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Desk Sergeant > Qc Questions > Flashcards

Qc Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What form is an EAL?

A

AF IMT 4327A

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2
Q

What is a valuable aid in the suppression of crimes and can provide S-2I with investigative leads

A

AF Form 3907-Field interview card

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3
Q

Who generates the RAM schedule?

A

S-3O

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4
Q

What will active duty military members be charged with for shoplifting?

A

Article 121 - Larceny/Wrongful Appropriation

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5
Q

What will civilians be charged with for shoplifting?

A

Title 18 U.S.C. 641 - Public money, property, or records

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6
Q

What is open area 1 on the RAB?

A

87th ABW Command Post

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7
Q

What is open area 2 on the RAB?

A

108th Wing Command Post

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8
Q

What is open area 3 on the RAB?

A

108 Wing aircraft parking area during aircraft generation of OPLAN 8010

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9
Q

What is open area 4 on the RAB?

A

AMC mass parking area/108th Wing KC-135 parking area

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10
Q

What is open area 11 on the RAB?

A

87 ABW/CP Emergency Action Cell

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11
Q

What is open area 12 on the RAB?

A

108th WG/CP Emergency Action Cell

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12
Q

What is the height/weight variance allowed on the RAB?

A

1 inch/10 Pounds, otherwise it must be corrected

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13
Q

What is sign/countersign and distance recognition code (DRC)?

A

A sign/countersign will be used to control/facilitate emergency entry into PL1 or PL2 restricted areas during security contingencies or other emergencies

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14
Q

Who supplies the 87th SFS with NCIC terminals?

A

New Jersey Criminal Justice Information System

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15
Q

Who will be notified with any discrepancies for an NCIC terminal?

A

TAC Officer (S3-O), blotter entry must be completed

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16
Q

What is the information contained in the blotter classified as?

A

For Official Use Only (FOUO)

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17
Q

Who must unofficial photography be coordinated with and what must the person have in their possession?

A

Airfield management and public affairs. Approval letter with the name(s) of the individual(s) and the specific date and locations approved for photography. A copy of the approval letter must be maintained on the individual at all times and a copy must be forwarded to the ECC.

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18
Q

Photography within how many feet is prohibited without written permission?

A

300 feet

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19
Q

When asked to authenticate their security status the patrol will respond with…?

A

The first letter of their last name and a number between 1 and 50

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20
Q

What are the two types of alarms composed on JBMDL?

A

Intrusion and duress

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21
Q

What format should the blotter be prepared on?

A

Microsoft Word

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22
Q

What form is the blotter?

A

AF form 53

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23
Q

Where is the alternate ECC and what PL classification is it assigned?

A

Bldg. 6049 and is classified as a PL4 resource and controlled area

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24
Q

What is the definition of a PL3 resource?

A

An AF power projection asset for which the loss, theft, distraction, misuse, or compromise would damage US war fighting capabilities

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25
Q

What must be strictly adhered to for an IEPC check to be legally sound?

A

The selection criteria

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26
Q

Who completes the SFS Form 18 installation point check log?

A

The senior SF member conducting the check

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27
Q

Who provides the monthly schedule for IEPC’s and authorization to search?

A

Installation commander or designated representative

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28
Q

What is the purpose of an IEPC?

A

To recover lost/stolen government property, to detect and seize contraband, and prevent the introduction of illegal drugs, contraband, and weapons

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29
Q

If a SF patrol is under duress the responding patrols will respond under what code?

A

Code 1

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30
Q

How long can a prisoner be housed in a holding cell?

A

72 hours

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31
Q

Who is the responsible official for the victim witness assistance program?

A

Judge Advocate General

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32
Q

What form is used for initial information for victims and witnesses of a crime?

A

DD Form 2701

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33
Q

What is Code 14?

A

Duress on SF post, patrol, or facility

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34
Q

Where will the original EAL be posted and who gets copies?

A

BDOC maintains the original and the Entry Controller and Area Supervisor get a copy

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35
Q

What color copy of the DD Form 1408 (Armed Forces Traffic Ticket) does the violated receive?

A

The pink copy

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36
Q

All escorted personnel will be signed in on what form?

A

AF Form 1109

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37
Q

Who develops and distributes the sign/countersign listing?

A

S-3O

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38
Q

What form is needed to release a detained person?

A

DD Form 2708 (Receipt for inmate or detained person)

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39
Q

T/F. An AF Form 1176 must be signed prior to initiating a search.

A

False. The commander may give verbal authority to search only after a probable cause briefing to him/her is accomplished and the situation warrants an immediate search. The MSG commander must sing the AF Form 1176 as soon as possible after oral authorization

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40
Q

What is the DD Form 2701?

A

The VWAP (Victim/Witness assistance program)

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41
Q

What form is used to annotate an alarm malfunction?

A

AF Form 3136 (Alarm Maintenance Record)

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42
Q

Where are alarm tests recorded?

A

AF Form 3126 (Alarm Test Log)

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43
Q

Military members will be advised of their rights IAW with…?

A

Article 31 of the UCMJ

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44
Q

Civilians will be advised of their rights IAW with…?

A

5th Amendment of the US constitution

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45
Q

Who regulates wire and radio communications?

A

FCC (Federal Communications Center)

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46
Q

Entries into the NCIC System will be logged and assigned a case number. How should the case number be written?

A

The case number needs to be the actual SFMIS case number for reference or the year/month/date/blotter entry

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47
Q

What are the duress words?

A

Ask the flight chief

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48
Q

Who accomplishes the AF Form 1361 (Pickup/Restriction Order) and where is the original kept?

A

The ECC controller completes the form and maintains the original at the ECC

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49
Q

Where does the duress for the ECC annunciate?

A

CP-8 (McGuire Gate)

50
Q

How many ECP checks will be conducted by flight line patrols and for how long?

A

4 per shift for at least 15 minutes

51
Q

How many exercises will the flight commander/flight leadership conduct per shift?

A

One

52
Q

What are the procedures for an alarm that has malfunctioned or has become inoperative?

A

Notify S-5E, annotate on AF Form 3136 to refer to the blotter entry. The entry will contain the name of the individual contacted at the owner/user agency, the action taken to correct the discrepancy, and the work order number

53
Q

If there is an alarm malfunction reported to the ECC after an alarm activation what actions will be taken?

A

Notify S-5E, ensure the owner/user alarm custodian initiates a work order, and make a blotter entry containing required information. Also annotate discrepancy, work order number, and owner/user information on the AF Form 3136

54
Q

What form are alarm tests annotated on and how long is it kept on file for?

A

AF Form 3126. The test log will be filed by S-5E for a period of one year

55
Q

What are the duress indicators?

A

Alarm activation without prior notification (active), an individual fails to execute authentication procedures correctly (active), an individual not listed on the authorization list attempts to open/close the facility (active), the facility passes the duress word via telephone or radio (active), and failure to answer the telephone within seven rings (passive)

56
Q

What is the role of BDOC during a domestic response?

A

Obtain as much information from the caller - who, what, where, children/ages, weapons, pets, and contact information. Dispatch patrols and relay pertinent information. Contact armory and have them check the AF Form 1314 (Firearms Registry for Weapons) and notify appropriate agencies for referrals

57
Q

What must be checked when dispatching to housing?

A

AF Form 1314 (Firearms Registration log)

58
Q

Who needs to be notified in a situation involving children?

A

DYFS (Division of Youth and Family Services)

59
Q

All news media photographing on JBMDL need to be escorted by whom?

A

Public Affairs

60
Q

Who has the authority to establish temporary restricted areas?

A

Installation Commander

61
Q

During 8010 Operations, who must be notified prior to the generation area purge?

A

ECC will advise the 108th WG/MOC prior to beginning the purge to inform all non-essential personnel to exit the area prior to expedite the purge

62
Q

Who will authenticate the AF Form IMT 4327A?

A

E-6/GS-7 or above

63
Q

Who will get copies of the AF Form IMT 4327A?

A

The generation area ECP, ISRT’s, and the generation area supervisor. A copy of the AF IMT 4327A (Original Signature) will be maintained at BDOC. The 4327A used for entry into PL-2 restricted areas must have the original authorization signatures

64
Q

When is the DRC used and how is it employed?

A

Used during emergencies to expedite entry into the restricted areas. Passed using the back side of one hand close to the body. Recipient will pass the remainder either visually through the windshield or through an open window

65
Q

The EAL will be signed by what 2 agencies and authenticated by who?

A

Signed by 108th/Wing CP and the aircraft commander. Authenticated by SF E-6/GS-7 or above

66
Q

How long does an EAL last before it expires?

A

90 days

67
Q

No more than how many personnel are allowed in BDOC?

A

8 not to include IG/EET

68
Q

Who devises/distributes the duress words and how often?

A

S-5/semiannually

69
Q

Who do you notify if/when duress words are compromised?

A

If the primary duress word is compromised the on-duty SF ECC controller will immediately implement the alternate. BDOC will ensure the Wing Command Post and Maintenance Operations Control are notified of the new duress word

70
Q

Who is responsible for malfunctioning alarms?

A

Owner/user

71
Q

Where is secret material kept for transient personnel?

A

87th ABW/CP

72
Q

What must personnel hand carrying sensitive material have in their possession?

A

Written approval from the Commander and Security Manager of the unit

73
Q

Who initiates work orders on malfunctioning alarms?

A

Owner/user

74
Q

How often are alarms tested?

A

Quarterly

75
Q

A copy of the blotter should be kept on the blotter board for how long?

A

60 days

76
Q

Information received from an NCIC terminal is considered…?

A

Law Enforcement Sensitive

77
Q

During political asylum (Seven Bridges) what must not be given over the radio?

A

Persons name, function, and nationality

78
Q

During Seven Bridges SF are responsible for the individuals well-being until who arrives?

A

AFOSI

79
Q

What SFST requires a certification from the state of New Jersey?

A

HGN (Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus)

80
Q

Are Miranda rights required prior to administering SFSTs?

A

No

81
Q

At Lakehurst, in the event of a Safe Haven, where will the munitions/driver be secured?

A

Lakehurst ammo bunker compound

82
Q

In the event of a Safe Haven where will the munitions/driver be secured?

A

Lakehurst ammo bunker compound, ASP, MSA, or as a last resort the HCLA

83
Q

T/F. All vehicles are subject to be towed if the operator does not have valid insurance or registration.

A

True

84
Q

Are random inspections/checks (IEPC) based on probable cause?

A

No. It’s based on the Installation Commanders authority

85
Q

What form is needed to be checked for AWOL/Deserters?

A

DD Form 553 (Deserter/Absentee Wanted by the Armed Forces)

86
Q

What are you looking for during an IEPC?

A

CDS (Controlled Deadly Substance), contraband, and unauthorized items

87
Q

Permission to search will be obtained on what form?

A

AF Form 1364 (Consent for Search or Seizure)

88
Q

Who must you contact on the AF Form 1176 (Authority to Search and Seize) once the SJA concurs that probable cause exists?

A

MSG Commander

89
Q

What is Proprietary Jurisdiction?

A

The US Government acts as the property owners. SF are limited to offenses involving military members only and have the ability to detain civilian personnel until state/local police agencies arrive

90
Q

What are the 3 types of voice/teletype communications that are involved in the Indicator and Incident reporting System?

A

Covered Wagons, FPCAM (Force Protection Condition Alerting Message), and the installation Eagle Eyes program

91
Q

What is a Covered Wagon?

A

A report to inform HHQ (Higher Headquarters) that an unusual incident affecting PL1, 2, or 3 resources that is probably or actually hostile occurred at an installation or dispersed site

92
Q

Who signs/issues an Order to Leave?

A

Flight Leadership

93
Q

What code will SF Patrols utilize to respond a facility duress situation?

A

Code 2

94
Q

What will blotter entry reflect for Selective Enforcement?

A

Locations of Selective, Rank/Name of patrolman, RADAR/LIDAR unit number, and the total number/type of citations issued

95
Q

When is pursuit warranted?

A

Only in response to serious offenses or hostile acts such as those in which deadly force is authorized

96
Q

What information will the patrolman relay to the ECC when making a traffic stop?

A

Location, reason, vehicle plate number and state, vehicle description, and number of occupants

97
Q

What will the ECC accomplish for all traffic stops?

A

A registration and driver inquiry

98
Q

What constitutes a major vehicle accident?

A

Fatality, incapacitating/non-incapacitating injury, and disabling or functional damage to a vehicle

99
Q

What is the definition of a PL-1 resource?

A

USAF resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would result in great harm to the strategic capability of the US

100
Q

What is the definition of a PL-2 resource?

A

USAF resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war fighting capability of the US

101
Q

What is the definition of a PL-4 resource?

A

USAF resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would adversely affect the operational capability of the US

102
Q

Code 14

A

Duress on SF Post/Patrol

103
Q

Code 14A

A

Duress on Armory

104
Q

Code 14C

A

Duress on Alternate ECC (Bldg. 6049)

105
Q

Code 14L

A

Duress on the Law Enforcement Desk

106
Q

Code 14W

A

Duress on Wing Command Post

107
Q

Code 15

A

Bomb Threat

108
Q

Code 15A

A

Bomb Threat Alerted by MWD

109
Q

Code 15B

A

Suspicious Package

110
Q

Code 15C

A

Positive ID by EOD

111
Q

Code 15D

A

Detonation of Device

112
Q

When will barrier tests be conducted?

A

Between 2200-0400

113
Q

Who has authority over aircraft during anti-hijacking procedures?

A

FAA when aircraft is in-flight. FBI while aircraft is in the ground

114
Q

Will hijacked aircraft with nuclear resources or critical components be able to take off?

A

Hell no

115
Q

What areas will SF block off during an aircraft hijacking?

A

Runways, taxiways, and parking areas

116
Q

Once aircraft are “cocked on” they become what PL resource?

A

PL-2

117
Q

When are funds escorts required?

A

When the amount is $25,000 or above excluding checks marked for “deposits only”

118
Q

What will the ECC obtain from a caller for a funds escort ranging from $7,500-$25,000?

A

Vehicle info, time and place of departure, route of travel and destination, and estimated time of arrival. The caller must contact SF upon arrival to destination and give their status

119
Q

How long is a handwritten AF Form 75 (Visitors Pass) be written for?

A

24 Hours

120
Q

Who has been designated by the Installation Commander as the sole authority for suspension, revocation, and early retirement of base driving privileges?

A

MSG Commander

Desk Sergeant (1 decks)

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