qc Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the crime stop phone located?

A

ECC.

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2
Q

Who is allowed into the BOMARC?

A

CE and contracted clean up crews.

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3
Q

For PL 2 aircraft how far away/apart will restricted area signs be?

A

No more than 100 ft.

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4
Q

How do you establish an RA around a Trans PL2 aircraft?

A

Ropes, stanchions, a minimum of four RA signs, ECP sign and the area can be no closer than 10 ft, no further than 60 ft from aircraft.

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5
Q

What are BDOC procedures when notified by Command post that a phoenix banner aircraft is placed in alpha status?

A

A blotter entry, 30-minute ISRT checks, dispatch patrols to witness breaking of the seal when notified, notify patrols when aircraft is no longer in alpha status.

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6
Q

What is the purpose of the ECC?

A

ECC provides centralized communications for SF flights performing normal and contingency operations combining the ECC function and Emergency services dispatch to prevent duplication of effort.

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7
Q

In the event the ECC must relocate but circumstances don’t allow relocation to Bldg. 6049, what will happen?

A

On duty flight leadership will assumes responsibility until ABDOC is activated and operational.

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8
Q

Any visitors to the ECC w/out unescorted access will be processed how?

A

They will be identified with their CAC, reason for entry will be clarified and they will be signed in on an AF form 1109 (visitors log).

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9
Q

If a vehicle crash meets Major Accident criteria, who will you dispatch to the scene if available?

A

Certified traffic accident investigator.

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10
Q

What is the storage location for receiving SECRET material after hours? TOP SECRET?

A

Arfield ops and command post.

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11
Q

Information received via the NCIC terminals is considered what?

A

LE Sensitive.

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12
Q

When can you use another NCIC operator’s login information?

A

Never.

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13
Q

Personnel from organizations outside of the 87 SFS that requests information from NCIC must be cleared and approved through who?

A

Terminal Agency Coordinator (TAC) or the investigations leadership

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14
Q

Exercises, at any level, will not be conducted during what?

A

HHQ inspections, PNAF Ops, OPLAN 8010 or contingency ops.

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15
Q

All exercises must be prefaced with what?

A

An exercise safety brief.

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16
Q

All exercies will be annotated where?

A

Blotter

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17
Q

How often must ABDOC exercise be conducted and where is it annotated?

A

Quarterly and the blotter.

18
Q

Give two examples of passive duress at a SF Facility?

A

Failure to acknowledge, unusual deviation.

19
Q

What are two examples of active duress?

A

mis authenticating, duress words, duress button.

20
Q

What are your actions upon notification of duress on a SF facility?

A

Code 9/2, advise patrols, dispatch patrols, establish 360, notifications

21
Q

What are your actions upon notifications of duress on a SF patrols?

A

Code 9/2, advise patrols, ask last known location, dispatch patrols.

22
Q

T/F when directing patrols to sweep for a SF patrol under duress, use the words “look for” instead of “conduct a sweep”?

23
Q

T/F when custody of the individual is transferred, the individual will take all personal property including weapons/contraband?

24
Q

If an officer of any service is returned to military control, who will be notified immedietly for disposition instructions?

A

Defense Force CC, SFS CC or Ops Officer

25
If a person is not assigned to JB MDL, who is designated OPR for processing/ determining disposition of all Air Force absentee personal?
87 FSS/CC
26
What form will be accomplished for all personnel reported as being AWOL/Deserter?
Pick up and Restriction form, AF Form 1361
27
who is responsible for the health and welfare of an individual once placed into a cell?
ECC or Flight Chief
27
T/F 87 SFS is authorized to confine military and civilian offenders in the cells for up to 8 hours?
True.
27
Who, after consultation w/ SJA, can extend the 8 hour confinement limit to 24 hrs?
Defense Force Commander
28
How often must you check on an individual in the cell and where are your checks annotated?
Hourly but if the person is unstable/mentally ill, every 15 minutes. Annotated on AF Form 509.
29
Who can administer prescribed medication to detainees
87 MDG and trained SFS members.
30
T/F for minor vehicle traffic violations, SF will process juveniles the same as adult offenders?
True.
31
Can you conduct a search for a juvenile without their sponsor present if you have an additional SF member present?
Yes
32
Can you collect DNA from juveniles for CODIS submission?
No.
33
While on the phone with someone reporting a domestic, the controller is responsible for obtaining as much information as possible from the caller?
Remain on the line, listen for changes, if the call drops immediately call back.
33
Who can you release military personnel to?
First sgt, commander, or designated reg who is an E-7 or higher if they are unavailable.
34
What should you always check while patrols are responding to a location in housing?
AF Form 1314 firearms registration.
35
Which open area on the RAB grants unescorted entry into a generation area?
3
35
Who must you contact immediately when receiving a report of suspected child abuse?
OSI
36
Who can authenticate an EAL?
SF E-6, GS7 or above, and 108 WG CC or command post.
37
Where will the original generation area EAL be posted? copies?
ECC, copies will be at the AS EC
38
what is the AF IMT 4327A
Crew Orders