Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Obs and Gynae > QM+ Questions > Flashcards

QM+ Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for VTE?

a.
Admission to hospital

b.
Hyperemesis gravidarum

c.
Oligohydramnios

d.
Prolonged labour

A

c.

Oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the endocervix?

a.
Stratified squamous

b.
Cuboidal

c.
Transitional cell

d.
Columnar

A

d.

Columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is a woman considered to be post-menopausal?

a.
When she reaches age 50

b.
After 12 consecutive months of no menstruation

c.
After 3 months of no menstruation

d.
When she begins to experience hot flushes

A

b.

After 12 consecutive months of no menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the correct definition of a secondary post-partum haemorrhage?

a.
Bleeding from 24 hours after delivery to 6 weeks post-partum

b.
Bleeding from 24 hours after delivery to 12 weeks post-partum

c.
Bleeding within 24 hours of delivery

d.
Bleeding during delivery

A

a.

Bleeding from 24 hours after delivery to 6 weeks post-partum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Uterine fibroids are a benign tumour of which tissue?

a.
Smooth muscle

b.
Endometrium

c.
Serosa

d.
Broad ligament

A

a.

Smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of a cervical polyp?

a.
Abnormal vaginal bleeding

b.
Dysmenorrhoea

c.
Abdominal distension

d.
Offensive vaginal discharge

A

a.

Abnormal vaginal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following fetal characteristics is usually determined via vaginal examination?

a.
Amniotic fluid index

b.
Lie

c.
Position

d.
Presentation

A

c.

Position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following surgical procedures is used to treat heavy menstrual bleeding?

a.
Myomectomy

b.
Uterine artery embolization

c.
Endometrial ablation

d.
Oopherectomy

A

c.

Endometrial ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recognised symptom of uterine fibroids?

a.
Cyclical pelvic pain

b.
Subfertility

c.
Heavy menstrual bleeding

d.
Urinary frequency

A

a.

Cyclical pelvic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor of HRT?

a.
Bowel cancer

b.
Stroke

c.
Osteoporosis

d.
Coronary heart disease

A

b.

Stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

By which age should women have attended for their first cervical smear?

a.
25

b.
24.5

c.
24

d.
27

A

a. 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

a.
Pre-existing kidney disease

b.
Previous pregnancy

c.
Twin pregnancy

d.
Last pregnancy 12 years ago

A

b.

Previous pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the definitive treatment of adenomyosis?

a.
Uterine artery embolization

b.
Endometrial ablation

c.
Brachytherapy

d.
Hysterectomy

A

d.

Hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A patient presents with mild vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is closed, and a viable pregnancy is observed on ultrasound. What type of miscarriage is this?

a.
Incomplete

b.
Threatened

c.
Inevitable

d.
Missed

A

b.

Threatened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first line medication in an eclamptic fit?

a.
IV labetalol

b.
Magnesium sulphate

c.
PR diazepam

d.
IV Lorazepam

A

b.

Magnesium sulphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the most common cause of shoulder dystocia, what does the anterior fetal shoulder become impacted against?

a.
Sacral promontory

b.
Pubic tubercle

c.
Pubic symphysis

d.
Ischial spines

A

c.

Pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What manoeuvre will resolve 90% of cases of shoulder dystocia?

a.
McRoberts

b.
Lovesettes

c.
Burns-Marshall

d.
Maurice Smelllie -Veit

A

a.

McRoberts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a serious complication of breech presentation?

a.
Cord prolapse

b.
Amniotic air embolism

c.
Post-partum haemorrhage

d.
Uterine rupture

A

a.

Cord prolapse

19
Q

How is post-partum haemorrhage defined?

a.
Loss of >1L bloods within 24 hours of delivery

b.
Loss of >500ml blood within 12 hours of delivery

c.
Loss of >500ml blood within 24 hours of delivery

d.
Loss of >1L blood within 12 hours of delivery

A

c.

Loss of >500ml blood within 24 hours of delivery

20
Q

Which of the following presentations is an absolute indication for Caesarean section?

a.
Breech

b.
Brow

c.
Cephalic

d.
Mento-anterior

A

b.

Brow

21
Q

What is the causative organism in Group B streptococcal infection?

a.
Stroptococcus pyogenes

b.
Streptococcus viridans

c.
Streptococcus agalactiae

d.
Pneumococcus

A

c.

Streptococcus agalactiae

22
Q

Which medication is typically administered intra-operatively to aid delivery of the placenta?

a.
Bupivicaine

b.
Oxytocin

c.
LMWH

d.
Prostaglandins

A

b.

Oxytocin

23
Q

What is the most common position of the fetal head?

a.
Occipito-anterior

b.
Occipito-oblique

c.
Occipito-transverse

d.
Occipitor-posterior

A

a.

Occipito-anterior

24
Q

Which type of breech presentation is where both legs are flexed at the hips and knees?

a.
Frank breech

b.
Extended breech

c.
Complete breech

d.
Footling breech

A

c.

Complete breech

25
Q

What is the most common cause of a significant APH?

a.
Spontaneous rupture of membranes

b.
Cervical ectropion

c.
Vasa praevia

d.
Placenta praevia

A

d.

Placenta praevia

26
Q

What can be used to reduce the risk of miscarriage in women with cervical weakness?

a.
Cervical cerclage

b.
Cervical ablation

c.
Lletz procedure

d.
Heparin therapy

A

a.

Cervical cerclage

27
Q

What is administered to prevent Rhesus maternal isoimmunisation?

a.
Immunosuppressant steroid therapy

b.
Packed red cells

c.
Anti-D immunoglobulin

d.
RhD antigens

A

c.

Anti-D immunoglobulin

28
Q

What condition should be ruled out when polyhydramnios is diagnosed?

a.
Obstetric cholestasis

b.
Gestational diabetes

c.
Pre-eclampsia

d.
Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

b.

Gestational diabetes

29
Q

Which of the following is an ABSOLUTE contraindication for induction of labour?

a.
Placenta praevia

b.
Triplet or higher order pregnancy

c.
Breech presentation

d.
Previous Caesarean section

A

a.

Placenta praevia

30
Q

What is the standard initial treatment for iron deficiency anaemia in pregnancy?

a.
Blood transfusion

b.
Oral folate supplementation

c.
Ferinject (IV iron)

d.
Oral iron supplementation

A

d.

Oral iron supplementation

31
Q

Which of the following is a direct complication of oligohydramnios (reduced liquor fluid volume)

a.
Malpresentation

b.
Chorioamnionitis

c.
Fetal limb contractures

d.
Post-partum haemorrhage

A

c.

Fetal limb contractures

32
Q

what is the leading cause of death during pregnancy/ in 1st year postnatal

A
  1. Heart disease
  2. VTE
  3. Maternal suicide - but the leading cause of death over the first year after pregnancy.
33
Q

A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with secondary amenorrhoea for 8 months. This was preceded by irregular periods for one year.

A blood test shows

Serum FSH – 90 IU/l

Serum LH – 42 IU/l

Serum estrogen < 37pmol/l

Serum progesterone < 1nmol/l

Beta HCG <1

These bloods are indicative of

a.
Premature ovarian failure

b.
Hypopitutarism

c.
Menopause

d.
Hypothalamic amenorrhoea

e.
Polycystic ovary syndrome

A

a.

Premature ovarian failure

34
Q

A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of primary subfertility and irregular periods. A baseline transvaginal ultrasound scan (8mHz frequency) of the ovaries shows polycystic ovarian morphology. How many follicles does at least one ovary need to have to classify as polycystic in appearance?

a.
24

b.
40

c.
20

d.
12

A

20

35
Q

A couple presents with a 2-year history of primary subfertility. A baseline semen analysis shows a count of 8 million /ml. What is the minimum sperm density to be classed as normal?

a.
22 million/ml

b.
3 million/ml

c.
44 million/ml

d.
15 million/ml

A

d.

15 million/ml

36
Q

A 22-year-old woman presents with 8 months of secondary amenorrhoea. The hormonal profile is as below.

Serum FSH – 1.0 IU/l

Serum LH – 0.7 IU/l

Serum estrogen < 37pmol/l

Serum progesterone < 1nmol/l

Beta HCG <1

Based on this what may your diagnosis be

a.
Hypothalamic amenorrhoea

b.
Polycystic ovary syndrome

c.
Premature ovarian failure

d.
Menopause

A

a.

Hypothalamic amenorrhoea

37
Q

What is the most important determinant of female reproductive function and hence fertility?

a.
Age

b.
Genetic make-up

c.
Environmental influences

d.
Prenatal smoking exposure

e.
Body mass index

A

Age is responsible for 80% of the variation in ovarian reserve

38
Q

What would be the next steps in the management of a couple with an suboptimal semen analysis (x 2) – can be more than one answer

a.
Referral for assisted reproduction treatments

b.
Antioxidant supplements

c.
Lifestyle advice

d. all three

A

d. all 3

39
Q

What is the minimal interval after implementing lifestyle and other changes at which a repeat semen analysis may be requested?

a.
3 months

b.
1 week

c.
15 days

d.
6 months

A

a. 3 months

The semen cycle is 90 days and hence 3 months is the minimum interval

40
Q

What is the recommended treatment for hydrosalpinges in a woman proceeding for IVF treatment?

a.
Removal/clipping of hydrosalpinges

b.
No treatment

A

Removal leads to significant improvement in the success rates for IVF treatment

41
Q

What is the first line treatment for anovulatory infertility due to PCOS in a woman with a normal BMI?

a.
IVF

b.
Clomiphene/letrozole

c.
FSH

d.
Metformin

A

b.

Clomiphene/letrozole

42
Q

What is the gold standard test for assessing fallopian tube patency?

a.
HyCoSy

b.
Ultrasound scan

c.
MRI

d.
Laparoscopy and dye test

e.
Hysterosalpingography

A

d.

Laparoscopy and dye test

43
Q

What is the gold standard test for diagnosis of endometriosis?

a.
Ultrasound scan

b.
MRI

c.
Hysterosalpingography

d.
Laparoscopy

e.
HyCoSy

A

d.

Laparoscopy

44
Q

Antimullerian hormone (AMH) is a test that tells us

a.
The chance of success after IVF

b.
The chance of spontaneous conception

c.
The quantitative ovarian reserve

d.
The qualitative ovarian reserve

A

AMH is an indicator ONLY of the quantitative ovarian reserve and should not be used in the context of the other 3 option EVER

Obs and Gynae (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions