question 364

What is the position of the bromine atom relative to the methyl group in 3-bromotoluene?

A. meta
B. para
C. ortho
D. trans

Answer 364

A. meta

Question 365

Aromatic compounds undergo substitution reactions instead of addition reactions because

A. the benzene ring is electron rich.
B. the hydrogens of benzene are relatively loosely bound.
C./the benzene ring is sterically crowded hence only substitution can occur.
D. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable aromatic TT system remains intact.

Answer 365

D. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable aromatic TT system remains intact.

Question 366

Which of the following substituents is NOT an ortho, para directing group in EAS?

A. -CI
B. -OH
C. -NO₂
D. -CH₃

Answer 366

C. -NO₂

Question 367

AlCl₃ is a catalyst used in the alkylation and acylation of aromatic compounds. It is a(an)

A. Arrhenius acid
B. Brønsted-Lowry acid
C. Lewis acid
D. Lewis base

Answer 367

C. Lewis acid

Question 368

Freon is an example of a(an)
A. hydrocarbon
B. alkyl halide
C. alcohol
D. aldehyde

Answer 368

B. alkyl halide

Question 369

What is the role of hydroxide ion in the reaction below?
CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Br + OH⁻ → CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH + Br⁻

A. Lewis acid
B. Electrophile
C. Nucleophile
D. Oxidizing agent

Answer 369

Nucleophile

Question 370

Which alkyl halide will most likely react via SN2 mechanism?

A. bromobenzene
B. bromomethane
C. 2-bromo-2-methylpropane
D. 1-bromobutane

Answer 370

B. bromomethane

Question 371

Which chloroalkane undergoes substitution with OH- exclusively by an SN1 mechanism?

A. (CH₃)₃CCI
B. (CH₃)₂CHCH₂CI
C. CH₃CH₂CHCICH₃
D. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CI

Answer 371

A. (CH₃)₃CCI

Question 372

Among the following group of compounds, which will have the highest boiling point?

A. alkenes
B. alkynes
C. alcohols
D. haloalkanes

Answer 372

C. alcohols

Question 373

An industrial source of alcohol
A. coal
B. fats
C. sugar
D. ether

Answer 373

C. sugar

Question 374

Which of the following will react faster with HBr?

A. 1-butanol
B. 2-butanol
C. 2-methyl-1-propanol
D. 2-methyl-2-propanol

Answer 374

D. 2-methyl-2-propanol

Question 375

Dehydration of an alcohol yields a(an)

A. alkene
B. alkyne
C. aldehyde
D. ketone

Answer 375

A. alkene

Question 376

Which of the following can react with NaOH?

A. phenol
B. ethanol
C. ethylene
D. diethyl ether

Answer 376

A. phenol

Question 377

Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing boiling point?

A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol
B. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane < butanone < butanol
C. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanol < butanone
D. n-pentane < 2-methylbutane < butanol < butanone

Answer 377

A. 2-methylbutane < n-pentane < butanone < butanol

Question 378

Methanal is used as

A. fuel
B. antiseptic
C. preservative
D. refrigerant

Answer 378

C. preservative

Question 379

The simplest ketone is

A. acetone
B. lactone
C. cyclohexanone
D. ethyl methyl ketone

Answer 379

A. acetone

Question 380

Carbonyl compounds undergo this type of reaction.

A. Electrophilic addition
B. Nucleophilic addition
C. Electrophilic substitution
D. Nucleophilic substitution

Answer 380

B. Nucleophilic addition

Question 381

Ketones react with reducing agents to form

A. phenols
B. primary alcohols
C. secondary alcohols
D. tertiary alcohols

Answer 381

C. secondary alcohols

Question 382

Which of the following will have the highest boiling point?

A. butane (58 g/mol)
B. propanal (58 g/mol)
C. 1-butanol (60 g/mol)
D. acetic acid (60 g/mol)

Answer 382

D. acetic acid (60 g/mol)

Question 383

Carboxylic acids are more acidic than alcohols because

A. of the increased polarity of the O-H due to the carbonyl group.
B. of the stability of the carboxylate anion formed upon ionization.
C. of the higher Ka value.
D. All of the above.

Answer 383

D. All of the above.

Question 384

What is formed when an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid with an acid catalyst?
A. anhydride
B. acid chloride
C. ester
D. ether

Answer 384

C. ester

Question 385

Water is a suitable solvent for the recrystallization of benzoic acid. How should it be added?

A. Add benzoic acid to minimum amount of hot water with stirring.
B. Add room temp water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.
C. Add maximum amount of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring.
D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.

Answer 385

D. Add small portions of hot water to benzoic acid while stirring until benzoic acid dissolves.

Question 386

Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals.

A. sieving
B. clean-up
C. acid digestion
D. liquid-liquid extraction

Answer 386

C. acid digestion

Question 387

A simple fractional tube is packed with which of the following?

A. wooden beads
B. plastic beads
C. metal beads
D. glass beads

Answer 387

D. glass beads

Question 388

The organic liquid in steam distillation vaporizes at

A. a lower tempe than its boiling point
B. a higher temp than its boiling point
C. its boiling point
D. none of the above

Answer 388

A. a lower tempe than its boiling point

Question 389

The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of

A. glass
B. wood
C. fiber
D. metal

Answer 389

A. glass

Question 390

Retardation factor is the ratio of distance moved by

A. substance from base line to distance moved by solvent from base line
B. solvent from base line to distance moved by substance from base line
C. substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line
D. solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line

Answer 390

A. substance from base line to distance moved by solvent from base line

Question 391

Which of the following is FALSE regarding galvanic cells?

A. To set up this cell, a salt bridge is used.
B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.
C. It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
D. The electrolytes used in the compartments are different.

Answer 391

B. The reactions taking place are non-spontaneous.

Question 392

A cell is prepared by dipping a copper rod in 1M CuSO4 solution and an iron rod in 2M FeSO4 solution. Identify the anode and cathode.

A. anode-copper; cathode-iron
B. anode-iron; cathode-copper
C. anode-copper; cathode-copper
D. anode-iron; cathode-iron

Answer 392

B. anode-iron; cathode-copper

Question 393

Beer’s Law states that

A. absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the absorbing
B. absorbance is proportional to the log of the concentration of the absorbing species
C. absorbance is equal to Po/P
D. none of the above

Answer 393

A. absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the absorbing

Question 394

Which of the following is the principle of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)?

A. Color is measured.
B. Color is simply observed.
C. Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured.
D. Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapor state and are excited to higher states.

Answer 394

A. Color is measured.

Question 395

Which of the following statement(s) about mass spectroscopy is(are) correct?
I. Analyte molecules are converted to gaseous ions.
II. The ions are separated according to their mass to charge ratio.
III. The addition of compound identification mass spectra can be utilized to determine precise SI
isotopic masses and isotopic ratios.

A. II only
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III

Answer 395

D. I, II, and III

Question 396

The region of electromagnetic spectrum for NMR is

A. IR
B. UV-Vis
C. Microwave
D. Radio frequency

Answer 396

D. Radio frequency

Question 397

Which of the following is(are) application(s) of ion exchange chromatography?

A. Softening of hard water
B. Demineralization of water
C. Separation of anions
D. All of the above

Answer 397

D. All of the above

Question 398

Which of the following is widely used for the separation/purification of specific biomolecules? This relies on the highly specific binding between an analyte and its counterpart.

A. Chiral chromatography
B. Affinity chromatography
C. lon exchange chromatography
D. lon exclusion chromatography

Answer 398

B. Affinity chromatography

Question 399

What must be done to the solid samples for it to be introduced into the column without using solid injection syringes in gas chromatography?

A. dissolved in volatile liquids
B. introduced using sampling loops
C. introduced using rotary sample valve
D. introduced in hot-zone of the column

Answer 399

A. dissolved in volatile liquids

Question 400

Which of the following is NOT an ideal characteristic of a detector used in gas chromatography?

A. high reliability
B. short response time
C. linear response to the solutes
D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas

Answer 400

D. sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas

Question 401

Which of the following detectors is widely used to detect environmental samples like chlorinated pesticides and polychlorinated biphenyls?

A. Flame ionization detector
B. Electron capture detector
C. Thermionic specific detector
D. Thermal conductivity detector

Answer 401

B. Electron capture detector

Question 402

Which of the following is NOT true about the guard column used in liquid chromatography?

A. It extends the lifespan of the separation column.
B. It filters particles that clog the separation column.
C. The size of packing varies with the type of protection needed.
D. It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile phase.

Answer 402

D. It allows entry of particles that cause precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile phase.

Question 403

Which column is NOT used in liquid or high performance liquid chromatography?

A. guard column
B. capillary column
C. analytical column
D. separation column

Answer 403

B. capillary column

Question 404

Which treatment method is NOT typically used to remove organic compounds?

A. Thermal
B. Biological
C. Physical
D. Chemical

Answer 404

A. Thermal

Question 405

Segregation of waste organic solvents is very important because

A. Costs for disposal of waste solvents differ.
B. Some waste solvents can still be recycled.
C. Waste solvents differ in proper treatment.
D. All of the above.

Answer 405

D. All of the above.

Question 406

Which method is considered an unacceptable means of disposing waste?

A. All methods given are unacceptable.
B. Pouring down the sink.
C. Placing in the regular trash.
D. Pouring down the drainage canal.

Answer 406

A. All methods given are unacceptable.

Question 407

Which is the correct procedure for mixing acid and water?

A. Pour acid into water.
B. Pour them at the same time.
C. Pour water into acid.
D. Let the supervisor mix them.

Answer 407

A. Pour acid into water.

Question 408

Which colors used in the NFPA diamond chemical hazard warning label represents health hazard?

A. red
B. blue
C. yellow
D. white

Answer 408

B. blue

Question 409

The sign shown below indicates what type of safety hazard?
(flame pictogram image)

A. Chemical - hazardous liquids; danger to skin and other materials
B. Flammable - possible burn hazard; use caution
C. Toxic - poisonous if touched, swallowed, or inhaled
D. Radioactivity - radioactive materials; use caution

Answer 409

B. Flammable - possible burn hazard; use caution

Question 410

Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous when

A. concentrated
B. all of the given answers
C. ether is allowed to evaporate
D. heated

Answer 410

B. all of the given answers

Question 411

Electrophiles are

A. electron-poor species
B. electron-rich species
C. positively charged ions
D. electrically neutral species

Answer 411

A. electron-poor species

Question 412

Chlorination of alkanes is what type of reaction?

A. elimination
B. rearrangement
C. electrophilic addition
D. free-radical substitution

Answer 412

D. free-radical substitution

Question 413

Which of these compounds exist as cis and trans isomers?

A. dichlorobenzene
B. 1-chloropropene
C. dichloroethyne
D. 1,2-dichloropropane

Answer 413

B. 1-chloropropene

Question 414

Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br2 in CH2Cl2?

A. hexane
B. benzene
C. 1-hexene
D. cyclohexane

Answer 414

C. 1-hexene

Question 415

Baeyer’s reagent is used to characterize alkenes. Which of the following is Baeyer’s reagent?

A. neutral solution of HCI
B. alcoholic solution of carbonate
C. ammoniacal solution of silver nitrate
D. aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

Answer 415

D. aqueous solution of potassium permanganate

Question 416

In what way does the reactivity of CH3C=CH differ from CH3CH=CH2?

A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not.
B. Propyne does not react with bromine, while propene reacts readily with bromine.
C. Propyne undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over platinum, while propene does not.
CD. Propyne is readily hydrated at pH = 0, while propene is not.

Answer 416

A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH2, while propene is not.

Question 417

Which of the following is an aromatic compound?

A. acetylene
B. acetone
C. styrene
D. polyethylene

Answer 417

C. styrene

Question 418

How many σ and π bonds are present in benzene?

A. 6σ and 3π
B. 3σ and 6π
C. 3σ and 12π
D. 12σ and 3π

Answer 418

D. 12σ and 3π

Question 419

The most activating substituent in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) is

A. -NO2
B. -OH
C. -CN
D. -NH2

Answer 419

D. -NH2

Question 420

Which of the following is the rate determining step in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS)?

A. generation of the electrophile
B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s π bond to form a carbocation
C. loss of a proton to re-form the aromatic ring
D. none of the above

Answer 420

B. addition of the electrophile on benzene’s π bond to form a carbocation

Question 421

Which of the following is NOT a product of the reaction of benzene with CH₃CI and AICl₃?

A. toluene
B. isopropyl benzene
C. o-xylene
D. p-xylene

Answer 421

B. isopropyl benzene

Question 422

Alkyl halides are very reactive towards nucleophiles because they have a(an)

A. nucleophilic carbon and a good leaving group
B. nucleophilic carbon and a poor leaving group
C. electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group
D. electrophilic carbon and a poor leaving group

Answer 422

C. electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group

Question 423

SN2 means

A. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile
C. two-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the alkyl halide
D. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the nucleophile

Answer 423

B. one-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile

Question 424

Which of the following alkyl halides can undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions?

A. CH₃X
B. (CH₃)₂CHX
C. (CH₃)₃CX
D. (CH₃)₃CCH₂X

Answer 424

B. (CH₃)₂CHX

Question 425

What of the following reactions are favored by polar aprotic solvent?

A. Both SN1 and SN2 reactions
B. SN1 reactions
C. None of the given choices
D. SN2 reactions

Answer 425

D. SN2 reactions

Question 426

Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

A. CH₃CH₂CH₃
B. CH₃OCH₂CH₃
C. CH₃COCH₃
D. CH₃CH₂CH₂OH

Answer 426

D. CH₃CH₂CH₂OH

Question 427

Which of the following reactions will NOT produce aldehydes?

A. ozonolysis of alkenes
B. hydration of alkynes
C. oxidation of primary alcohols
D. oxidation of secondary alcohols

Answer 427

D. oxidation of secondary alcohols

Question 428

Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in which class of organic compounds?

A. alkynes
B. alcohols
C. aldehydes
D. carboxylic acids

Answer 428

D. carboxylic acids

Question 429

Which reaction could occur between acetic acid and ethanol?

A. addition
B. esterification
C. neutralization sis
D. oxidation

Answer 429

B. esterification

Question 430

Which of the following can be used to distinguish between phenol and carboxylic acid?

A. aqueous NaCI
B. aqueous NaOH
C. aqueous FeCl₃
D. Tollens reagent

Answer 430

C. aqueous FeCl₃

Question 431

Contains the results of the experiment and checks if the hypothesis is proven or not.

A. procedure
B. hypothesis
C. conclusion
D. theory

Answer 431

C. conclusion

Question 432

How many significant figures are there in the 3.400 g?

A. infinite
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer 432

D. 4

Question 433

What is the scientific notation of 0.0078 μg/mL of compound A?

A. 7.8x10⁻¹
B. 7.8x10⁻²
C. 7.8x10⁻³
D.7.8x10⁻⁴

Answer 433

C. 7.8x10⁻³

Question 434

Mass _____

A. has the SI unit of pounds.
B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.
C. is the quantitative measure of acceleration, a fundamental property of all matter
D. constitutes the force exerted on matter by the gravitational attraction of Earth, and so it varies slightly from place to place.

Answer 434

B. is the amount of matter that occupies space.

Question 435

Which will cause the mass of a metal block to increase?

A. putting it in a freezer
B. heating it
C. measure it in Jupiter
D. none of the above

Answer 435

D. none of the above

Question 436

Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?

A. density
B. viscosity
C. freezing point
D. number of moles

Answer 436

D. number of moles

Question 437

All solid states are denser than their liquid states. However, water is unique because

A. It is clear.
B. It is tasteless.
C. It can freeze.
D. Its solid form is less dense than its liquid form.

Answer 437

D. Its solid form is less dense than its liquid form.

Question 438

When two materials that have different densities, like oil and water, encounter one another, they will

A. separate based on their densities
B. exchange densities
C. mix uniformly
D. repel one another

Answer 438

A. separate based on their densities

Question 439

Which does NOT indicate a chemical change?

A. change in color
B. increase in temperature
C. change in shape
D. evolution of gas

Answer 439

C. change in shape

Question 440

Mothballs are used as deodorizer and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in air for a few
hours, they disappeared. Which of the following best explains the scenario?

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization.
C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
D. None of the above.

Answer 440

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.

Question 441

Which of the following is described as having components that can be physically separated?

A. mixture
B. solution
C. compound
D. compound

Answer 441

A. mixture

Question 442

Determine the actual volume contained in a 50.0 mL volumetric flask given the following data.
Mass of water: 50.1227 g
Density of water at 25C: 0.99707 g/mL

A. 50.45 mL
B. 50.27 mL
C. 50.37 mL
D. 50.17 mL

Answer 442

B. 50.27 mL

Question 443

At 25C, a gas expands from 30 kPa and 5.0 L to 70C and 10 kPa. Calculate its final volume.

A. 17 L
B. 24 L
C. 42 L
D. 71 L

Answer 443

A. 17 L

Question 444

What is the density of oxygen at 1 atm and 25°C?

A. 1.31 g/mL
B. 1.31 g/L
C. 15.6 g/mL
D. 15.6 g/L

Answer 444

B. 1.31 g/L

Question 445

What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken outside on a cold day?

A. Its volume decreases
B. It remains the same
C. Its volume increases
D. Its volume becomes equal to zero

Answer 445

A. Its volume decreases

Question 446

When water is heated in a beaker, bubbles of air form on the side of the glass before the water boils. This shows that the solubility of gases in water

A. decreases with increasing temperature
B. increases with increasing temperature
C. decreases with decreasing temperature
D. increases with decreasing temperature

Answer 446

A. decreases with increasing temperature

Question 447

What is the most common isotope of hydrogen?

A. H has only one isotope
B. Protium
C. Deuterium
D. Tritium

Answer 447

B. Protium

Question 448

Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?

A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.

Answer 448

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

Question 449

A certain radioisotope has a half-life of 9 days. What percentage of an initial mass of this
isotope remains after 25 days?

A. 14.58%
B. 0.57%
C. 73.05%
D. 85.41%

Answer 449

A. 14.58%

Question 450

Which of the following is NOT a possible set of quantum numbers?

A. n =3, 1 =1, m = -1, m = -1/2
B. n=3, l = 0, m = 0, ms = -1/2
C. n =3, l = 0, m = -1, ms = -1/2
D. n =3, l =1, m = 0, ms = -1/2

Answer 450

C. n =3, l = 0, m = -1, ms = -1/2

Question 451

Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons?

A. K< Na < CI < Ne
B. Na < K < CI < Ne
C. Ne < K < Na < CI
D. Ne < Na < K < Cl

Answer 451

C. Ne < K < Na < CI

Question 452

Which of the following atoms is the largest?

A. Cs
B. Sr
C. Ga
D. As

Answer 452

A. Cs

Question 453

Which of the following oxides is likely to be basic in aqueous solution?

A. SO2
B. CO2
C. MgO
D. P2O5

Answer 453

C. MgO

Question 454

Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?

A. Zinc
B. Boron
C. Lithium
D. Calcium

Answer 454

B. Boron

Question 455

Which element is a pale-yellow gas that reacts with water?

A. H2
B. F2
C. Cl2
D. Br2

Answer 455

B. F2

Question 456

Chromium is a member of which of the following?

A. Actinides
B. Lanthanides
C. Alkali metals
D. Transition metals

Answer 456

D. Transition metals

Question 457

What is an alloy?

A. solid solution
B. liquid solution
C. gaseous solution
D. all of the above

Answer 457

A. solid solution

Question 458

Which of the following is a chemical equation?

A. CO2
B. C + O2 → CO2
C. Ice + Heat → Water
D. Iron + Oxygen → Rust

Answer 458

B. C + O2 → CO2

Question 459

What is the name of the compound PCl3?

A. Phosphorus chloride
B. Phosphorus trichloride
C. Phosphorus chloride(III)
D. Phosphorus trichloride(III)

Answer 459

B. Phosphorus trichloride

Question 460

What is the chemical formula of mercurous chloride?

A. HgCl
B. Hg2CI
C. HgCl2
D. Hg2Cl2

Answer 460

D. Hg2Cl2

Question 461

Which of the following covalent compounds has a tetrahedral geometry?

A. CH4
B. NH3
C. H2O
D. BF3

Answer 461

A. CH4

Question 462

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.
D. None of the statements above is true.

Answer 462

C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

Question 463

Which of the following describes a polar bond?

A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
B. It is a bond between different nonmetals.
C. It has a dipole moment.
D. All describes a nonpolar bond.

Answer 463

C. It has a dipole moment.

Question 464

Which of the following molecules has a net dipole movement?

A. Cl2
B. H2O
C. BF3
D. CH4

Answer 464

H2O

Question 465

Which of the following substances experience London dispersion forces?
I. CH3CH3
II. CH3OH

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Answer 465

C. Both I and II

Question 466

Which of the following is NOT an indication of strong IMFA?

A. high viscosity
B. high volatility
C. high boiling point
D. high melting point

Answer 466

B. high volatility

Question 467

What is the principal intermolecular force that must be overcome when n-hexane is vaporized?

A. hydrogen Bonding
B. covalent bonding between carbons
C. dipole-dipole forces
D. London dispersion forces

Answer 467

D. London dispersion forces

Question 468

Liquid A has lower boiling point than liquid B. Which of the following is TRUE about the boiling S point of the solution formed upon mixing A and B?

A. less than that of A
B. greater than that of B
C. average of A and B
D. between A and B

Answer 468

D. between A and B

Question 469

It is the temperature at which solid and liquid coexist.

A. melting point of liquid
B. freezing point of liquid
C. freezing point of solid
D. all of the above

Answer 469

B. freezing point of liquid

Question 470

How many atoms does a kilogram of copper (63.55 g/mol) metal have?

A. 9.5x10²¹
B. 9.5x10²⁴
C. 3.8x10²¹
D. 3.8x10²⁴

Answer 470

B. 9.5x10²⁴

Question 471

An analysis of a compound shows 62.04% C, 10.41% H, and 27.55% O. Which of the following is the most probably identity of the compound?

A. C2H4O
B. C2H4O2
C. C3H6O
D. C3H6O2

Answer 471

C. C3H6O

Question 472

A 1.00 g sample of which compound will produce the greatest amount of carbon dioxide after complete combustion with excess oxygen?

A. CH4
B. C3H8
C. C6H6
D. C8H18

Answer 472

C. C6H6

Question 473

Aspirin, C₉H₈O₄, is prepared by the acetylation of salicylic acid, C₇H₆O₃, according to the following equation:
C₇H₆O₃ + (CH₃CO)₂O > C₉H₈O₄ + CH₃COOH
If the yield of this reaction is 83%, what mass of salicylic acid would be required to prepare 1.0 kg of aspirin?

A. 0.77 kg
B. 0.92 kg
C. 1.2 kg
D. 1.3 kg

Answer 473

B. 0.92 kg

Question 474

Which procedure produces a 0.2 M solution of Na2SO4?

A. Mixing 500 mL of 0.4 M NaOH with 500 mL of 0.2 M Na₂SO₄
B. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na₂SO₄
C. Dissolving 0.2 M solid Na₂SO₄ in 500 mL water
D. Diluting 400 mL of 0.3 M Na₂SO₄ to a final volume of 1.0 L

Answer 474

B. Mixing 300 mL of 1.2 M NaOH with 600 mL of 0.3 M Na₂SO₄

Question 475

A solution is ___ if more solute can dissolve in it.

A. saturated
B. supersaturated
C. unsaturated
D. concentrated

Answer 475

C. unsaturated

Question 476

A solution contains 34.0% HCIO4 by mass. HCIO4 has a molar mass of 100.45 g/mol. The solution has a density of 1.242 g/mL. What is the molar concentration of this solution?

A. 5.13 M
B. 4.20 M
C. 8.40 M
D. 0.916 M

Answer 476

B. 4.20 M

Question 477

A solution has been prepared by transferring 60 mL of 85% by volume H3PO4 and diluting it to 1.0 L. What is the concentration of the new solution?

A. 10.10%
B. 9.25%
C. 12.2%
D. 5.10%

Answer 477

D. 5.10%

Question 478

Which of the following substances is NOT basic?

A. baking soda
B. apple juice
C. borax
D. seawater

Answer 478

B. apple juice

Question 479

A 2.4 L of HNO3 solution reacts with 63 mL of 1.9 N Ba(OH)2 to produce a neutral solution. What is the molar concentration of the original HNO3 solution?

A. 0.05 M
B. 0.12 M
C. 0.24 M
D. 0.50 M

Answer 479

A. 0.05 M

Question 480

The following statements are TRUE about pH EXCEPT

A. It is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ions content in a solution.
B. It is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
C. It is a measure of the amount or hydrogen ions in solution.
D. It does not change when there are changes in temperature.

Answer 480

D. It does not change when there are changes in temperature.

Question 481

When the salt NH4CI dissociates in water, the resulting solution is

A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

Answer 481

A. acidic

Question 482

When the salt NaCH3COO hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is

A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

Answer 482

B. basic

Question 483

During strong acid-weak base titration, the pH at the equivalence point is

A. basic
B. acidic
C. neutral
D. none of the above

Answer 483

B. acidic

Question 484

A lab analyst dissolved 4.021 g of NaOH in water and made up the solution to 1L with water. He then pipetted 10.00 mL of this solution into a flask and titrated it with 0.050 M HCI solution from a burette. A volume of 20.32 mL of acid had been used at the endpoint. Examining this result, the lab supervisor could deduce that

A. the NaOH absorbed H20 from the air after its mass was measured
B. the burette was rinsed with water instead of HCI
C. the analysis is as accurate as can be expected using this apparatus
D. the pipette was rinsed with water instead of NaOH

Answer 484

B. the burette was rinsed with water instead of HCI

Question 485

The Kjeldahl method is the worldwide standard for calculating the protein content in a wide variety of materials ranging from human and animal food, fertilizer, waste water and fossil fuels. What element is being analyzed in Kjeldahl method?

A. C
B. N
C. S
D. O

Answer 485

B. N

Question 486

In a galvanic cell, reduction occurs in the ___ while in an electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs in the ____.

A. anode, anode
B. cathode, cathode
C. cathode, anode
D. anode, cathode

Answer 486

C. cathode, anode

Question 487

Conductivity is the ability of a substance to

A. conduct electric current, which is the same as resistivity.
B. repel electric current.
C. conduct variable resistance.
D. conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity.

Answer 487

D. conduct electric current, which is the reciprocal of resistivity.

Question 488

Column chromatography is based on the principle of

A. Exclusion
B. Absorption
C. lon exchange
D. Differential adsorption

Answer 488

D. Differential adsorption

Question 489

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
B. The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface
C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
D. None of the above.

Answer 489

C. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.

Question 490

The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of

A. increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
C. decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
D. decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

Answer 490

B. increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

Question 491

Why is it generally preferable to use absorbance as a measure of absorption rather than %T?

A because %T cannot be measured as accurately as A
B. because %T is dependent on the power of the incident radiation
C. because A is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not
D. none of the above

Answer 491

C. because A is proportional to the concentration of the analyte, whereas %T is not

Question 492

Which of the following will you perform to know that atomic absorption spectrometer continues to work property?

A. calibration check
B. blank
C. QC sample recoveries
D. standard addition

Answer 492

A. calibration check

Question 493

A student wants to improve the accuracy of a 9.40 mL liquid using a 100 mL graduated cylinder. Which of the following should he do?

A. take the average of multiple measurements
B. add an additional significant figure
C. use 25 mL graduated cylinder instead
D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead

Answer 493

D. use 10 mL graduated cylinder instead

Question 494

Statistical test that decides whether a datum from a given set could be rejected or NOT.

A. t-test
B. z-test
C. Q-test
D. F-test

Answer 494

C. Q-test

Question 495

Reporting that the concentration of total cyanide in drinking water is 0.05 mg/L which is below the maximum allowable level of 0.07 mg/L as per DOH DAO No. 20070012 when it is actually above that limit is

A. accurate
B. precise
C. false negative
D. false positive

Answer 495

C. false negative

Question 496

An analysis of ore assays about 1.5% iron. What minimum sample mass should be taken if the relative error resulting from a 0.5-mg loss is not to exceed -0.2%?

A. 16.7 mg
B. 17 mg
C. 17 g
D. 16 g

Answer 496

C. 17 g

Question 497

Which of the following focuses on Quality Management Systems?

A. IS0 9001
B. ISO 17025
C. ISO 15189
D. GLP

Answer 497

A. IS0 9001

Question 498

It is a part of quality system that includes laboratory operations whose objective is to ensure that the data generated by the laboratory are of known accuracy to some stated, quantitative degree of probability.

A. Quality Management
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality Manual

Answer 498

C. Quality Control

Question 499

Type of quality control sample used to evaluate the effects of sample matrices on the performance of an analytical method.

A. Matrix duplicate
B. Matrix spike
C. Method blank
D. Reagent blank

Answer 499

B. Matrix spike

Question 500

Locating the adulterated portion of the lot for sampling is an example of

A. random sampling
B. selective sampling
C. composite sampling
D. stratified sampling

Answer 500

B. selective sampling

Question 501

Quantity of material is assumed to represent a single population for sampling purposes.

A. Bulk material
B. Lot
C. Segment
D. Batch

Answer 501

B. Lot

Question 502

What is t RA 6969?

A. Toxic Substances Control Act
B. Toxic Substances and Hazardous Wastes Control Act
C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act
D. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Management Control Act

Answer 502

C. Toxic Substances and Hazardous and Nuclear Wastes Control Act

Question 503

The responsibilities of chemists and chemical technicians embodied in the Code of Ethics include all EXCEPT

A. They are expected to be stewards of the environment by following the laws, rules and regulations pertaining to chemical wastes management and disposal.
B. They shall undertake the professional practice of Chemistry only when in possession of a valid COR and ID issued by the Board and the Commission.
C. All Chemistry practitioners are obliged to maintain active membership in the Accredited Professional Organization (APO) for the Chemistry profession, and to participate in the activities of the latter.
D. None of the above.

Answer 503

D. None of the above.

Question 504

Type of analysis where the amounts of all constituents in the samples are determined.

A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis
B. Partial analysis
C. Elemental analysis
D. Proximate analysis

Answer 504

A. Complete (or ultimate) analysis

Question 505

Method consisting a set of instructions issued by a national standards body.

A. Standard method
B. Primary method
C. Regulatory method
D. Validated method

Answer 505

A. Standard method

Question 506

It is a detailed written instruction to achieve uniformity in the performance of a specific function.

A. Standard method
B. Protocol
C. Standard operating procedure
D. Analytical procedure

Answer 506

C. Standard operating procedure

Question 507

Which of the following correctly describe(s) the detection limit?
I. Concentration that gives a readout level that is more than the electrical noise level inherent in the baseline.
Il. It is the smallest concentration that can be determined with a reasonable degree of precision.
III. A qualitative parameter in the sense that it is the minimum concentration that can be detected, but not precisely determined.
IV. It would tell the analyst that the element is present, but not necessarily at a precisely determinable concentration level.

A. II and III
B. I, III, and IV
C. II, III, and IV
D. III only

Answer 507

B. I, III, and IV

Question 508

The dynamic range in analytical measurements refers to the range where the

A. instrument reading is constant
B. detection limit lies
C. sensitivity of the instrument is highest
D. instrument reading is linear with input value

Answer 508

B. detection limit lies

Question 509

Analytical methods or instruments’ performance aim for

A. Low signal-to-noise ratio
B. High variability
C. Low dynamic range
D. High signal-to-noise ratio

Answer 509

D. High signal-to-noise ratio

Question 510

It accounts for all the other components in the mixture that are not under investigation.

A. Analyte
B. Matrix
C. Measurand
D. Test

Answer 510

B. Matrix

Question 511

When qualifying a working standard, what is the best type of reagent to use?

A. Reagent grade
B. Technical grade
C. Primary standard
D. Analytical grade

Answer 511

C. Primary standard

Question 512

Requirements of a primary standard.

A. High Purity, 99.9% or better
B. Stability in air
C. Absence of hydrate water
D. All of the above

Answer 512

D. All of the above

Question 513

According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall include

A. Generator ID Number
B. Volume of Waste
C. Container Material
D. All of the above

Answer 513

D. All of the above

Question 514

Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?

A. glass bottle
B. amber bottle
C. plastic bottle
D. none of these

Answer 514

B. amber bottle

Question 515

What type of container should be used when handling or storing hydrogen fluoride?

A. Glass
B. Polyethylene
C. Cast iron
D. Alloys containing silica

Answer 515

B. Polyethylene

Question 516

The following acids and acid mixtures can be collected and placed in glass containers EXCEPT for

A. Sulfuric acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Aqua regia
D. Hydrochloric acid

Answer 516

B. Hydrofluoric acid

Question 517

Glass container is NOT suitable for

A. oil and grease determination
B. microbiological analyses
C. all of the choices
D. inorganic trace analyses

Answer 517

D. inorganic trace analyses

Question 518

Ammonia solution can be stored with the following chemicals EXCEPT

A. cyclohexane solution
B. acetic acid solution
C. 2-propanol solution
D. sodium hydroxide solution

Answer 518

B. acetic acid solution

Question 519

When working with concentrated acids except hydrofluoric acid, which of the following statements are TRUE?
I. Gloves covering the whole arm or nitrile gloves should be worn.
Il. Half- or full-faced masks with gas- and/or vapor removing respirators should be worn
III. Wearing safety boots or foot covering is optional as long as tie person is working under the hood.
IV. Wearing of apron is optional as long as laboratory gown is worn.

A. l and II
B. Il and III
C. All of the choices
D. I and IV

Answer 519

A. l and II

Question 520

Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?

A. wearing of masks and gloves
B. drying of glassware after washing
C. tying or braiding long hairs
D. adding water to strong acid

Answer 520

D. adding water to strong acid

Question 521

Which of the following is a treatment for HF burns?

A. water
B. Epsom salt
C. 25% brine solution
D. calcium gluconate

Answer 521

D. calcium gluconate

Question 522

If a fire extinguisher has a red body and a blue band, what is its content?

A. Foam type
B. Dry chemical type
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Halon substitute

Answer 522

A. Foam type

Question 523

The following are proper practices in storing materials and equipment EXCEPT ONE.

A. Avoid storing materials and equipment on top of cabinets.
B. Label all materials properly.
C. Store hazardous chemicals inside the fume hood.
D. Do not expose stored chemicals to heat or direct sunlight.

Answer 523

C. Store hazardous chemicals inside the fume hood.

Question 524

Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effects of waste?

A. Inhalation
B. Dermal
C. Ingestion
D. All of the above

Answer 524

D. All of the above

Question 525

A solid waste management practice which refers to the controlled decomposition or organic matter by microorganisms, mainly bacteria and fungi, into a humus-like product.

A. Composting
B. Recycling
C. Bioremediation
D. Reducing

Answer 525

A. Composting

Question 526

In handling diethyl and other ethers, the following practices are correct EXCEPT

A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air autoxidation.
B. Ferrous salts or sodium bisulfite can be used to decompose peroxides formed by these substances.
C. Passage over basic active alumina can remove most of the peroxidic material.
D. Dispose old or expired ethers.

Answer 526

A. Distill these substances to dryness to remove peroxides that were possibly formed from air autoxidation.

Question 527

What is the type of chemical that can cause an allergic reaction in the airways following inhalation?

A. Corrosive
B. Respiratory sensitizer
C. Oxidizer
D. Carcinogen

Answer 527

B. Respiratory sensitizer

Question 528

It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to wastes that have the potential to contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of. These materials are regulated as hazardous waste due to their potential to leach out specific toxic substances in a landfill.

A. Reactivity
B. Corrosivity
C. Toxicity
D. Ignitability

Answer 528

C. Toxicity

Question 529

In order to property maintain chemical laboratory equipment one should perform the following EXCEPT

A. Place the equipment in hot humid location.
B. Regular calibration of equipment.
C. Regular Inspection of operational components.
D. Thorough cleaning with the proper materials.

Answer 529

A. Place the equipment in hot humid location.

Question 530

Objects cannot be weighed when hot or warm. But if you were to take a sample out and wait for it to cool, it would pick up moisture so it should be placed in a(an)

A. oven
B. desiccator
C. fume hood
D. room temperature

Answer 530

B. desiccator

Question 531

It is the nominal volume of water (or mercury) contained or delivered by an article of volumetric glassware, at its reference temperature.

A. accuracy
B. calibration
C. capacity
D. measurand

Answer 531

C. capacity

Question 532

Shown at the right is a section of a burette filled with titrant before beginning a titration. What initial volume should be recorded?

A. 1.20 mL
B. 1.26 mL
C. 2.74 mL
D. 2.80 mL

Answer 532

B. 1.26 mL

Question 533

When a liquid is delivered from a volumetric pipet, a small amount is typically retained in 2.0 the tip. How should a student proceed in order to deliver the volume of liquid stated on the volumetric pipet?

A. Leave the small amount in the tip.
B. Use a pipet to expel the remaining droplet.
C. Shake the pipet to dispense the amount left in the tip.
D. Draw the liquid above the line to compensate for the amount that remains in the tip.

Answer 533

A. Leave the small amount in the tip.

Question 534

Using standard taper jointware, one can connect glasswares without rubber stoppers, corks or tubing. Pieces are joined by glass connections built into the apparatus. They are manufactured in standard sizes and an example is shown below. For the outer joint 14/20, what is the meaning of 14?

A. 14 mm is the length of the outer joint
B. 14 mm is the size of the outer joint at the widest point
C. 14 mm is the size of the inner joint at the widest point
D. 14 mm is the length of the inner joint

Answer 534

B. 14 mm is the size of the outer joint at the widest point

Question 535

To determine the density of a liquid, which of the following must be used?

A. graduated cylinder
B. volumetric flask
C. pycnometer
D. pipet

Answer 535

C. pycnometer

Question 536

In maintenance and storage of pH meters, which of the following should NOT be done?

A. Use mild soap solution in general cleaning of electrode.
B. Store the electrode in distilled water to keep the electrode bulb moist during storage.
C. Blot electrode dry after rinsing the pH electrode.
D. Rinse pH electrode in between measurements.

Answer 536

B. Store the electrode in distilled water to keep the electrode bulb moist during storage.

Question 537

The size of the sample taken for analysis depends on the

A. concentration of analyteerick
B. equipment to be used
C. specific chemical tests
D. all of the above

Answer 537

D. all of the above

Question 538

Possible sources of contamination during sample preparation include

A. reagents
B. glassware from previous analysis
C. equipment from previous experiment
D. all of the above

Answer 538

D. all of the above

Question 539

Method of passing the sample through a metal or plastic mesh of a uniform cross-sectional area to separate particles into uniform sizes.

A. sieving
B. milling
C. pulverizing
D. macerating

Answer 539

A. sieving

Question 540

Which crucible should NOT be used for dry ashing because elevated temperatures exceed its melting point?

A. zirconium
B. platinum
C. glass
D. porcelain

Answer 540

C. glass

Question 541

Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals.

A. sieving
B. clean-up
C. acid digestion
D. liquid-liquid extraction

Answer 541

C. acid digestion

Question 542

In the decomposition and dissolution of solids during sample preparation, which of the following is expensive and often the last resort?

A. fusion technique
B. simple dissolution
C. acid treatment using oxidation
D. dissolution using ultrasound and solvent

Answer 542

A. fusion technique

Question 543

Cyclohexane and water can be separated using a separatory funnel. Which property
contributes to his separation?

A. Cyclohexane and water are immiscible.
B. Cyclohexane has a lower viscosity than water.
C. Cyclohexane has a larger molar mass than water.
D. Cyclohexane has a greater vapor pressure than water.

Answer 543

A. Cyclohexane and water are immiscible.

Question 544

In liquid-liquid extraction, it is often necessary to determine which liquid is aqueous and organic. To test the liquids, a drop of water can be added to the top layer. If the drop dissolves in the top later, then it is

A. aqueous
B. denser
C. miscible
D. organic

Answer 544

A. aqueous

Question 545

Multiple extraction is more effective when the extraction is repeated with

A. extra solvent
B. large solvent
C. small solvent
D. no solvent

Answer 545

C. small solvent

Question 546

Which of the following should be used to filter hot mother liquor during recrystallization?

A. Buchner funnel
B. long stem funnel
C. short stem funnel
D. none of the above

Answer 546

C. short stem funnel

Question 547

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

A. Two different pure substances have similar melting points.
B. A sample of an impure substance has a wider melting point range.
C. Melting point serves as an index of purity of a solid crystalline substance.
D. Every pure solid crystalline substance has a characteristic and unique melting point.

Answer 547

A. Two different pure substances have similar melting points.

Question 548

Which of the following is NOT separated using distillation?

A. acetone and water
B. aniline and chloroform
C. impurities in sea water
D. milk and water

Answer 548

D. milk and water

Question 549

Steam baths are often used to heat volatile, non-aqueous, flammable solvents because of the following EXCEPT

A. Can only heat to 100C so no overheating
B. Flash fires are unlikely in most solvents
C. Overheating is possible
D. Provides instant heat

Answer 549

C. Overheating is possible

Question 550

The beads in a fractional column are for

A. vapors to condense
B. vapors to evaporate
C. vapors to generate
D. all of the mentioned

Answer 550

A. vapors to condense

Question 551

What is the main purpose of adding boiling chips to a solution that will be heated?

A. To reduce the boiling point of the solution.
B. To increase the boiling point of the solution.
C. To prevent the solution from superheating.
D. To decrease the time required for the solution to reach its boiling point.

Answer 551

C. To prevent the solution from superheating.

Question 552

Fractional distillation is a process of separation of which of the following?

A. two immiscible liquids
B. one miscible and one immiscible liquid
C. two miscible liquids
D. none of the above

Answer 552

C. two miscible liquids

Question 553

What is the advantage of steam distillation?

A. Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds
B. Reduces decomposition of inorganic compounds
C. Increases the decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds
D. Increases the decomposition of inorganic compounds

Answer 553

A. Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds

Question 554

Which of the following is the correct way to determine the boiling point of an unknown compound?

A. Heating a compound to boiling and measuring the temperature of the hot plate.
B. Heating a compound to near boiling and placing the thermometer in the liquid.
C. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the refluxing vapor.
D. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the boiling liquid.

Answer 554

C. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the refluxing vapor.

Question 555

The principle of TLC is that

A. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees.
B. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees.
C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees.
D. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees.

Answer 555

C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees.

Question 556

Which of the following statements about visualization during TLC is TRUE?

A. Spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the eyes.
B. Spots can be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light
C. Spots can be detected by placing the plate in a covered jar containing iodine crystals.
D. All of the above.

Answer 556

D. All of the above.

Question 557

Amino acids can be detected by spraying the stationary phase with ninhydrin solution. This can be done in

A. gas chromatography
B. paper chromatography
C. liquid chromatography
D. column chromatography

Answer 557

B. paper chromatography

Question 558

Which laboratory results will tell whether an unknown white solid is NaOH or NH4NO3?

A. NaOH is soluble in H2O but NH₄NO₃ is not.
B. Aqueous NaOH turns litmus blue but NH₄NO₃ does not.
C. Aqueous NaOH reacts with copper metal but NNH₄NO₃ does not.
D. NaOH gives a green flame test but NH₄NO₃ is colorless in a flame.

Answer 558

B. Aqueous NaOH turns litmus blue but NH₄NO₃ does not.

Question 559

Which absorbs CO2 most effectively?

A. Solid KOH
B. Solid SiO2
C. Aqueous HCI
D. Aqueous NaF

Answer 559

A. Solid KOH

Question 560

Which acid should be stored in plastic containers rather than in glass ones?

A. Hydrofluoric acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Sulfuric acid

Answer 560

A. Hydrofluoric acid

Question 561

What is the proper way to dispose of a 2.00-mL sample of hexane after completing experiments with it?

A. Return it to the solvent bottle.
B. Place it in a waste bottle with compatible organic materials.
C. Flush it down the drain with large quantities of water.
D. Pour it on a solid adsorbent so it can be thrown away with solid waste.

Answer 561

B. Place it in a waste bottle with compatible organic materials.

Question 562

Chromatography is used to

A. Separate two or more compounds based on their polarities.
B. Separate two or more compounds based on their masses.
C. Separate two or more compounds based on how they interact with other compounds.
D. All of the above

Answer 562

D. All of the above

Question 563

Which type of chromatography is used for structural analysis?

A. Affinity chromatography
B. Partition chromatography
C. Column chromatography
D. Paper chromatography

Answer 563

D. Paper chromatography

Question 564

Which of the following can be separated using column chromatography?

A. sugar derivatives s
B. hydrolyzed peptides
C. inorganic complex ions
D. chlorophylls and carotenoids

Answer 564

D. chlorophylls and carotenoids

Question 565

Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of

A. starch
B. tyrosinase
C. antibodies
D. all of the above

Answer 565

D. all of the above

Question 566

The analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is done using

A. Thin layer chromatography
B. Gas chromatography
C. Partition chromatography
D. lon exchange chromatography

Answer 566

B. Gas chromatography

Question 567

Which sample prep technique(s) is (are) most suitable for analyzing volatile organic compounds (VOCs) by GC?
I. Purge and trap
Il. Solid phase microextraction
III. Soxhlet extraction followed by TLC

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, Il, and II

Answer 567

C. I and II only

Question 568

Which of the following is useful for the separation of low molecular weight gases?

A. Gas-solid chromatography
B. Gas-liquid chromatography
C. Liquid-liquid chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography

Answer 568

A. Gas-solid chromatography

Question 569

lon exchange particles carry fixed positive or negative charges. A sulfonic acid type resin has SO₃⁻H⁺ groups were H⁺ can be exchanged for

A. cations
B. anions
C. small cations and large anions
D. small anions and large cations

Answer 569

A. cations

Question 570

A graph showing the detector’s response as a function of elution time, band’s shapes, position, and resolution.

A. monitor display
B. quality control chart
C. calibration curve
D. chromatogram

Answer 570

D. chromatogram

Question 571

Which of the following is NOT an application of high performance liquid chromatography?

A. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
B. Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
C. Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
D. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

Answer 571

D. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

Question 572

Which of the following statements about spectroscopic methods is correct?

A. Spectro methods require less time and more amount of sample than classical methods.
B. Spectro methods require more time and more amount of sample than classical methods.
C. Spectro methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods.
D. Spectro methods require more time and less amount of sample than classical methods.

Answer 572

C. Spectro methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods.

Question 573

Which of the following demonstrates proper drying of cuvette?

A. dry using a desiccator
B. place in an oven to dry overnight
C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry
D. none of the above

Answer 573

C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry

Question 574

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of Beer-Lambert’s law?

A. Light must be of a narrow wavelength range and preferably monochromatic.
B. Presence of fluorescent molecule in solution may interfere in the final absorbance of solution
C. At high concentration, molecules may polymerize and thereby affecting absorption of solution.
D. Beer-Lambert’s law does not form the quantitative basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.

Answer 574

D. Beer-Lambert’s law does not form the quantitative basis for all types of absorption spectroscopy.

Question 575

A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte.

A. calibration curve
B. absorbance chart
C. quality control chart
D. none of the above

Answer 575

A. calibration curve

Question 576

In handling acid wastes, what type of protective gloves should be used?

A. cloth gloves
B. rubber gloves
C. surgical gloves
D. disposal plastic gloves

Answer 576

B. rubber gloves

Question 577

The following are the minimum requirements for hazardous waste storage facilities EXCEPT

A. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.
B. Properly secured and not easily accessed by unauthorized persons.
C. Accessible in cases of emergency and for purposes of inspection and monitoring.
D. Equipped with floors that are impermeable to liquids and resistant to attack by chemicals, not slippery, and constructed to retain spillages.

Answer 577

A. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.

Question 578

An institution that handles chemicals relies on the whether a waste is hazardous and to label the waste accordingly?

A. Laboratory safety manager
B. Department of Environmental and Natural Resources
C. Principal Investigator
D. Plant Safety Officer

Answer 578

B. Department of Environmental and Natural Resources

Question 579

Hazardous waste should be kept separate from other waste because

A. costs are different.
B. different treatments.
C. others can be recycled.
D. all of the above.

Answer 579

D. all of the above.

Question 580

Which of the following should be done when handling flammable and combustible liquids?

A. Keep away from potential ignition sources.
B. Use and store in adequately ventilated areas.
C. Keep container closed except when dispensing.
D. All of the above.

Answer 580

D. All of the above.

Question 581

What should you do when a waste container has a minor leak?

A. Patch up the container.
B. Transfer to another container.
C. Call your PCO to report in a regulatory body.
D. Put container with leak in a bigger container.

Answer 581

B. Transfer to another container.

Question 582

According to NFPA, what color refers to flammability.

A. blue
B. yellow
C. red
D. white

Answer 582

C. red

Question 583

Which of the following can be disposed down the drain?

A. 1 g/L PCl5
B. 0.1 M H2SO4
C. 200 g/L PCl5
D. none of the above

Answer 583

D. none of the above

Question 584

The following are good sampling practices EXCEPT

A. If possible, mix the material before getting the sample.
B. Take several increments and composite them to form the sample.
C. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification of process cycles.
D. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

Answer 584

D. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

Question 585

Organic peroxides are dangerous when

A. heated
B. concentrated
C. ether, dioxane, THF, among others, are allowed to vaporize
D. all of the above

Answer 585

D. all of the above

Question 586

Which of the following is NOT a good practice in storing chemicals?

A. Store peroxidizable materials away from heat and light.
B. Maintain a clearance of at least 18 in. from the sprinkler heads to allow proper functioning of the sprinkler system.
C. Store chemicals directly on the floor.
D. Do not store materials on top of high cabinets where they will be hard to see or reach.

Answer 586

C. Store chemicals directly on the floor.

Question 587

When handling concentrated acids except hydrofluoric acid, which of the following PPE must be worn?

A. gloves
B. lab gown and safety boots
C. masks with respirators
D. all of the above

Answer 587

D. all of the above

Question 588

When using a fume hood, all of the following must be done EXCEPT

A. Making sure that the exhaust is operating.
B. Keeping the hood closed, except during set-up or when working within the hood.
C. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not available.
D. Removing contaminated items with odors and hazardous materials only after decontamination or if placed in a container to avoid release of contaminants into the air.

Answer 588

C. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not available.

Question 589

When working with chemicals with splash hazards, what is the most appropriate PPE to use?

A. prescription glasses
B. goggles
C. face shield only
D. safety glasses

Answer 589

B. goggles

Question 590

According to the GHS, which of the following is NOT under the pictogram Gas Cylinder?

A. compressed gas
B. dissolved gas
C. liquefied gas
D. explosive gas

Answer 590

D. explosive gas

Question 591

According to the GHS, which of the following is referred to by the given symbol?
(a container dripping liquid onto a piece of metal and another container dripping liquid onto a hand)

A. corrosive
B. flammable
C. oxidizer
D. explosive

Answer 591

A. corrosive

Question 592

A GHS compliant technical document that contains all the information related to the health hazard, storage, precautionary measures, emergency procedures when handling chemicals.

A. Safety Data Sheet
B. Chemical Data Sheet
C. Material Safety Data Sheet
D. Chemical Safety Data Sheet

Answer 592

A. Safety Data Sheet

Question 593

Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?

A. Wearing of masks and gloves
B. Drying of glassware after washing
C. Adding water to strong acid
D. Tying or braiding long hairs

Answer 593

C. Adding water to strong acid

Question 594

Which species is used to bombard the sample in mass spectroscopy?

A. alpha particles
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. protons

Answer 594

C. electrons

Question 595

The infrared frequency of the C-X vibration for CH3X depends on which of the following?
I. Mass of X
Il. Strength of the C-X bond/inC
III. Type of C-X vibration (stretch or bend)

A. I only
B. II only
C. Il and IlI only
D. I , II and III

Answer 595

D. I , II and III

Question 596

In the past, IR spectra had to be acquired one wavelength at a time, which took a long time. Today spectra can be acquired faster due to the

A. light is faster today that it used to be
B. absence of broad spectrum of wavelength
C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan all frequencies at once
D. none of the above

Answer 596

C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan all frequencies at once

Question 597

Which compound will have peaks at 3000 and 1650 cm⁻¹ in an infrared spectrum?

A. cyclohexane
B. cyclohexene
C. benzene
D. acetone

Answer 597

B. cyclohexene

Question 598

In which species are all the carbon atoms sp2 hybridized?

A. C2H2
B. C2H4
C. C3H8
D. C4H10

Answer 598

B. C2H4

Question 599

What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in a carboxyl group?

A. sp
B. sp3
C. sp2
D. dsp3

Answer 599

C. sp2

Question 600

How many different compounds have the formula CH12?

A. 5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3

Answer 600

D. 3

Question 601

How many different alcohols (not including stereoisomers) have the molecular formula C4H10O?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer 601

C. 4

Question 602

In which species is the carbon-nitrogen bond the shortest?
I. CH₃NH₂
II. CH₂NH
III. (CH₃)₄N⁺
IV. CH₃CN

A. II
B. I
C. IV
D. III

Answer 602

C. IV

Question 603

For which compound are the empirical and molecular formulas the same?

A. C₆H₅COOH
B. C₆H₄(COOH)₂
C. HOOCCOOH
D. CH₃COOH

Answer 603

A. C₆H₅COOH

Question 604

Identify the incorrect statement regarding cycloalkanes.

A. They have sp3 hybridized carbons.
B. They have tetrahedral bond angles.
C. Their stability varies directly with their respective size.
D. They undergo reactions similar to that of alkanes.

Answer 604

B. They have tetrahedral bond angles.

Question 605

Which of the following reactions will consume the most oxygen?

A. Complete combustion one mole of octane.
B. Complete combustion of one mole of 2,3-dimethylhexane.
C. Complete combustion of one mole of 2,3,4-trimethylpentane.
D. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen.

Answer 605

D. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen.

Question 606

Which of the following is NOT a reagent for hydrogenation of an alkyne?

A. H2/Pd
B. Na/NH3
C. H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
D. BH3/H2O2,NaOH

Answer 606

D. BH3/H2O2,NaOH

Question 607

When ethyne is subjected to ozonolysis, what is the end product?

A. formic acid
B. acetic acid
C. oxalic acid
D. glucose

Answer 607

A. formic acid

Question 608

Which of the compounds below will react readily with chlorine by addition?

I. C₂H₂ (ethyne)
Il. C₂H₄ (ethene)
III. C₆H₆ (benzene)

A. I only
B. I and Il only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III

Answer 608

B. I and Il only

Question 609

What is the order of reactivity of the following compounds in EAS?
I. benzene
Il. toluene
III. phenol
IV. benzoic acid

A. IV < I < II < III
B. I < IV < II < III
C. III < II < I < IV
D. II < III < IV < I

Answer 609

A. IV < I < II < III

Question 610

What are the reagents needed in bromination of benzene via EAS?

A. Bromine in H₂O
B. Bromine in CH₃CI
C. Bromine in CH₂Cl₂
D. Bromine and FeBr₃

Answer 610

D. Bromine and FeBr3

Question 611

Which of the following is NOT true for SN1 reactions?

A. They occur through a single step concerted reaction.
B. They are favored by polar protic solvents.
C. Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through this mechanism.
D. Concentration of nucleophile does not affect the rate of such reactions.

Answer 611

A. They occur through a single step concerted reaction.

Question 612

A low concentration of nucleophile favors

A. SN1
B. SN2
C. both SN1 and SN2
D. neither SN1 nor SN2

Answer 612

D. neither SN1 nor SN2

Question 613

Which statement(s) about substitution reactions are correct?
I. The reaction between NaOH and 1-chloropentane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism.
Il. The reaction between NaOH and 2-chloro-2-methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism.
III. The reaction between NaOH with 1-chloropentane occurs at a slower rate than with 1-bromopentane.

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, Il and III

Answer 613

B. I and III

Question 614

Which of the following alcohols would be most soluble in water?

A. propanol
B. hexanol
C. pentanol
D. butanol

Answer 614

A. propanol

Question 615

The gentle oxidation of ethanol produces which of the following product?
I. ethanal
II. ethanoic acid
III. carbon monoxide
IV. carbon dioxide

A. IV
B. I
C. II
D. III

Answer 615

B. I

Question 616

The major reason that phenol is a stronger Bronsted acid than cyclohexanol is

A. it is a better proton donor
B. the π electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by resonance
C. the phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by induction, which stabilizes the anion formed in the reaction
D. the cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by induction, which destabilizes the anion formed in the reaction

Answer 616

B. the π electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by resonance

Question 617

What is the IUPAC name for CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO?

A. pentanal
B. 1-pentanol
C. 1-pentanone
D. pentanoic acid

Answer 617

A. pentanal

Question 618

Which of these compounds contain a carboxy group?

A. propanol
B. propanal
C. propanone
D. propanoic acid

Answer 618

D. propanoic acid

Question 619

The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric acid. What is the formula for this compound?

A. C₄H₈O₂
B. C₄H₁₀O
C. C₅H₁₀O₂
D. C₅H₁₂O

Answer 619

A. C₄H₈O₂

Question 620

Consider the given hydrocarbon and its labeled bonds.
Which is the shortest bond?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

Answer 620

D. 1

Question 621

Consider the given hydrocarbon and its labeled bonds.
Which of these represents the correct order of increasing bond strength of the labeled bonds?

A. 4<2<3<1
B. 2<4<3<1
C. 1>2>3>4
D. 3>1>4>2

Answer 621

A. 4<2<3<1

Question 622

Consider the given hydrocarbon and its labeled bonds.
The geometry around one of the carbon atoms in this bond is tetrahedral.

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

Answer 622

A. 4

Question 623

Which substance may be treated with bleach (sodium hypochlorite) to render it less hazardous?

(A) Sodium cyanide
(B) Ammonia
(C) Hydrochloric acid
(D) Ozone

Answer 623

(A) Sodium cyanide

Question 624

Which indicator would be most suitable for a titration to determine the concentration of ammonia in a window cleaning solution using aqueous HCI?

(A) Eriochrome Black T
(B) Ferroin
(C) Methyl orange
(D) Phenolphthalein

Answer 624

(C) Methyl orange

Question 625

Ethane, C2H6, and diborane, B2H6, do not adopt analogous molecular structures. Which experimental technique would be least useful in establishing this fact?

(A) Infrared spectroscopy
(B) Mass spectrometry
(C) Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
(D) X-ray crystallography

Answer 625

(B) Mass spectrometry

Question 626

Which best describes the outcome of extracting a dilute solution of benzoic acid in diethyl ether with 5% aqueous NaHCO3?

(A) Benzoic acid is present in the bottom layer.
(B) Benzoate ion is present in the bottom layer.
(C) Benzoic acid is present in the top layer.
(D) Benzoate ion is present in the top layer.

Answer 626

(B) Benzoate ion is present in the bottom layer.

Question 627

Which apparatus would be most suitable for collecting a sample of solid barium sulfate produced through the reaction of aqueous solutions of barium hydroxide and sulfuric acid?

(A) Barometer
(B) Beaker
(C) Büchner funnel
(D) Buret

Answer 627

(C) Büchner funnel

Question 628

A solution is prepared by dissolving 10.00 g of a salt in 90.00 g of water. What additional information is needed to calculate the molarity of this solution?
I. The molar mass of the salt
II. The density of the solution

(A) I alone would allow one to calculate the molarity.
(B) II alone would allow one to calculate the molarity.
(C) I and II together would allow one to calculate the molarity.
(D) The molarity cannot be calculated even if both I and II are known.

Answer 628

(C) I and II together would allow one to calculate the molarity.

Question 629

Which measurement would be least able to distinguish between a sample of elemental bromine prepared using exclusively the 79Br isotope 79Br2) and one prepared using exclusively the 81Br isotope (81Br2)?

(A) Infrared spectroscopy
(B) Liquid density
(C) Mass spectrometry
(D) Vapor density

Answer 629

(A) Infrared spectroscopy

Question 630

Which statement best describes the redox properties of alcohols?

(A) Primary alcohols are oxidized to ketones by acidic dichromate.
(B) Ketones are reduced to primary alcohols by sodium borohydride.
(C) Secondary alcohols are oxidized to ketones by acidic dichromate.
(D) Tertiary alcohols are oxidized to esters by acidic dichromate.

Answer 630

(C) Secondary alcohols are oxidized to ketones by acidic dichromate.