QC Type Shit Flashcards

1
Q

Who has final responsibility for the treatment and welfare of suspects in custody?

A

Flight Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Military and Civilian personnel will be released to whom?

A

Military personnel will be released to their Commander, First Sergeant, or an appointed E-7 or above
who is at least one grade higher than the detained individual. Civilian personnel will be released to their sponsor, Polizei, or their own recognizance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

attempting to interview a juvenile and no contact has been made with the sponsor or guardian, who will be contacted to respond?

A

The sponsors First Sergeant or Commander.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If during an apprehension the subject is injured, where will the injuries be annotated?

A

In the report of incident, blotter entry, and DD Form 2708

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long can individuals be held in a holding cell?

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If during an apprehension the subject is injured, where will the injuries be annotated?

A

In the report of incident, blotter entry, and DD Form 2708

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At the discretion of the Flight Commander/Flight Chiefs or senior patrolman, holding cells may be used for what circumstances?

A

Personnel who are drunk, disorderly, an escape risk, or a threat to themselves or others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who can authorize the use of a holding cell to be extended past eight hours after consultation with SJA?

A

The DFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When will searches of individuals be conducted?

A

Prior to transport (upon apprehension), prior to being placed in a holding cell, or changing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When using force, a verbal warning must be issued if the circumstance permits. What is the command that will be issued in English and in German?

A

“Police! Halt, or I’ll shoot” / “Polezei! Halt, oder ich schiesse!”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Are DoD personnel allowed to fire warning shots?

A

No, only Polizei are authorized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Security Forces will only use the degree of force necessary as outlined in what AFI?

A

AFI 31-117

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What will patrols do in replacement of high speed pursuit driving?

A

Radio ahead to utilize choke points and close installation gates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All posted personnel will report their post to whom?

A

COMUSAFE-AFAFRICA, USAFE-AFAFRICA/CCC, 3AF/CC, 3AF/CCC, 86 AW/CC, 86 AW/CCC, 86
MSG/CC, 86 MSF/CCM, 86 SFS/CC, 86 SFS/SFM, 86 SFS/S3O, 86 SFS/S3, Distinguished Visitors, Higher Headquarters Inspectors, Commissioned Officers in the chain of command, Senior Non-Commissioned officers assigned to 86 SFS, and Flight Sergeant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Personnel requesting copies of blotters, reports, or statements will be directed to the 86 SFS Reports and Analysis section within how many duty days after the incident?

A

5-7 duty days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the Security Forces General Orders?

A

General Order #1: I will take charge of my post and protect personnel and property for which I am
responsible, until properly relieved. General Order #2: I will report all violations of orders I am entrusted to enforce and will call my superior in any case not covered by instructions. General Order #3: I will sound the alarm in case of disorder or emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many vehicles will be backed up in a lane before the IEC has to open another lane?

A

Seven (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If registered on IACS/DBIDS, who is authorized to sign personnel on to the instillation and up to how many personnel are they allowed to sign on?

A

US Armed Forces Active Duty, US Military Retired, Reserve, or National Guard, US DoD Civilian Employee and DoD contractors with logistical support, Dependent ID card holder (18 years of age and older), Installation Pass holder if annotated on the IP, authorized for Official Business only unless otherwise annotated on back of IP, and Blue Striped CAC holder if sign-in privileges have been granted in IACS/DBIDS can sign on up to four personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Children under what age do not require approved identification credential when they are accompanied/escorted by adult sponsor that are authorized unescorted entry and sign in privileges?

A

16 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the permanent PL 1, 2, and 3 resources assigned to Ramstein AB?

A

PL-1: 86 AW Command Post, Operations Support Center (OSC), Defense Satellite Communications
System (SATCOM), PL-2: EURO-2, and PL-3: Ramps 1, 2, 4, and 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Identify the following restricted area as temporary or permanent and what protection level recourse it is.

A

603rd AOC when activated (Temporary PL-2), Special Assignment Airlift Mission (SAAM)/Primary
Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) aircraft (Temporary PL-1), Ramp 4 (Permanent PL-3), National Airborne Operations Center (NAOC) Aircraft on Ramp 5 (Temporary PL-1), and EURO-2 (Permanent PL-2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many supporting techniques are there for the single badge system and what are they?

A

Four. Signature and Credential Check, The Master Restricted Area Badge Listing (MRABL),
Telephone or radio verification, and Personal Recognition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With personal recognition being a supporting technique for the single badge system, what defines personal recognition?

A

The 86 SFS definition of personal recognition is to know an individual well enough to know who they are by name, and where they work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Individuals that are seen utilizing a cell phone while operating a vehicle will be stopped and issued what forms?

A

DD Form 1408 and 7-day Notice of Suspension of Driving Privileges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Amplified noise or music transmitted from a motor vehicle will not exceed a volume that can be heard from more than how far away?

A

10 feet away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What two publications establish Ramstein AB jurisdictional boundaries and limitations on authority?

A

The Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) and the KMC-AF IDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The 86 SFS is responsible for enforcing traffic laws within what jurisdictional boundaries?

A

Within the confines of Ramstein AB and the road from the West Gate to the Construction Training
Squadron (CTS) compound, the road from the East Gate to Mackenbach Road, and Enhanced Large Vehicle Inspection Site (ELVIS) gate to Mackenbach Road to including adjacent facilities; i.e. Defense Commissary Agency (DeCA) cold storage site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the procedures for individuals reporting a lost or stolen US passport?

A

USAF members and dependents of DoD issued US Passports will report the loss to the 86 MSS
Passport office, Bldg 2106, and US Army members and dependents will report to Kleber Kaserne Personnel Servicing Center, Bldg 3208. Personnel not affiliated with the DoD will be instructed to report the loss/theft to the US Embassy in Frankfurt and to local Polizei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All installation gates will be closed for what kinds of alarms?

A

Duress, PL 1, PL 2, or when directed by BDOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What form will be utilized for the collection of evidence?

A

AF Form 52

31
Q

No items of evidence should be touched or moved prior to the arrival of investigative personnel unless what?

A

Unless circumstances require immediate action to protect it.

32
Q

You respond out to a possible assault where you discover a knife that may have been used close to the crime scene. It begins to rain so you decide to place the wet knife in a plastic bag. Did your actions violate the evidence collection procedures? If so, why?

A

Yes because wet metal items should be placed in a paper bag only.

33
Q

While on post, you receive a call from an individual relaying a Bomb Threat. What code will you utilize on the radio to notify BDOC of the situation?

A

Code 14

34
Q

What are the indications that a post or patrol may be under duress?

A

Passing the duress word, misauthentication, activating an alarm/duress button, non-compliance with
established procedures, not answering three consecutive radio transmissions, or not answering ten consecutive telephone rings.

35
Q

If a post or patrol indicates duress, what procedures will be followed?

A

The BDOC controller will NOT announce over the radio that a duress situation exists. Instead, they
will make a net announcement to have posts change frequency by use of the “code 9” followed by the frequency. The post under duress will not change frequencies. Once all patrols have changed frequencies implement a search for the patrol or conduct a security response to determine status of the patrol under duress. When contact is made, separate all personnel and place them at a disadvantage. Once the status has been verified, the patrol may assume normal duties.

36
Q

When will physical security aid inspections be conducted?

A

Daily during hours of daylight by the on duty SF supervisor, and weekly by 86 SFS/S5SA

37
Q

What are patrols looking for when conducting Physical Security Aids Inspections on security fencing?

A

Obvious signs of damage, digging, and holes, the fence fabric comes to within 2 inches of soft
ground and cannot be lifted more than 5 inches above the ground, gates come to within 5 inches of paved surfaces and gaps between gateposts are not greater than 5 inches, restricted area signs are posted every 100 feet, barbed wire outriggers are intact and taut, all gates in the security fence and associated equipment (i.e., locks, hinges, gate stops, etc.) are secure and functional, rope and stanchion boundaries must be checked to ensure the ropes are elevated and signs are properly positioned, when boundaries are painted on the ground, they must be checked to ensure they have not faded or peeled. Ensure restricted area signs stenciled on the ground are legible, compensate for malfunctions of security lighting with temporary lighting, such as light carts, or additional posted sentries.

38
Q

What will you advise a US active duty military personnel is he/she refuses a RIEVC?

A

Advise the individual the check is by the order of the Installation Commander and failure to obey the
order is a violation of Article 92, UCMJ. In addition, advise them that refusal may result in revocation of base driving privileges and base vehicle registration.

39
Q

What will you advise any US non-military personnel or non-active duty military members upon refusal of a RIEVC?

A

advise the operator that refusal to permit the check may result in revocation of base driving privileges and base vehicle registration.

40
Q

If classified material is found during a RIEVC, what form will the SF member request from the driver?

A

DD Form 2501, Courier Authorization or Courier Authorization Letter

41
Q

The on duty SF FC is authorized to terminate RIEVCs for what reasons?

A

Inclement weather, incidents requiring patrol response, or for safety purposes

42
Q

What form will be used to record Random Installation Entry/Exit Vehicle and Pedestrian Checks?

A

86 SFS Form 003, Installation Entry/Exit Point Check Log

43
Q

What is the purpose of a free zone?

A

The intent of a free zone is to provide free movement of personnel, within a defined area, who
would not otherwise be authorized access.

44
Q

What must individuals wanting to take pictures on the flight line have in their possession?

A

Photography Letter

45
Q

If a PL 2 or PL 3 Aircraft cannot be parked in an existing restricted area what will happen?

A

One will be established around the aircraft through the use of ropes and sanctions

46
Q

PL aircraft will be provided security as outlined in what AFI?

A

AFI 31-101

47
Q

The 86 AW/CC has designated what assets assigned or attached to Ramstein AB as assets vital to national security?

A

All PL 1, 2, or 3 assets

48
Q

What information will be announced over the radio upon initiation of a gate runner?

A

Gate Runner 3x, Driver Overtly Displayed Hostile or Unknown Intent, License Plate Number, Vehicle Make, Vehicle Model, Vehicle Color, Direction of Travel, Description of Vehicle Driver, Description and Number
of Vehicle Occupants

49
Q

What code word will IECs utilize to notify BDOC of a possible political asylum at their location?

A

Seven Bridges

50
Q

During a gate runner incident, what will the IEC do if the vehicle stops at or strikes the pop-up barrier?

A

Notify BDOC and responding patrols of the situation and initiate a high-risk traffic stop

51
Q

Functional checks of the vehicle barrier system will be conducted when and by whom?

A

On Saturday of each week by the midnight shift under supervision of the FC

52
Q

What are the procedures if an individual is reporting Lost/Stolen/Recovered USAEUR Plates?

A

An AF Form 1168 will be completed regardless of circumstances. BDOC will complete a blotter entry
and an AE Form 190-AU. If the plates were stolen, a AFJIS incident report must be completed. Contact will be made with Manheim Vehicle Registry and an Alarm Number will be assigned. All paperwork will be forwarded to 86 SFS/S5R.

53
Q

What are the Funds Escort Categories?

A

6.25.1.1. Category A is $9,999.99 and below and requires 1 owner/user on base and 1 owner/user off base. SF is not required to escort this category.
6.25.1.2. Category B is $10,000.00 - $49,999.99 and requires 1 owner/user on base and 2 owners/users off base. SF is not required to escort this category.
6.25.1.3. Category C is $50,000.00 - $74,999.99 and requires 2 owners/users on base and 2 owners/users and 1 armed guard off base.
6.25.1.4. Category D is $75,000.00 and above and requires 2 owners/users and 1 armed guard on base and 2 owners/users and 2 armed guards off base.

54
Q

During a funds escort patrols will conduct status checks with BDOC how often?

A

Every 5 minutes

55
Q

What is the curfew for minors on all KMC installations and what are the exemptions?

A

2300-0600 unless accompanied by a parent, guardian, or responsible adult. Minors leaving
employment, or a legitimate youth function which ends after midnight are allowed no more than 30 minutes to proceed to their homes by the most direct route.

56
Q

What is the Jenks Act and what does it require?

A

The Jenks Act is a federal law dealing with evidence. It requires that all field notes, rough drafts, and
statements made by SF members and any witnesses, victims, or the suspect be saved.

57
Q

Corrections to all paperwork will be completed and returned to 86 SFS/S5R within how long?

A

Within 24 hours if possible, but will not exceed 72 hours

58
Q

What is a Strafantrag and what three options does it provide the complainant/victim?

A

A Strafantrag is used for offenses punishable under German law such as property damage, assault,
trespassing, etc. It provides the complainant the three options: Request for institution of prosecution proceedings (this option requests for the immediate prosecution of the offender), waiver of prosecution proceedings (used when the victim is not interested in pursuing the case), or the reservation of prosecution proceedings (used if the victim is undecided at the time of the incident and allows them 3 months to file a prosecution request).

59
Q

How many patrol sectors are on Ramstein AB and what are they?

A

2.3.1. Sector 1. West of Lincoln Blvd and North of Fairchild Ave. to include Kaiserslautern Military Community Center (KMCC).
2.3.2. Sector 2. East of Lincoln Blvd and North of Fairchild Ave. & Maxwell Ave from Arnold Circle to East Perimeter fence.
2.3.3. Sector 3. South of Fairchild Ave to include Passenger (Bldg 3333), Passenger Terminal parking garage (Bldg 3331) and the 721st Freight Terminal (Bldg 3334).

60
Q

What form will be prepared as soon as possible for a Missing Person/Runaway?

A

AF Form 1361 or AFJIS generated BOLO

61
Q

What form will be used with the complainant during a Missing Person/Runaway and what information should be gathered? Name at least 9.

A

AF Form 3907
6.34.1.1. Full name
6.34.1.2. Physical description including age, height, weight, clothing worn, distinguishing features, i.e. Scars, tattoos
6.34.1.3. Time, date, and location last seen
6.34.1.4. Do they have access to firearms or other weapons?
6.34.1.5. Does the person have access to a vehicle? Note: If so, full description of the vehicle to include: make, model, year, color, body style and license plate number.
6.34.1.6. Do they have a passport in their possession?
6.34.1.7. Do they have a history of similar incidents/situations?
6.34.1.8. Are they on medications and/or have any current medical problems?
6.34.1.9. Was there any note or letter left behind?
6.34.1.10. Names of friends or known associates and their addresses and phone numbers.
6.34.1.11. Clothing or possessions that may be missing.
6.34.1.12. Frequented places or areas the subject is likely to appear.
6.34.1.13. Do they have any money in their possession, or access to any funds?
6.34.1.14. Current emotional state of mind or any recent negative family situations. Note: Certain family situations may be thought by parents to be too “embarrassing” to tell SF

62
Q

Who will the controller notify to respond upon initiation of a sex offense?

A

Command Post will notify SARC, 86 SFS/S2I, AFOSI, medical personnel, and Alert Photo

63
Q

If during a sex offense there are claims of rape, what must the patrol restrict the victim from doing?

A

Take a shower or change clothes until medical authorities can execute a rape kit, for it can destroy key evidence of the subject’s identity.

64
Q

What information will be obtained from the complainant/victim during a report of damage to government or private property?

A

Complete description and approximate timeframe the damage/vandalism occurred. If a camera is available at the BDOC or SFS armory, take photographs to document the damage/vandalism.

65
Q

What will first responders utilize when responding to a HAZMAT incident?

A

Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)

66
Q

Who will be notified for all suspected child abuse/neglect cases?

A

AFOSI

67
Q

Upon notification of an alleged suicide attempt or suicidal gesture, the controller will obtain what information of the individual?

A

Name, address, phone number, and sponsor information (if applicable)

68
Q

What classifies a Major TA?

A

6.41.1.1. Major Traffic accidents include the following scenarios:
6.41.1.1.1. Any accident with fatalities
6.41.1.1.2. Involving medical Response
6.41.1.1.3. Disabling damage refer to RABI31-218 para, 4.3.3.2.1. to 4.3.3.2.1.1. for further guidance
6.41.1.1.4. Difficult to explain
6.41.1.1.5. Any accident resulting in damage over $10,000.00 to any Government vehicle and/or property
6.41.1.1.6. Any accident resulting in damage over $1,000.00 to any Army government vehicle and/or property
6.41.1.1.7. Any accident resulting in damage over $500.00 to any Navy/Marines government vehicle and/or property
6.41.1.2. Photos are required for all Major Traffic Accidents.

69
Q

What paperwork will be completed for a Minor TA?

A

Blotter entry, AF Form 1168, and 86 SFS Form 004

70
Q

What are the response times to the following locations?

A

SCIF (5 min), Funds (15 min), Open Storage of Classified Material (15 min), etc

71
Q

Where will all SF personnel report to in event of a recall?

A

Bldg 2389, unless instructed otherwise

72
Q

What is the definition of Protection Level Resources 1 & 3?

A

PL 1: AF power projection assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage or
destruction results in unacceptable mission degradation to the strategic capability of the US or catastrophic consequences for the nation. PL 2: AF assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage or destruction results in significant mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US

73
Q

What is the definition of Protection Level Resources 2 & 4?

A

PL 2: AF assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage or destruction results in
significant mission degradation to the war fighting capability of the US.

PL 4: AF operational or MSAs that directly or indirectly support power projection assets and the war fighting mission for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise or destruction would adversely affect mission capability.

74
Q

response times
5 min?
7 min?
10 min?
15 min?

A

5 MIN – SCIF, PL 1&2 ISRT/Duress
7 MIN – PL 3 Alarm/Duress
10 MIN – PL 1&2 ESRT, PL 4, AA&E
15 MIN – Open Storage of Classified Material, Narcotics Storage, Funds, Postal Facilities