QC

Question 1

1. Define concurrent jurisdiction

Answer 1

Both the federal and state government retain all their legislative authority. If there is a potential conflict of jurisdiction, the federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause listed in Article VI of the United States Constitution. Security Forces should consult their Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) office for additional guidance.

Question 2

2. Whenever you have doubts concerning rights advisement (Miranda Rights/Article 31 Rights), who or what office should you consult?

Answer 2

Contact Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) for further guidance.

Question 3

3. Who will you release military offenders to?

Answer 3

Supervisor, First Sergeant, Commander, or Designated E07 or above.

Question 4

4. What actions are prohibited when operating radios and what regulation prohibits those actions?

Answer 4

Use of profane or obscene language in radio transmissions. Use of false or deceptive signals or communications. Federal Communication Commission prohibits these actions.

Question 5

5. What form will the Desk Sergeant utilize when a bomb threat is called in over a landline?

Answer 5

AF Form 440, Bomb Threat Aid

Question 6

7. What are two types of duress? Give an example.

Answer 6

Active Duress: Duress word passed or failed authentication
Passive Duress: No response via radio

Question 7

8. What is search incident to apprehension? When does it have to be conducted and who is contacted if there are questions prior to conducting the search?

Answer 7

A U.S. legal principle that allows law enforcement to perform a warrantless search of an arrested person. The search includes the immediate area over which the apprehended person had control. The search must be conducted immediately after securing the suspect. If any questions arise, contact Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).

Question 8

9. Define proprietary jurisdiction

Answer 8

The military exercises the rights of a property owner only. The only federal laws that apply are those that do not rely upon federal jurisdiction. Examples: espionage, bank robbery, tax fraud, counterfeiting

Question 9

10. What is Article 92 of the UCMJ?

Answer 9

Failure to Obey an Order or Regulation

Question 10

11. What gives Security Forces the authority to apprehend individuals?

Answer 10

The Manual for Courts Martial (MCM) Rule 302(b)(1) and Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) Article 7(b).

Question 11

12. What is an AFVA 31-231?

Answer 11

Air Force Visual Aid 31-231, used for Rights Advisement, use for verbal advisement.

Question 12

What is a Spontaneous Utterance?

Answer 12

Occurs when an individual you have made contact with, voluntarily makes an incriminating statement.

Question 13

6. What are the general communications standards when using radios?

Answer 13

Use clear, audible verbiage and pro-words when making radio transmissions. During exercises, begin and end all radio transmissions with “EXERCISE”.

Question 14

14. What is Article 31 of the UCMJ?

Answer 14

Prior to asking questions related to the offense under investigation, advise the suspect of their right against self-incrimination in accordance with the Uniform code of Military Justice, Article 31. For active military personnel.

Question 15

15. What actions need to be taken if during an investigation it is discovered that an incriminating statement was made without proper rights advisement?

Answer 15

A cleansing statement needs to be accomplished.

Question 16

16. What type of legislative jurisdiction apply to military installations and facilities?

Answer 16

Exclusive, Concurrent, Proprietary, and Partial.

Question 17

17. Define exclusive jurisdiction.

Answer 17

The federal governments sole authority to legislative jurisdiction for offenses occurring on federal lands.

Question 18

18. Define partial jurisdiction.

Answer 18

Both the federal and state governments have some authority, but neither has exclusive power.

Question 19

19. How will you instruct Security Forces personnel to evacuate personnel from the effected cordon perimeter of a Major Accident/Incident?

Answer 19

Evacuate personnel upwind or crosswind of the affected area/facility and perimeter.

Question 20

20. Who is initially dispatched to a suspicious package incident and what are they determining?

Answer 20

A senior patrolman (other than MWD handlers) or the Flight Chief/Sergeant to visually inspect the object. The person dispatched will determine if the package is suspicious or non-suspicious.

Question 21

21. During a Major Incident, how is the location of the initial ECP determined?

Answer 21

Initially located upwind or crosswind. If upwind is not available, on the perimeter of the cordon, within a 90 degree arc on either side of the current surface wind.

Question 22

22. When a package is determined/confirmed to be suspicious what Quick Reaction Checklist (QRC) will be initiated?

Answer 22

Bomb Threat Procedure QRC

Question 23

23. What is the California Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (CLETS) information considered and who are the only people provided information?

Question 24

24. What information does the California Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (CLETS) provide to the Desk Sergeant and Security Forces members?

Answer 24

California Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (CLETS) provides up-to-date information on officer safety alerts, wants and warrants, restraining orders, weapon and vehicle registration information as well as missing person reports.

Question 25

25. When will the oncoming Flight Chief/Sergeant report for duty and what will they accomplish before relieving off going?

Answer 25

Report for duty 30 minutes prior to guard mount to review blotters from previous 24 hours and receive a briefing from off going Flight Chief/Sergeant.

Question 26

26. List three of the Flight Chief/Sergeants job description/responsibilities?

Answer 26

Responsible for the overall operations of their assigned flight. Conduct guard mount, ensure all personnel are fit to perform their official duties and have not consumed intoxicating substances within eight hours prior to duty and while on duty. Individuals must be mentally and physically capable of performing their assigned duties. Possess required equipment and conduct an open ranks inspection at least once per cycle. Disseminate pass on from previous shift. Current FPCON, duress words, weapons, vehicle, and safety briefings. Random Installation Entry/Exit Vehicle Checks (RIEVC), selective Crime Suppression Movement (CSM) and Random Anti-Terrorism Measure (RAM) schedule.

Question 27

27. Define critical incident response.

Answer 27

Critical incidents are usually unplanned or unanticipated events and those responding are normally security forces, fire, and medical personnel.

Question 28

28. Explain emergency entry procedures into restricted or controlled areas.

Answer 28

Signed countersigns will be used when him and Entry Control Point (ECP) is notified by Based Defense Operations Center (BDOC) that a known emergency exists in a restricted controlled area. Any agency responding to an emergency will notify Based Defense Operations Center (BDOC) via direct line. Information relayed will include nature and location of the emergency, ranking individuals name, type/number of vehicles a number of personnel responding to the incident. Based Defense Operations Center (BDOC) notifies the appropriate Security Forces members of the situation and instructs them to keep responding units under surveillance and/or assist as warranted by the situation.

Question 29

29. What actions will be taken when an individual commits offences against Protection Level (PL) 1, 2, or 3 resources?

Answer 29

Apprehend, handcuff, and remove the suspect from the immediate vicinity of the resource/restricted area, conduct a search of the individual, and attempted to identify the suspect and confirmed the right in need to be in the area. With assistance of owner/user personnel, search the resource and immediate area for weapons or explosives and other unauthorized personnel. The situation is not terminated until they purge of the area is made and a shirt to preserve any evidence found.

Question 30

30. 412th Security Forces Squadron (SFS) Desk Sergeants utilize what communication system/sources to obtain or manage information critical to fulfilling the mission of law enforcement, public safety, and affiliate agencies?

Answer 30

California Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (CLETS) and OpenFox.

Question 31

32. What is the definition of a Protection Level (PL) 1 resource?

Answer 31

Assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage or destruction result in unacceptable mission degradation to the strategic capability of the U.S. or catastrophic consequences for the nation.

Question 32

33. List two examples of a Protection Level (PL) 1 resource.

Answer 32

Nuclear weapons and/ or critical components, command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems Critical to the success of active nuclear missions, designated critical space and launch resources, or aircraft designated to transport the President of the United States (POTUS) and Senior Executive (SENEX) mission aircraft.

Question 33

34. What is the definition of a Protection Level (PL) 2 resource?

Answer 33

Assets for which the loss come of the, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in significant mission degradation to the warfighting capability of the U.S.

Question 34

31. Who must be notified of incidents involving child abuse?

Answer 34

Family Advocacy sponsors First Sergeant and Air Force Office of Special Investigation (AFOSI). Further reporting procedures will be dictated by your local operating instruction (OI).

Question 35

35. List 2 examples of Protection Level (PL) 2 resources.

Answer 35

Non-nuclear alert forces, expensive, few in number, or one of a kind systems, selected critical command, control and communications facilities, systems, or equipment, vital computer facilities, and equipment, or intelligence gathering systems critical to U.S. operational capability.

Question 36

36. The definition of a Protection Level (PL) 3 resource.

Answer 36

assets for which the loss, theft, misuse, compromise, damage, or destruction results in mission degradation to the warfighting capability of the U.S.

Question 37

37. List two examples of Protection Level (PL) 3 resources.

Answer 37

Weapon systems capable of being on alert status, selected command, controlling communication facilities, systems, and equipment, intelligence gathering systems not critical to U.S. operational capability.

Question 38

38. What is the definition of a PL-4 resource?

Answer 38

Assets that directly or indirectly support power projection assets and the war fighting mission which loss, theft, misuse compromise or destruction would adversely affect mission capability.

Question 39

39. List two examples of PL-4 resources?

Answer 39

Facilities storing any number of Category I, II, or Ill sensitive conventional AA&E and those storing 30 or more types of Category IV AA&E resources, Flight line parking ramps (other than those designated as PL-1, 2, or 3 restricted areas) to include mission support, depot maintenance and other Services’ transient aircraft areas. Mission essential communications facilities and computer centers, radar Approach Control (RAPCON) facilities, to include off installation navigational aids and related resources, control towers, power plants, and environmental control systems critical to operational capability. Petroleum, Oils and Lubricants (POL) and Liquid Oxygen (LOX) Storage Areas. Warehouses storing aircraft or weapons systems spare parts. Financial Services Office vault areas and areas normally storing $100,000 or more. Areas where large volumes of classified material are processed. AF pharmacies and medical logistics vaults. Fixed Site Single Channel Anti-Jam Man Portable (SCAMP) Terminals. Areas storing Biological Select Agents and Toxins (BSAT). Any other area containing mission essential resources affecting operational capability.

Question 40

40. What is Reasonable Belief?

Answer 40

There is reliable information that a reasonable prudent person would rely on that something is true. Reasonable Beliefs are also a logical and rational evaluation of the circumstances of an offense and of the suspect’s connection with the offense.

Question 41

41. What is probable cause?

Answer 41

Reasonable Belief that an offense has been or is being committed and the person to be apprehended committed or is committing it.

Question 42

42. What authority does Article 136(b)(4) and Article 136(b)(6) of the UCMJ give to Security Forces members?

Answer 42

Authority to administer oaths to suspects, subjects, and witnesses as necessary in the course of their official duties.

Question 43

Crime scenes will be normally established for, but not limited to what? Which form will be used to record the names of people who enter and exit crime scenes?

Answer 43

Deaths, Sexual Assaults, Robbery (completed or attempted), Suicide (completed or attempted), Bomb Threats, Contagious or Bio-Hazard substances, Suspicious Packages (confirmed). The AF Form 1109 Visitor Control Log will be utilized.

Question 44

44. What is an AF Form 1109 and what is it used for?

Answer 44

AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log, provides a log of visitors/and or personnel entering the area which the entry and/or exit is controlled.

Question 45

45. What is an AF Form 1176 and what is it used for?

Answer 45

AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize, ensure the search and seizure is legal and any evidence found is admissible at a Courts-Martial. AF Form 1176 is used to obtain authorization for a search and seizure. This form is prepared for the signature of the Wing Commander having search authority over a specific area, property or person to be searched.

Question 46

46. What is an AF Form 1364 and what is it used for?

Answer 46

This form is used in the same manner as the AF Form 1176, except the individual freely and voluntarily consents to a search of their person, area under their control or personal possessions. Used to obtain consent in writing.

Question 47

47. What is an AF Form 3545A and what is it used for?

Answer 47

The use of Air Force Justice Information System (AFJIS) AF Form 3545A is mandatory for all incidents that are National Incident Based Reporting system (DIBRS) reportable. Use this form to record facts about an incident or complaint for the proper military authority. Existing stock of hard copy or e-pubs version of AF Form 3545A may be used if an Air Force Justice Information System (AFJIS) outage occurs. AF Form 3545A is required when charging any subject with an offense or when further investigation is required for criminal or suspicious.

Question 48

47. What is an AF Form 3545A and what is it used for?

Answer 48

The use of Air Force Justice Information System (AFJIS) AF Form 3545A is mandatory for all incidents that are National Incident Based Reporting system (DIBRS) reportable. Use this form to record facts about an incident or complaint for the proper military authority. Existing stock of hard copy or e-pubs version of AF Form 3545A may be used if an Air Force Justice Information System (AFJIS) outage occurs. AF Form 3545A is required when charging any subject with an offense or when further investigation is required for criminal or suspicious.

Question 49

46. What is an AF Form 1364 and what is it used for?

Answer 49

This form is used in the same manner as the AF Form 1176, except the individual freely and voluntarily consents to a search of their person, area under their control or personal possessions. Used to obtain consent in writing.

Question 50

48. What is a DD Form 2701 and what is it used for?

Answer 50

Initial Information for Victims and Witnesses of a Crime. This form is issued to all personnel when criminal conduct adversely affects victims or when witnesses provide information regarding criminal activity. If in doubt, issue the form. The form gives the individual information on the Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) and is self-explanatory.

Question 51

49. What is a Major Traffic Accident?

Answer 51

A Major Traffic Accident is any accident involving a fatality, injury or property damage above the amount established by the installation commanders.

Question 52

50. What is an AF Form 1315 and what is the purpose of the form?

Answer 52

AF FM 1315, Major Accident Report. The AF Form 1315 will be well documented with accurate information to draw conclusions or opinions about how and why the accident occurred to include a supplemental narrative of the accident.

Question 53

51. What is an AF Form 1361 and what is it used for?

Answer 53

Pick up/Restriction Order, this form is used to record facts and provide Security Forces with information about pick-up or restrictions on members of the military services.

Question 54

52. What is an AF Form 3226 and what is it used for?

Answer 54

AF Form 3226 Authority to Apprehend in Private Dwelling, the MCM, Rule 302(e) requires written authority be obtained prior to apprehending a person in a private dwelling.

Question 55

53. What is AF Form 3907 and what is it used for?

Answer 55

Security Forces Field Interview Data Card is used to collect information on suspicious people or individuals contacted during routine operations who do not require any other administrative action

Question 56

54. What is an AF Form 52?

Answer 56

The Security Forces member seizing or otherwise receiving an item of evidential property ensures all such property is immediately recorded on AF Form 52, and ensures the form is affixed to the item(s) of evidence.

Question 57

55. Who is given the property receipt portion of the AF Form 52?

Answer 57

The person relinquishing the property.

Question 58

56. Which forms are used to record traffic violations

Answer 58

DD Form 1408 (Armed Forces Traffic Ticket) and CVB Form 1805 (United States District Violation Notice)

Question 59

57. Who receives the white copy of the DD Form 1408?

Answer 59

It is submitted through channels to the violator’s commander or if the violator is a military family member, to the sponsor’s commander. If the violator is a civilian employee, the white copy is sent to the individual’s commander. The ticket is sent to commanders for action to be taken against the violator.

Question 60

58. What is the yellow of a DD Form 1408 used for?

Answer 60

Used by Security Forces to record pertinent information. It can record details about the instructions issued to the violator, names of witnesses to the offense and vehicle defects.

Question 61

59. Who is given the pink of the DD Form 1408?

Answer 61

Given to the violator or affixed to the vehicle if the vehicle is unattended.

Question 62

60. What is a CVB 1805 and what is it used for?

Answer 62

CVB 1805 United States District Court Violation Notice. This form is used when it is determined an offender will be prosecuted for a minor offense.

Question 63

61. What is a DD Form 1920?

Answer 63

Alcoholic Influence Report which is used to record tests and observations made of someone suspected of being involved in an incident where alcohol or drugs may be a factor.

Question 64

62. What are the phases of a Driving Under the Influence (DUI)?

Answer 64

Vehicle in motion, Personal contact, SFST

Question 65

63. What is the UCMJ article and official charged used for a DUI?

Answer 65

Article 113 Drunken or reckless operation of a vehicle, aircraft, or vessel.

Question 66

64. What is a DD Form 2708 and what is it used for?

Answer 66

DD Form 2708 Receipt for Pre-Trial/ Post-Trial Prisoner or Detained Person used to transfer prisoners between confinement facilities or to release a detained person to their commander or representative.

Question 67

65. When will notifications start being made and how will they be accomplished?

Answer 67

Make appropriate notifications as soon as possible after receiving sufficient information. The Command Post will be promptly informed of all incidents or crimes. Sufficient information will be given during the initial or follow-up calls, so they can make required reports and notify emergency actions. Do not annotate a notification in blotters or reports when, in fact, a notification did not occur. Voicemail and answering machine does not constitute notification. Up channel and down-channel reports as necessary in keeping with the Security Reporting and Alerting System.

Question 68

66. When $25,000 or greater is being transported how many personnel are required?

Answer 68

One carrier, one owner or user, and one SF escort.

Question 69

67. What are the initial cordon sizes?

Answer 69

Box Size=500 Ft, Barrel/Vehicle=1,000Ft, Large Vehicle/Aircraft/Unknown=2,000Ft, B-2=5,000Ft

Question 70

68. What is the definition of a Covered Wagon and what actions will be taken if initiated?

Answer 70

An unclassified up-channel telephone report sent channel to the Command Post. COVERED WAGON reports inform higher-level headquarters an unusual incident affecting PL 1, 2, or 3 resources, probably or actual hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersal site. The Command Post must be continually updated, so they in-turn can update higher headquarters of the status of the situation. An incident report and blotter entry will be accomplished on all COVERED WAGON incidents.

Question 71

69. The final determination for the response codes to incidents rests with whom?

Answer 71

Desk Sergeant or Flight Chief/Sergeant.

Question 72

70. The authority to cancel/terminate a Covered Wagon is delegated to whom?

Answer 72

Only the 412 TW/CC or Designee may cancel/terminate a COVERED WAGON.

Question 73

71. In the event the ECC needs to be evacuated what procedures will be followed?

Answer 73

In the event when the ECC needs to be evacuated, the Desk Sergeant will follow appropriate QRC(s) and the below listed procedures Note: During ECC relocation, the Desk Sergeant must notify Fire Dispatch as to the new location. Flight Chief/Sergeant will take control of the net, and instruct posts and patrols to change frequency, if necessary. Sierra-2 will assume duties as Desk Sergeant at the alternate ECC located at Bldg. 120, Room 121 until the arrival of Desk Sergeant and Alarm Monitor.

Question 74

72. Which form is used to take written statements from suspects or accused persons, witnesses, or complainants?

Answer 74

AF Form 1168 Statement of Suspect/ Witness/Complainant.

Question 75

75. Civilian personnel will be advised of their right against self- incrimination in accordance with?

Answer 75

Fifth Amendment of the US Constitution.

Question 76

76. What four authorities do Security Forces members have?

Answer 76

Detain, Apprehend, Report, and Correct.

Question 77

77. What is the Posse Comitatus Act?

Answer 77

This Act prevents Army and Air Force personnel from executing the laws of the states or the laws of the United States except when acting under the authority of the United States Constitution, an Act of Congress, or under the direction of the President of the United States. Posse Comitatus governs the use of Army and Air Force personnel only within the Continental United States.

Question 78

78. How do you handle a Positive “Hit” for Code 4, Wants and Warrants Priority 1/Urgent?

Answer 78

Confirm the hit within 10 minutes, contact the ORI or originating Law Enforcement agency to ensure the person/ property in question is correct. ECC must ensure hit is still outstanding, Desk Sergeant will instruct the Security Forces member to (secure their mics) for radio transmission with regards to the positive hit information.

Question 79

79. How do you handle a Positive “Hit” for Code 4, Wants and Warrants Priority 2/Routine?

Answer 79

Confirm the hit within 1 hour, contact the ORI or originating Law Enforcement agency to ensure the person/property in question is correct. ECC must ensure hit is still outstanding, Desk Sergeant will instruct the Security Forces member to (secure their mics) for radio transmission with regards to the positive hit information.

Question 80

80. What is a locally generated document completed by the desk sergeant that records 24 hour period?

Answer 80

Security Forces Blotter, AF Form 53

Question 81

81. Who must review the AF Form 53 for accuracy and ensure all mandated entries are documented? When does it have to be reviewed by?

Answer 81

Flight Chiefs/Sergeants, S3O, or responsible designee by the next duty day.

Question 82

82. What is child abuse or child maltreatment?

Answer 82

Physical, sexual, or psychological maltreatment or neglect of a child or children, especially by a parent or other caregiver.

Question 83

83. When and why are Quick Reaction Checklists QRC(s) utilized?

Answer 83

They are utilized during all incidents to gather important information, ensure appropriate actions are taken, and to record data for entry into the Blotter.

Question 84

84. Why are cordons set up during Major Incidents?

Answer 84

To prevent contamination and/or injury to both the personnel manning the cordon and the personnel they are keeping from the scene.

Question 85

85. What are the three zones established during a HAZMAT or CBRNE incident provide the full name?

Answer 85

The three distinct zones are: The Exclusion Zone (Hot Zone), The Contamination Reduction Zone (Warm Zone), and The Support Zone (Cold Zone).

Question 86

86. What factors influence the size and location of a Cordon and ECP?

Answer 86

Type of Incident, Amount/type of materials involved, and Weather conditions.

Question 87

87. Who determines the size of the cordon for a major incident and what is it based upon?

Answer 87

The cordon size is determined by the Incident Commander (IC) and will be based on the area affected by the incident and any requirements for additional resources within the cordon area.

Question 88

88. When a call is received indicating the possibility that family violence has occurred what actions should the controller take?

Answer 88

Gather as much information as possible from the caller 5 W’s (Who, What, Where, When, Why) check local firearms roster, ask for a call back number, and relay information to responding patrols.

Question 89

89. What actions may Security Forces take in domestic violence situations?

Answer 89

Referral-Unit Commander/First Sergeant, AFOSI, and the Family Advocacy; Temporary Separation - Arranged with the First Sergeant, Apprehension.

Question 90

90. What is an NDA?

Answer 90

National Defense Area temporarily established in the U.S., its territories or possessions when necessary, in an emergency, to protect designated Department of Defense (DOD) property located off a military installation. Commanders should consult with their local Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) to ensure a national defense area complies with legal and policy considerations.

Question 91

91. Under what circumstances may it be necessary to establish a National Defense Area (NDA)?

Answer 91

Aircraft are sent to civilian airports and unforeseen, inadequate or uncontrollable civilian security concerns create an emergency. An aircraft with sensitive equipment or capabilities, such as a PL-1, 2, or 3 resource crashes. Unforeseen stops off the installation during PL-1 nuclear movements. Other unplanned emergencies occur.

Question 92

92. How will SF personnel clearly define the boundary of the NDA?

Answer 92

Temporary barrier such as rope or wire and put National Defense Area Warning Signs

Question 93

93. During an unannounced aircraft landing situation what actions will the ECC take and who will the ECC coordinate with?

Answer 93

The ECC will coordinate with ATC if blocking actions are necessary. SECURITY INCIDENT/COVERED WAGON will not be initiated unless hostility is detected. The Desk Sergeant will accomplish applicable QRCs and notifications.

Question 94

94. In the event there is a duress alarm at the ECC, what procedures will the Flight Chief/Sergeant follow if the ECC reports they are secure?

Answer 94

Flight Chief/Sergeant will take control of the net, instruct post and patrols to change frequency using “Code 9”, and proceed to the affected facility, will dispatch patrols to establish a 360 cordon around the facility, attempt to make contact will ECC by telephone to get status. Two patrolmen will enter ECC and verify status, then terminate response.

Question 95

95. In the event there is a duress alarm at the ECC, what procedures will the flight sergeant follow if the ECC reports they are not secure or do not answer?

Question 96

96. What is Eagle Eyes Program?

Answer 96

The Eagle Eyes program is an Air Force AT initiative that enlists the eyes and ears of Air Force members, civilians, contractors, and dependents. The Eagle Eyes program will inform the community on how to recognize possible terrorist activity and how to report suspicious behavior.

Question 97

97. What is the Crime Stop Program?

Answer 97

Provides availability for anonymous reporting of suspicious activities (Criminal or Antiterrorism). It is a dedicated line installed at ECC to receive calls from on and off-base.

Question 98

98. What is the definition of a Security Incident and what actions will be taken?

Answer 98

An unclassified telephone message from anyone who detects an unusual incident, possibly hostile, which affects PL 1, 2, and 3 resources ECC will immediately up-channel to the Command Post, SF will immediately investigate the situation, and an incident report and blotter entry will be accomplished

Question 99

100. Who acts as the on-scene coordinator for Type 1 Operations?

Answer 99

The 412 MSG/CC will act as on-scene coordinator for Type I operations.

Question 100

101. What does AFI 31-117 cover?

Answer 100

AFI 31-117, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.

Question 101

102. What are the three considerations a patrolman/Flight Sergeant need to consider when determining whether to continue a vehicle pursuit?

Answer 101

Does the pursuit pose unreasonable hazard to life and property. Is a pursuit reasonable?
In regards to road conditions, weather, vehicle and pedestrian traffic. Has the suspect and vehicle been identified sufficiently for pending investigation.

Question 102

103. If pursuit or emergency driving above the speed limit is determined to be necessary, what factors must be considered? List four factors.

Answer 102

Degree of danger to the public, weather/road conditions, pursuit vehicle equipped with
Emergency lights/sirens, vehicle and pedestrian traffic, roadway obstacles, experience/training of the pursuit vehicle operator, facilities located along the pursuit route (schools, hospital, shopping centers), and reason for the pursuit.

Question 103

104. What are the sources of military jurisdiction?

Answer 103

They include the United States Constitution, federal statutes and regulations, international law and agreements, state law, and federal-state agreements.

Question 104

105. What does Article 2 of the UCMJ state?

Answer 104

States exactly who is subject to military jurisdiction.

Question 105

106. What does Article 5 of the UCMJ state?

Answer 105

States that the Code applies in all places and that there is no restriction on where the case may be heard. The military has jurisdiction to prosecute any offense committed on or off base by members who are subject to the code at the time it was committed and at the time of prosecution.

Question 106

108. What is FPCON Normal and when does it apply?

Answer 106

FPCON Normal applies when there is a general global threat of possible terrorist activity but it warrants only a routine security posture. A terrorist attack is always possible, but the best information available offers no indication of probable attack.

Question 107

109. What is FPCON Alpha and when does it apply?

Answer 107

FPCON Alpha applies when there is a general threat of terrorist activity, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, against personnel and facilities. General conditions suggest possible violence, but nothing indicates that this installation is targeted.

Question 108

110. What is FPCON Bravo and when does it apply?

Answer 108

FPCON Bravo applies when an increased and more predictable terrorist threat activity exists. Specific information suggests probable violence, but nothing indicates that this installation is targeted. Extra precaution is appropriate to deter terrorist planning.

Question 109

111. What is FPCON Charlie and when does it apply?

Answer 109

FPCON Charlie applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against personnel and installations is imminent. Evidence of terrorist attack planning may exist, such as terrorist surveillance or reports from local sources. Strong protective measures are required, but the installation must continue its regular mission activities.

Question 110

112. What is FPCON Delta and when does it apply?

Answer 110

FPCON Delta applies when a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence indicates imminent terrorist action against a specific location. FPCON Delta is normally declared as a localized warning. The installation moves to a high state of alert, and mandatory security measures are implemented.

Question 111

113. What will the Flight Chief/Sergeant ensure is being briefed during guard mount?

Answer 111

Current and expected weather conditions, weapons safety, ground safety, Military Working Dog (MWD) safety, vehicle safety, exercise safety, current Force Protection Condition, S2 local and other pertinent threat information, sign/countersign, duress words and current Be On the Look Out bulletins.

Question 112

114. What are the different zones of Edwards Air Force Base?

Answer 112

Zone 1 is South Base, Zone 2 is East Base/AFRL, Zone 3 is North Base, and Zone 4 is West Base.

Question 113

115. What is the highest priority at Edwards Air Force Base and location?

Answer 113

B-2 located in Zone 1 Sector 1.

Question 114

116. What is the Crime Prevention Hotline phone number?

Answer 114

(661)275-7500

Question 115

117. What are the 5 phases of Incident Management?

Answer 115

Prevention, Protection, Response, Recovery, Mitigation.

Question 116

118. At what dollar amount will Security Forces not respond to unsecure theft of items?

Answer 116

$2500 or less.

Question 117

119. Who is responsible for non-domesticated animals on Edwards Air Force Base?

Answer 117

Environmental Management.

Question 118

120. Who can initiate higher FPCON level?

Answer 118

412 TW commander, Base Commander.

Question 119

122. What type of defense is used to defend Edwards Air Force Base?

Answer 119

Highly Mobile Zone Defense.

Question 120

121. How many hours can Security Forces members be posted/work in one day under normal conditions?

Answer 120

10 Hours.

Question 121

123. Who can remove munitions from aircraft?

Answer 121

A/c maintenance

Question 122

SF Normal Hours of Operations ref: (Appendix 1 to annex c of 412 TW IDP 31, Vol 1 para 3.a)

Answer 122

a. Security Forces will not be posted in excess of 10 hours per shift including pre and post duty requirements (i.e. weapons issue, guard mount, transport time to post, etc.…) during normal operations. During contingency operations shift schedules may be altered at the direction of the Defense Force Commander

Question 123

Covered Wagon ref: (TAB Q to appendix 3 to annex c of 412 TW IDP, 31, Vol. 1 para 3.a)

Answer 123

Covered Wagons will be up-channeled to higher headquarters. The authority to terminate Covered Wagons has been delegated to the DFC

Question 124

Visibility and Posting ref: (TAB I to Appendix 3 to Annex C of 412 TW IDP 31, Vol 1, para 1.a)

Answer 124

When visibility is reduced to 1/8 mile or less and posted patrols or sentries cannot effectively observe their assigned area or sector, additional Security Forces should be posted.

Question 125

Battle space around Edwards (412 TW IDP, para Execution 3.a)

Answer 125

Concept of Operations: Due to the nature of the base layout/mission/assets, SF will be employed in a highly mobile “zone defense” model of patrolling to provide the greatest amount of protection to the greatest number of resources. Once required static posts are filled, all other 412 SFS personnel will be assigned to mobile patrols who will conduct both law enforcement and security operations (blending the roles/capabilities of Installation Patrols and Internal/External Security Response Teams). Due to the low probability of detection for unauthorized access, the aim is for immediate armed response to delay/fix/duress hostile forces until additional armed resources can be brought to bear to defeat hostile actors. Surveillance and detection in support of ID operations will be provided by SF on routine posts, as well as, vigilance by military and civilian personnel

assigned to Edwards AFB. Upon implementation of emergency response, contingency actions and/or antiterrorism measures, SF will provide an orderly transition to a higher state of readiness and/or armed response. Intervention against a known or potential threat, as well as against criminal activity, will commence from the legal boundary; however intelligence sharing between 412 SFS/S2I, AFOSI Det 111, and local/state/federal agencies should be maximized to maintain an accurate picture of the battle space surrounding the installation.

(1) The intent is to provide armed response in accordance with the priorities listed above and provide physical security protection for all protection level and other significant (deemed by the 412 TW/CC) resources located within the 412 TW area of responsibility.

412 SFS will coordinate and manage an overall security program that encompasses armed SF augmentees, owner/user personnel and physical security aids and facilities; coupled with, situational awareness on the part of all persons who work in and around protection level resources to deter/detect/defeat potential threats. Furthermore, SF BDOC security operations will expand as needed to aggressively employ all means available in neutralizing any threat.

(a) The end state of this program is to provide a security environment which can reasonably be expected to prevent or limit damage to personnel or protection level resources. During normal and emergency conditions, the object of the Resources Protection Program is to ensure all government equipment and material is given necessary protection.

Time phased levels of protection are provided as the threat increases. These phases are known as Force Protection Conditions (FPCONS) and will be implemented by the 412 TW/CC or higher authority. The 412 SFS/CC, with the concurrence of the Threat Working Group (TWG) and the 412 TW/CC, may implement FPCON procedures or changes.

(a) The implementation of a specific FPCON may not always be appropriate. The use and implementation of the Random Antiterrorism Measure (RAM) Program should be used during FPCONs NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO and CHARLIE to aid in deterrence and detection.

1 The RAMs consist of selected security measures from higher FPCONs, augmented with additional security measures. To use RAMs accordingly, local threats and unique local vulnerabilities must be assessed.

Question 126

Hostage ref: (TAB C to Appendix 3 to Annex C of 412 TW IDP 31, Vol 1, para 1.b)

Answer 126

The FBI has primary responsibility for hostage situations and will assume jurisdiction during a hostage incident if it is determined the incident is of significant federal interest. A liaison with the command center at the installation (Responsibility of the senior FBI agent) will be established. If the FBI does not assume jurisdiction all agencies involved will fall under the direct control of the Incident Commander (IC). NOTE: All command authority is lost by hostages until released and secure regardless of rank.

Question 127

Crime Stop Number ref: (Annex C to 412 TW IDP 31, Vol 1 para 2.e.1)

Answer 127

CRIME STOP is used to report crimes in progress, crimes about to occur or to provide a “tip” to a crime. Dial 661-275-7500 for all CRIME STOP calls.

Question 128

Flight Sergeant Responsibilities for cordon ref: ( 412 SFOI 31-101, para 8.6.5)

Answer 128

Flight Sergeant will:
8.6.5.1. Establish and mark the ECP upwind or crosswind of the incident.
8.6.5.2. Establish a cordon commensurate with guidance outlined in Table 6.1. Ensure motor vehicle and pedestrian routes are secure. Coordinate with the Fire Chief to determine if the cordon size is adequate. Adjust as needed. 8.6.5.3. Accomplish an AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log, if an actual explosive device or component is found. All personnel will be logged in individually and must be cleared for entry by the IC.
8.6.5.4. Dispatch patrols to evacuate personnel from facilities within the cordon. Evacuate to a pre-designated evacuation point upwind or crosswind of the facility and beyond the cordon.
8.6.5.5. Identify the facility manager and have them stand-by to assist MWD teams if needed.
8.6.5.6. Establish primary and alternate approach routes taking into consideration wind direction and direction that the IRF will respond. Ensure the cordon is not breached.
8.6.5.7. Implement parking plan in an area that will facilitate movement of large vehicles and will provide immediate accessibility. Vehicles should be parked facing away from the incident location should immediate withdrawal become necessary.
8.6.5.8. Serve as the SF liaison if command is relinquished to a higher authority.

Question 129

Incident Commander for bomb threat ref: (TAB A to Appendix 3 to Annex C of 412 TW IDP 31, Vol 1, para 1.i)

Answer 129

The SF first responder is the initial response IC until relieved by the Fire Chief or designated representative.

Question 130

Open Ranks ref: (AFI 31-118 para 5.2.1)

Answer 130

5.2.1. Conduct open ranks inspections at least once per work cycle in accordance with AFMAN 36-2203, Drill and Ceremonies, and annotate it in the SF Case Management System or AF Form 53, SF Desk Blotter, when SF Case Management System is unavailable.. Guardmount is also an appropriate opportunity for recognition of deserving personnel. Ultimately, SF commanders will determine the standardization of Guardmount for their unit (i.e., weapons and equipment inspections may be conducted prior to Guardmount). Additionally, the following items will be briefed during Guardmount: current and expected weather conditions, weapons safety, ground safety, Military Working Dog (MWD) safety, vehicle safety, exercise safety, current Force Protection Condition, S2 local and other pertinent threat information, sign/countersign, duress words and current Be On the Look Out bulletins.

Question 131

AFIMS ref: (AFMAN 10-2502, para 2.1.2.5)

Answer 131

AIR FORCE INCIDENT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
2.1. System Overview. The Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), based on the National Incident Management System (NIMS), methodology is outlined in Air Force Instruction 10-2501. The Air Force Incident Management System was developed to ensure service compliance and consistency across Presidential, Department of Defense, and Air Force policies and directives regarding all emergency prevention, emergency prevention, protection, response and recovery operations. The objective is to implement a single incident management system for command and control of emergency response forces at Air Force installations and headquarters worldwide. The Air Force Incident Management System is used to organize and direct emergency response forces during incident management activities while also conducting peacetime and wartime operations.
2.1.1. Tenets of the Air Force Incident Management System. The Air Force has a consistent, single, comprehensive approach to incident management with coordinating structures, processes, and protocols to the National Institute Management System which allows the Air Force to integrate its specific authorities into the collective framework of federal departments and agencies. This coordination enables actions mitigation, prevention, protection, response, and recovery. The Air Force Incident Management System also includes a core set of concepts, principles, terminology, and technologies covering the incident command system, emergency operations centers, identification and management of resources, qualification and certification, and the collection, tracking and reporting of incident information and incident resources. Headquarters Air Force Civil Engineer Readiness Division coordinates with other Air Staff functions to complete the Air Force Incident Management System.
2.1.2. Phases of Incident Management. Air Force Incident Management System phases include prevention, protection, response, recovery and mitigation.
2.1.2.1. Prevention includes broad categories of activities such as intelligence collection and analysis, active defense, proliferation prevention, fire prevention, disease prevention, and contamination prevention.
2.5. Integrated Operations. The Air Force Incident Management System framework principle of integration enables seamless response operations between installations and friendly forces.
2.5.1. Unified Command Activities. An important element in multi-jurisdictional or multi-agency incident management that enables agencies with different legal, geographic, governmental, and functional responsibilities to coordinate, plan, and interact effectively. All agencies with jurisdictional authority or functional responsibility for any or all aspects of an incident and those able to provide specific resource support participate in the Unified Command structure. All involved parties contribute to the process of determining overall incident strategies; selecting objectives; ensuring that joint planning for tactical activities is accomplished in accordance with approved incident objectives; ensuring the integration of tactical operations; and approving, committing, and optimizing use of all assigned resources. These tenets may not always be acceptable to the senior Air Force representative associated with the response. For example, if a chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear incident originates off the installation, but the hazard plume affects the base, it is possible that the installation commander will choose to use operational exposure guidelines for a segment of the Air Force population, and those exposure guidelines will not match those designed for the corresponding civilian population. Because of these and other variables, it is possible the Air Force will participate in Unified Command activities with a modified approach.
2.5.2. Area Command Operations. The purpose of an area command is either to oversee the management of multiple incidents that are each being handled by a separate Incident Command System organization or to oversee the management of large or complex incidents that have multiple incident management teams engaged.
2.5.2.1. When an incident occurs on the base that requires multiple Incident Commanders, an area command should be established with the Emergency Operations Centers Director assuming the role of area command commander. An example of multiple events requiring establishment of an area command could include when a theater ballistic missile lands on the installation’s flight line; a fire occurs in the food court area; an explosion occurs in the vehicle maintenance area causing multiple casualties; and contamination spreads through two zones of the installation. Each area requires responses, competes for valuable resources, and requires the Emergency Operations Center Director to prioritize response and resources for the competing requirements.
2.5.3. Joint Basing Operations. For the locations where the Air Force is designated the Supporting Service, the Air Force will ensure the supported and tenant units are included within the Air Force Incident Management System structure. (T-0). The tenant units must be made aware of their specific requirements, terminology, signals, and response procedures. On installations where the Air Force is the Supported Service or tenant unit, Air Force senior leaders must ensure Airmen and Air Force organizations understand the host unit’s response procedures and terminology and the specific roles and responsibilities for Air Force personnel and organizations. As part of the response protocol, Air Force leadership should consider a liaison officer to the Emergency Operations Center or host unit equivalent.
2.5.4. Combined Operations. In combined operations (military force composed of elements of two or more allied nations), the Air Force organization should use the same procedures outlined in the joint basing operations paragraph above in order to ensure supporting/supported requirements are understood. 12 AFMAN10-2502 13 SEPTEMBER 2018
2.5.5. Information-Sharing Ground Rules. Air Force Policy Directive 33-3, Information Management, Air Force Instruction 35-101, Public Affairs Responsibilities and Management, implements Department of Defense Instruction 5400.14, Procedures for Joint Public Affairs Operations and provides documentation for Air Force interaction and participation with the Joint Information Center. Air Force commanders will adhere to standard Operations Security, Communications Security, and guidelines for release of classified information, during incident responses.

Question 132

Post Requirements ref: (Appendix 1 to Annex C of TW IDP 31, Vol. 1 PPC)

Answer 132

Post Priority Chart (PPC). The PPC aligns with the Zone Priority Chart and serves as a guide for Flight Chiefs to most effectively employ posted personnel. The DFC has the authority to establish and adjust post priority charts lists based off of manpower, contingencies and other needs as they arise. The 412 SFS/S3 (Operations Officer/Superintendent) establishes minimum posting requirements for the post priority chart. Posts and patrols will be manned to their fullest extent consistent with available manning. If a manning conflict arises and adjustments to this listing are needed, coordination/approval by the SF operations staff must be obtained. The post priority chart is designated as FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY.

Security Forces will not be posted in excess of 10 hours per shift including pre and post duty requirements (i.e. weapons issue, guard mount, transport time to post, etc.…) during normal operations. During contingency operations shift schedules may be altered at the direction of the Defense Force Commander.

b. Zone Priority. The base has been divided into four zones numbered in order of precedence with Zone 1 being the zone with the highest priority resource and Zone 4 containing the lowest priority resources (or the lowest concentration of resources). Patrol Zones are established to ensure adequate response to secure PL resources. Security Forces Operations leadership will divide all zones into sectors according to available manning and resources assigned to the area. Sectors will be outlined in the Special Security Instructions (SSIs).

c. Edwards AFB Patrols Zones.

d. Zone 1 includes the Southern portion of the base. The boundaries include South Lancaster Blvd extending from Wolfe Ave to Avenue E (including Branch Memorial Park), the BFTF compound, and Mercury Blvd up to the bend where Santa Fe Trail is located.

e. Zone 2 includes the Eastern portion of the base. The boundary includes the entire area of AFRL within the fence line/Controlled area boundary, the area south of 58 down to the intersection of Rocket Site Rd and Mercury Blvd, and west to the intersection of Mercury Blvd and the Santa Fe Trail (adjacent to the shuttle viewing area near 1 mile curve).

f. Zone 3 includes the Northern portion of the base. The boundary includes the flight line area consisting of the ramps, runways, lakebed, taxiways and restricted areas inside the flight line ECPs; Lancaster Blvd from Wolfe Ave to Rosamond Blvd extending out to the perimeter wall outside of North Gate; and North Base compound.

g. Zone 4 includes the West portion of the base. The boundary includes Lancaster Blvd/Rosamond Blvd intersection extending out the West wall on Rosamond Blvd, Rosamond Lake Bed, Piute Pond, and the Hunting Area behind Red Mountain.

Question 133

Authentication Process (ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 12.7.2)

Answer 133

12.7.1. Personnel will authenticate after terminating a dispatch or traffic stop. Normally this is done through the ECC; however any Security Force member can request member’s security status if there is reason to believe something is wrong.
12.7.2. Ask the person their status and their response will be “All Secure” and the phonetic letter of the first letter of their last name. Therefore, Brown would be, “All Secure, Bravo.” If the individual’s status is in question, they may be requested to authenticate with a number corresponding with a letter in their last name. Therefore, if Brown was passed 4, he would respond “All Secure Whiskey.” A wrong response is treated as a duress situation

Question 134

RIEVCs (ref: ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 8.25.7.2)

Answer 134

Civilian:
8.25.7.2.1. If contraband is found while inspecting a military members vehicle, immediately:
8.25.7.2.2. Terminate inspection
8.25.7.2.3. Contact SJA for further guidance.

Question 135

Emergency Response Entry Procedures(TAB Q TO APPENDIX 3 TO ANNEX 3 OF 412 TW IDP 31, VOL 1, para 1.C.2)

Answer 135

Sign-Counter Sign numbers are pre-designated numbers between 3 and 9. Entry controllers, when posted, must not allow entry based only on sirens and flashing lights unless they are personally aware of an emergency and/or pre-warned of the need for an emergency response. All personnel who operate inside a restricted/controlled area must know the proper codes.

Question 136

AF Form 179 (ref: AFI 31-115 para 8.2 - 8.3)

Answer 136

8.2. Security Forces Fingerprinting Process for Criminal Offenses .
8.2.1. The apprehending SF member will ensure fingerprint collection, submission, and
inclusion in applicable reports. (T-0). Follow guidelines outlined in AFMAN 71-102 to assist
in determining when to collect and submit fingerprints for purposes of criminal indexing. The
Live Scan Management Software® (LSMS) case number maximum is 20 digits. SF will
modify the CCN to fit into LSMS by removing the dashes and the “AF”.
8.2.2. The apprehending SF member will use the Indexing, Fingerprinting and DNA
Collection Checklist, located in the Job Aids folder on the AFJIS Support Site, for all incidents.
investigations requiring fingerprint collection. (T-1).
8.2.3. SF will maintain the completed checklist in the investigative case file, with a .pdf of
the electronic FD-249, (or hard copies if taken), III printout showing the offenses and the
transmitted response, and the AF Form 179, Apprehension/Arrest Notification Form. (T-1).
SF will maintain a copy of the collected fingerprints in the investigative case file 5400.11

Question 137

Response Codes (ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 8.26.1)

Answer 137

ECC will direct the response code. However, situations will occur requiring the patrol to make the proper response decision. That decision is based on:
8.26.1.1. Time of day.
8.26.1.2. Traffic volume.
8.26.1.3. Potential hazards.
8.26.1.4. Liability to Patrolman and the public.
8.26.1.5. Compliance with directives herein.

Question 138

Narratives (ref: SFTRG 9, Vol 2, Chapter 9.8)

Answer 138

Adding a Narrative
An Incident can only have one narrative while the Incident status is Open. This narrative can be edited and saved. Once an Incident status is changed to Final Approved, a user can create new narratives for supplemental Incident Reports.
Since narratives tend to be lengthy, the narrative is auto-saved so that you do not lose the text. HOWEVER, it is advisable that you save your narrative by clicking the Save button.
To add a Narrative:
1. Hover over Narrative and click New Narrative.
2. Enter the Narrative.

Question 139

DUI Process (ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 8.14.7.1)

Answer 139

First Phase: Vehicle in motion. If impairment is suspected, observe vehicle movement. Indicators include, but are not limited to:
8.14.7.1.1. Weaving or erratic driving.
8.14.7.1.2. Speed significantly less than posted speed limit.
8.14.7.1.3. Sudden stops.
8.14.7.1.4. Wide or sharp turns.
8.14.7.1.5. Speed in excess of the posted limit.

Question 140

EAFB Zones (Ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101 para 3.8)

Answer 140

3.8.1. Zone 3/Sector 1: Flightline Internal (Primary) – boundaries are the flightline area consisting of the ramps, taxiways, and restricted areas inside the flight line ECPs. The general area is defined by the NASA flight line gate to the North, building 1006 to the Southwest, Wolf Avenue to the East, and the lake bed/Runway 22 to the East/Southeast.
3.8.2. Zone 3/Sector 2 : Main Base (Secondary) – boundaries are defined by East Forbes to the North, Lancaster to the West, and Wolfe Ave/the flight line to the East and South.
3.8.3. Zone 3/Sector 3: North Base (Secondary) – boundaries are defined by Lancaster Blvd and Forbes intersection, north of Forbes Ave to North Gate (may patrol to North Wall if a two person patrol), East on North base Rd to Bldg 4505. West on Baker Nunn Rd, to “Stray Animal Facility”/Bldg 4976. Area includes all of NASA Compound and OSI Hill (off Baker Nunn Rd).
3.8.3.1. NASA provides contracted security, but SF will respond to provide assistance when requested.
3.8.4. November-1 is the Internal Response Team (ISRT) for the flight line area and maintain security response.

Question 141

Military Jurisdiction (Ref: AFI 31-115 para 3.2)

Answer 141

. There are several sources of military jurisdiction. They include: the
United States Constitution, federal statutes and regulations, international law and agreements,
state law, and federal-state agreements

Question 142

Suspicious Packages (Ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101 para 8.6.2)

Answer 142

Radio transmissions are prohibited if within 25 feet (handheld) or 100 feet (vehicle) of the affected area.

Question 143

Removal of specialized equipment ref: (AFI 31-115, para 17.2.8.1)

Answer 143

17.2.8.1. Removal of aircraft, missiles and other equipment requiring specialized actions
is the responsibility of maintenance forces. (T-1).

Question 144

HAZMAT or CBRNE zones ref: (AFI 31-115, para 17.5.1)

Answer 144

Response to Contaminated Incident Site. An initial task within the emergency
responder missions is that the IC must establish control of the site to protect first responders
and keep out unauthorized personnel. (T-1). The strategy is to establish three distinct zones:
the exclusion zone (Hot Zone), the contamination reduction zone (Warm Zone), and the
support zone (Cold Zone). SF primary responsibility during initial response is to establish, in
concert with the IC, a cordon, Incident Command Post (ICP), ECP, and decontamination
corridor. (T-1). The BDOC/ECC will contact all affected posts and patrols and FES and
advise them to proceed to the Cold Zone ICP staging area.

Question 145

HAZMAT procedures (Ref: AFI 31-115 para 17.5.5.2.1)

Answer 145

Special Considerations for Response to HAZMAT or CBRNE incidents . When
responding to an emergency situation, SF may accidentally come into contact with a peacetime
mishap involving a HAZMAT spill or a terrorist use of CBRNE weapons, materials or agents. If
responding to a known HAZMAT or CBRNE incident, SF personnel must proceed cautiously to
avoid becoming a victim of the incident, and follow the directions of trained HAZMAT
responders. (T-1).
17.5.1. Response to Contaminated Incident Site. An initial task within the emergency
responder missions is that the IC must establish control of the site to protect first responders
and keep out unauthorized personnel. (T-1). The strategy is to establish three distinct zones:
the exclusion zone (Hot Zone), the contamination reduction zone (Warm Zone), and the
support zone (Cold Zone). SF primary responsibility during initial response is to establish, in
concert with the IC, a cordon, Incident Command Post (ICP), ECP, and decontamination
corridor. (T-1). The BDOC/ECC will contact all affected posts and patrols and FES and
advise them to proceed to the Cold Zone ICP staging area. (T-3).
17.5.2. If an incident occurs in a PL 1-3 resource restricted area, evacuation processes will
have to be coordinated through the BDOC/ECC. (T-1). Prior to evacuating Restricted Areas,
ICs must consider the totality of the incident to include threat to life, availability of personal
protective equipment and threat to PL 1-3 resources. (T-3). This decision will be made before
evacuating or relieving contaminated SF personnel from their duty positions. (T-3).
17.5.3. If decontamination is required, follow IC and/or FES personnel instructions. (T-3).
The base fire chief will develop local decontamination procedures. (T-3). The DFC will work
138 AFI31-115 18 AUGUST 2020
with the base fire chief to execute the cross functional training and exercise process to
determine the best solution for the installation. (T-3).
17.5.4. Decontamination processes and equipment available will vary dependent on the
situation and hazard involved.
17.5.4.1. SF performing day-to-day duties are armed with a variety of weapons ranging
from the handgun to heavy machineguns. These items are accountable and require special
handling, storage and/or destruction per DoDM 5100.76_AFMAN 31-101 Volume 2. (T-
1). For more information on weapon decontamination processes, refer to AFMAN 31-
129, USAF Small Arms and Light Weapons Handling Procedures. Note: Equipment
items that cannot be decontaminated will be destroyed, ensuring proper accountability
documentation is maintained. (T-1). This includes weapons and ammunition. MAJCOM
SF must be notified and AFIMSC shall establish procedures for the immediate
replacement of contaminated weapons and ammunition, once it is determined that they
cannot be reissued based on the type of contaminate. (T-0). Refer to local procedures for
accountability/replacement of lost or destroyed equipment.
17.5.4.2. In a high-risk response, SF must work with OSI, the FBI, and the HAZMAT
team to coordinate the collection of evidence. (T-1). Only those SF properly trained and
equipped to collect contaminated evidence will participate in the handling of any
contaminated evidence or material. (T-1).
17.5.4.2.1. The lead investigative agency may request that evidence is not
decontaminated before being bagged. See Chapter 13 of this AFI for further
guidance on evidence collection.
17.5.4.2.2. The chain of custody of evidence collected at HAZMAT or CBRNE
incidents must be part of the preplanning and execution. (T-1).
17.5.4.3. SF personnel will be medically examined and, depending on the situation or
symptoms, transported to a medical treatment facility

Question 146

AAR Timelines ref: (AFI 31-118, 8.4.1)

Answer 146

8.4.1. Unless otherwise stated, AARs will be submitted within 30 days of the event to which it refers. In addition to submitting AARs up the chain-of-command, a copy of all AARs and observations will be forwarded to AFSFC/S2 at NIPR address: afsfc.sfp@us.af.mil or SIPR address: usaf.jbsa.afsfc.mbx.sf-lessons-learned@mail.smil.mil (T-3)

Question 147

RIEVCs (ref: TAB E TO APPENDIX 10 TO ANNEX C OF 412 TW IDP 31, VOL 1, para 6.b)

Answer 147

Civilian Personnel.

(1) Civilian personnel visiting EAFB who refuse to allow the RIEVC will be denied access and informed that their refusal may result in barment from the installation. Security Forces personnel will complete an incident report.

(2) Civilian employees and contractors who refuse to allow the RIEVC will surrender vehicle registration credentials. Security Forces personnel conducting the checks will seize any AF Forms 75 or contractor credentials issued by 412 SFS/S5X. An incident report will be completed and the civilian employee will be subject to barment from the installation or loss of base driving privileges.

Question 148

Signs of Hi-jacking (ref: ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 11.18.1)

Answer 148

Anti-Hijacking Operations. HIJACK indicates someone is attempting to take unauthorized control of an aircraft with its crew onboard. The most effective course of action to counter a specific threat can only be determined at the time of implementation, based on such variables as type and location of the aircraft involved, personality, intent of the hostage taker(s), number, location of the hostages, weather conditions, etc.
11.16.1. The following are signs of suspicious activities that should be investigated:
11.16.1.1. Attempts to start an aircraft without a fireguard or chocks, or to start, taxi, operate an aircraft by a questionable number of “crew members” or suspicious individuals.
11.16.1.2. Movement of aircraft known to be out of commission, scheduled for maintenance or not scheduled for movement or flight.
11.16.1.3. Request from the individuals to deviate from standard or established procedures which could air or abet a theft/sabotage attempt.
11.16.1.4. Overhearing a conversation or observing acts that could be construed to be a plot, contemplation or attempt of an aircraft theft, hijack or sabotage.
11.16.1.5. Observing an aircraft taxiing at night without lights.
11.16.1.6. Observing a suspicious looking individual(s) walking on aircraft parking ramps or other areas of the aerodrome.
11.16.1.7. Improper operating techniques such as not following established taxi routes, erratic taxi movements, using nonstandard radio terminology or flaps position in the full-down/retracted position to signal a hijacking is in progress.
11.16.1.8. Receipt of a transmission of any radio frequency from an aircraft indicating transponder seven-five-zero-zero (7500).
11.16.2. The ECC will validate reports by contacting the Air Traffic Control (ATC) Tower, Command Post (CP), and Maintenance Operation Center (MOC). The Desk Sergeant will initiate applicable QRCs and notifications.
11.16.3. Security Forces Members will attempt to block the aircraft by utilizing patrol vehicles to prevent access to taxiways or runway to prevent takeoff. Both front and rear of a C-5, C-17, or C-130 must be blocked to prevent the aircraft from backing up. Security Forces Members may be repositioned up to 200 feet behind the aircraft as determined by the Incident Commander (IC).
11.16.4. Flight Sergeant may recall additional forces to satisfy additional posting requirements. Aircraft will not be allowed to take off if nuclear weapons are onboard or higher authority directs delays to continue for reasons of National Security or special interest, the aircraft Commander or civilian aircraft captain request or if the FBI, or FAA directs a delay.
11.16.4.1. Flight Sergeant will gather information and relay to the ECC:
11.16.4.1.1. Nature of the threat.
11.16.4.1.2. Numbers of hijackers.
11.16.4.1.3. Identify AF assets/cargo (nuclear) onboard.
11.16.4.1.4. Injuries.
11.16.4.1.5. Demands.
11.16.4.1.6. Aircraft commander’s request(s). 11.16.4.1.7. Numbers of aircraft crew and passengers. Note: Security Forces Members will not make negotiations or promises to hijackers.
11.16.5. Request hostage negotiators through FBI, AFOSI, or County Sheriff’s Office

Question 149

RAMs (ref: ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 8.24)

Answer 149

Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAM). Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAMs) are conducted to provide multiple security measures that will consistently change the look of an installation security program. RAMs introduce uncertainty to the overall security program to defeat surveillance attempts and make it difficult for a terrorist to accurately predict our actions.
8.24.1. Unit Antiterrorism Representative (ATR) distributes RAMs listing monthly. This list does not preclude patrolmen from conducting a RAM in areas where the need exists.
8.24.2. RAMs may be canceled by the Flight Sergeant if manning is not available and priority dispatches make continuing the RAM impractical.
8.24.2.1. If a RAM is canceled, document the reason in the blotter (e.g., “not conducted do to mission needs”).

Question 150

Final Denial Barrier System (ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 6.26.3)

Answer 150

Use all means to stop unauthorized inbound/outbound vehicles without endangering personnel.
6.26.2 The Final Denial Barrier System is a LESS-THAN-LETHAL tool that must be justified to use. Although this system is designed for less than lethal use, there is a potential that its use may cause serious bodily harm or death.
6.26.3. When activating the barrier system, consider other traffic, inbound and outbound, so as not to directly injure bystanders.
6.26.4. All attempts to stop the vehicle must be utilized prior to engaging the system (i.e. voice commands, whistle, flashlight, etc.).
6.26.5. Determine, if possible, if the vehicle driver has malicious intent to enter the base. If the subject appears confused, impaired or elderly, the system may not need to be deployed. Use the best judgment possible before deploying the Final Denial Barrier System.
6.26.6. If a driver fails to heed all warning to stop his or her vehicle, the Final Denial Barrier System may be employed. Examples warranting the use of this system would be:
6.26.6.1. A driver is denied entry to the installation for not possessing appropriate credentials. The driver becomes belligerent and accelerates into the base; the entry controller may now utilize the barrier system
6.26.6.2. A known suspect committed an armed robbery at the Edward Credit Union and is fleeing the installation. The vehicle matching the description is approaching the Base Entry Control Point (BECP) at a high rate of speed. If the driver fails to heed all attempts to stop their vehicle, use of the Final Denial Barrier System is authorized
6.26.7 Actions taken following use of the Final Denial Barrier System:
6.26.7.1. Notify the ECC of Final Denial Barrier deployment.
6.26.7.2. Call for medical response and provide medical assistance to any vehicle occupants that may be injured. Clearly ask the vehicle occupants “Do you need medical assistance?” prior to administering first aid. If the occupants are not coherent or unconscious first aid may be administered. If the subject refuses first aid, wait for medical personnel to arrive.
6.26.7.3. Continue to safely control vehicle and pedestrian traffic.
6.26.8 Final Denial Barrier System fails to deploy:
6.26.8.1. Notify the ECC the Final Denial Barrier failed to deploy.
6.26.8.2. In the event the barrier system is not activated or does not activate, the installation entry controller may employ other measures to include stop sticks.
6.26.8.3. The installation entry controller will obtain the license plate number, direction of travel, and description of vehicle occupants and immediately relay the information to the ECC.
6.26.9. When NOT to use the Final Denial Barrier System:
6.26.9.1. Final denial barrier system may not be warranted for use to close access on/off the installation for normal day-to-day operations, (i.e. alarm activations, higher Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs), etc.). The physical gates are to be used for road closure.
6.26.9.2. Unauthorized vehicles attempting entry onto the installation, not threatening to the installation in nature, other means will be used (i.e. patrols, camera system, stop sticks, etc.).
6.26.10. The final denial barrier system will be tested once a week and will be accomplished as shown in Attachment 6.

Question 151

Safe Haven (ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 6.13)

Answer 151

Department of Energy (DOE) Safe Haven Entry Procedures. When a vehicle carrying a Department of Energy (DOE) shipment arrives at a gate, and the driver declares a “Safe Haven”, during hostile situations they will be directed approximately 150 yards inside the gate, out of public view, safely off the road, or to the following designated spots:
6.13.1. West Gate. CATM Road.
6.13.2. South Gate. Branch Memorial Park about one quarter mile from the intersection.
6.13.3. North Gate. North Base Road about one quarter mile from the intersection.

Question 152

Apprehending in a Private Dwelling (ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 7.8.2

Answer 152

Apprehending Persons in Private Dwelling. Private dwellings defined as base housing and temporary living quarters. They do not include dormitories, aircraft, vehicles, tents, and similar places.
7.8.1. Rule 312 (e)(2), Rules for Courts Martial requires SF to obtain permission before entering a private dwelling to make an apprehension.
7.8.2. Authority to apprehend is not required in the following instances:
7.8.2.1. Fresh pursuit.
7.8.2.2. Dispatch to an incident.
7.8.2.3. Potential for harm to others.
7.8.2.4. Destruction of evidence appears imminent.
7.8.3. If a search authorization for private dwelling has already been granted, separate authority to apprehend in a private dwelling is not necessary.
7.8.4. Permission could stem from the individual’s consent or authorization from a military magistrate.
7.8.5. Consent: as stated in search authorization, consent should always be the first consideration.
7.8.6. Authority to apprehend. If authority to apprehend is required, ensure a patrol maintains surveillance of the dwelling until apprehension authority is obtained.
7.8.6.1. Contact the SJA to substantiate probable cause.
7.8.6.2. If time permits, prepare an affidavit and seek apprehension authority from the magistrate.
7.8.6.3. Permission is not required during exigent circumstances when the potential for harm to others or destruction of evidence appears reasonably imminent.

Question 153

Crime Scenes (ref: AFI 31-115, para 12.1.2.6.2)

Answer 153

Provide first aid and ensure arrangements are made for medical attention
when an injured person is present. (T-1). The scene should not be disturbed except to
have medical aid given to the injured or to have a physician examine the deceased.
(T-3). Be aware of any alterations of the scene. Ensure a crime scene entry log is
maintained to determine who has entered and left the scene. (T-3). This will be
valuable at a later time when conducting interviews.

Question 154

DD Form 1920 (ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101, para 8.14.7.5)

Answer 154

If the person refuses to complete the FST or is too intoxicated to comply with the FST, annotate accordingly “By Observation Only” in Section III – Standardized Field Sobriety Testing remarks section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Influence Report. Remember, refusal should not deter you from documenting any performance or actions you observe on the DD Form 1920. For example, should the suspect wobble while walking from his/her vehicle to the patrol vehicle will be annotated.

Question 155

Cordons (Ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101 para 8.6.6.3)

Answer 155

Deny entry within the cordon and direct follow-on forces to the ECP.

Question 156

AFRL EALs (Ref: 412 SFS OI 31-101 para 3.8.1-3.8.3)

Answer 156

3.7.3.4. Visitor Entry, Unescorted:
3.7.3.4.1. Unescorted entry is based off of a valid and authenticated EAL
3.7.3.4.2. Entry Authorization Lists:
3.7.3.4.2.1. Personnel listed on these rosters are granted unescorted entry after they are positively identified and the AF FM 1109 Visitor Log is completed. They are not allowed escort privileges. All EALs must be authenticated by the NCOIC, Physical Security.
3.7.3.4.2.2. Unless noted on an EAL, non-duty hour access by visitors is prohibited unless annotated with the corresponding code listed on the EAL.
3.7.3.4.2.3. Entry Controller must visually inspect both sides of AF FM 1199.
3.7.3.5. Visitor Entry, Escorted:
3.7.3.5.1. Escorted entry may base off of a valid and authenticated EAL.
3.7.3.5.2. If the person requesting entry
3.7.3.5.3. Entry Authorization Lists:
3.7.3.5.3.1. Personnel listed on these rosters are granted unescorted entry after they are positively identified and the AF FM 1109 Visitor Log is completed. They are not allowed escort privileges. All EALs must be authenticated by the NCOIC, Physical Security.
3.7.3.5.3.2. Unless noted on an EAL, non-duty hour access by visitors is prohibited unless annotated with the corresponding code listed on the EAL.
3.7.3.5.4. Delivery Vehicles. (Must be clearly marked with a company name or logo)
3.7.3.5.4.1. The entry controller will:
3.7.3.5.4.1.1. Check the bill of lading and/or EAL to ensure the delivery is for the AFRL.
3.7.3.5.4.1.2. If the driver is carrying hazardous cargo, refer to paragraph 8.2.
3.7.3.5.4.1.3. Telephone the receiving agency to ensure the delivery is expected.
3.7.3.5.4.1.4. After verifying the delivery, sign in all occupants in the vehicle on the AF FM 1109, and issue each of them an AFRL Visitor Badge “V”.
3.7.3.5.4.1.5. Vehicles are not allowed to off/on load in the parking lot next to the gate.
3.7.3.5.4.1.6. Packages are not allowed to be left at the AFRL Gate for pickup.
3.7.3.6. Non-Official Visitors:
3.7.3.6.1. Fire department personnel are authorized visits by their immediate family (i.e. spouse and/or children) at any time. Visits will be verified by calling the fire department prior to allowing the visitor(s) to enter the AFRL. Have the family members sign in and out on the AF FM 1109 and annotate the family member to be visited. Fire department personnel must meet their visitor at the AFRL Gate and escort their visitor(s) at all times.
3.7.3.7. Foreign National Visitors
3.7.3.7.1. The AFRL Security Office and AFRL Foreign Disclosure Office is the only authority to coordinate visits by foreign nationals with the AFRL Gate. Notify AFRL Security Manager Personnel upon the arrival of any foreign national who has not been pre-announced. Foreign nationals will receive a Red AFRL Badge without a picture, with the letter “V” and have the words ‘ESCORT REQUIRED’ on the front of the badge. The AFRL sponsor of the foreign national(s) will obtain the badge(s) from the AFRL Gate when the expected visitor(s) has arrived. Issue a V-Badge once verification has been validated.
3.7.3.7.1.1. The foreign national will be signed in on the AF FM 1109 with the sponsor signing as the escort. The foreign nationals must stay with their escort at all times.
3.7.3.7.1.2. Unauthorized Foreign Nationals. If a foreign national(s) is/are not listed on the EAL, detain, identify and ascertain destination. Contact the ECC to initiate QRC. Note: Do not release foreign national(s) until authorized by the ECC.
3.7.3.8. Deliveries
3.7.3.8.1. All delivery vehicles will be searched, Commercial Vehicle Inspection Procedures prior to entering the AFRL. NOTE: No deliveries will occur when Golf 2 is closed without proper coordination through S3O.
3.7.3.8.2. Explosive Laden Vehicles (ELV)/Hazardous Cargo Vehicles (HCV) deliveries are allowed only during duty hours 0800-1500 unless authorized by the AFRL Site Operations Control Center (SOCC). Notify the AFRL Site Operation Command Center (SOCC) of delivery vehicle arrivals and request an escort at 5-5632, 5-5375 or 661-810-4479.
3.7.3.8.3. Hazardous Packages:
3.7.3.8.3.1. Hazardous packages marked for the AFRL will not be left at the AFRL Gate for pickup.
3.7.3.8.4. Explosive Laden Vehicles (ELV)/Hazardous Cargo Vehicles (HCV):
3.7.3.8.5. All commercial vehicles arriving at the AFRL Gate displaying “Explosive 1.1, 1.2 or 1.3”, or the “Poison and/or “Radioactive” placards must be inspected by AFRL Safety personnel before entering the site.
3.7.3.8.6. While conducting an inspection of a delivery vehicle, look for signs of leakage, vapor, or cloud emitting from the transport bed (check with the driver to ensure it is not part of the normal venting process). If leakage, vapor, or cloud is not part of the normal venting process, immediately contact the Emergency Communication Center (ECC)/AFRL Fire Department for donning of available C-2 or Fire H-Packs in the area.
3.7.3.8.6.1. If leakage, vapor, or a cloud is present, contact SOCC immediately. The vehicle may need to be immediately escorted to the suspect vehicle area, Area 1-36A Pad 9002 off Orion for AFRL.
3.7.3.8.7. Do not allow the vehicle to park in the parking lot, or off-load any cargo in the parking lot.
3.7.3.8.8. Do not allow the vehicle to stay at the gate longer than 10 minutes before proceeding to the hazardous cargo inspection area.
3.7.3.8.9. Direct the vehicle to the hazardous cargo inspection area (1/2 mile inside the AFRL on Mercury Blvd). If available, direct the security patrol to escort the vehicle and standby until the arrival of Safety personnel.
3.7.3.9. PHOTOGRAPHY. Photography is prohibited in the AFRL, unless approved by the AFRL Safety Office. All requests for photography must be made through the AFRL Safety Office. Contractor controlled areas/sites within the AFRL must also
comply with this requirement. Contact AFRL Security Manager at 275-5241 if unauthorized photography is discovered.
3.7.4. Echo-1 is the Internal Security Response Team (ISRT) for the Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL). Echo-1 provides an immediate security response to incidents involving Protection Level (PL) resources located within the restricted area.
3.7.5. Echo-2 is the External Security Response Team (ESRT) and AFRL area supervisor.

Question 157

Zone 2

Answer 157

Patrol Zones (412 TW IDP, para 3.e)

Zone 2 includes the Eastern portion of the base. The boundary includes the entire area of AFRL within the fence line/Controlled area boundary, the area south of 58 down to the intersection of Rocket Site Rd and Mercury Blvd, and west to the intersection of Mercury Blvd and the Santa Fe Trail (adjacent to the shuttle viewing area near 1 mile curve).

Question 158

Active Shooter Incidents (412 TW IDP, para 1.j)

Answer 158

Senior SF Representative. The ranking SF member on-scene will act as the senior SF representative until relived by the on-duty Flight Chief, Flight Commander or the S3O Superintendent/Officer, who will assume this position at their discretion. They are responsible for knowing the number of responding patrols at scene, team compositions, roles and armament, team locations in facility/building and up-to-date suspect actions to brief follow-on forces. The senior on-scene Security Forces representative will request assistance from the IC in the form of obtaining affected building/complex schematics for properly tracking and coordinating the various teams entering the building to facilitate situation resolution. This information, plus other critical data, must be transmitted to and documented by BDOC and/or EOC accordingly.

Question 159

Utilization of MWDs (412 TW IDP, para 5.d)

Answer 159

Military Working Dog Teams (MWD). MWDs will not be posted on static posts unless directed during increased FPCONs. MWDs will be utilized on walking patrols, RIEVCs, sweeps of Restricted Area parking locations and storage/building checks, etc.

Question 160

EAL procedures (412 SFOI 31-101 para 11.2.4.3)

Answer 160

The on-duty Flight Sergeant will authenticate each EAL by signing, dating, and initial each pages.

Question 161

PNAF procedures (Tab X to appendix 4 to annex C of 412 TW IDP 31, Vol 1 para 1.a)

Answer 161

The 412 TW/CC must be prepared to receive unscheduled PNAF aircraft IAW DoD 5210.41-M, Nuclear Weapons Security Manual and AF Sup 1 to DoD 5210.41M. Although some PNAF arrivals may be scheduled in advance, the most common occurrence would involve short notice arrivals due to an emergency, (aircraft or crew), or adverse weather at the primary landing site. Sufficient Security Forces personnel or READY Augmentee personnel must be available to support a diverted PNAF. Installation resources (i.e. manpower, vehicles, equipment, etc.) will be made available and diverted to the PNAF mission if necessary.

b. PNAF aircraft will be identified as requiring Type I (PL 1) or Type II (PL 2) security. Both Type I and II aircraft will be parked in established Restricted Areas. Ramp-1 will be the primary parking location.

c. All required tasks should be completed and support personnel standing by for reception of the aircraft one hour prior to arrival. A Security Forces patrol will meet the aircraft as it taxis off the runway and follow it to its parking location. Once parked, security will be established IAW AFI 31-101 as supplemented.

d. In case of emergency with the PNAF aircraft, emergency personnel (fire, crash, rescue, medical, etc.), may affect forced entry if required. A written report will be accomplished by the CP and sent to DOE within 24 hours to the following address:
Department of Energy Albuquerque Operations Center

ATTN: Director, Safeguard Physical Security Division
P.O Box 5400
Albuquerque, New Mexico 87185-5400

e. Overall command of PNAF operations rests with the 412 TW/CC. While the Type I/II PNAF aircraft is on station, the on-scene coordinator is responsible for resolving any problems and is authorized to task units involved directly or indirectly in PNAF support. BDOC is the point of contact on situations occurring while the aircrew is not present at the aircraft.

f. All equipment required in support of Type I/II aircraft operations will be available or in place one hour prior to aircraft arrival. The aircraft courier and the senior security supervisor will coordinate all security measures and procedures to ensure understa

Question 162

Catastrophic alarm procedures (Tab D to appendix 11 to annex C of 412 TW IDP 31, Vol para 2.a2)

Answer 162

The BDOC will recall alarmed facility alarm custodians to their facilities. Upon arrival, each custodian will be briefed they are responsible for guarding the facility until the alarm is repaired or resources are relocated to a facility providing appropriate protection.

Question 163

CLETS procedures (412 SFOI 31-101, para 5.5.2)

Answer 163

Desk Sergeants will receive training from a certified trainer prior to being certified as a Desk Sergeant. CLETS terminals must be operated by knowledgeable personnel who have been cleared by the California Department of Justice (DOJ).

Question 164

TACAMO ref: (TAB U TO APPENDIX 3 TO ANNEX C OF 412 TW IDP 31, Vol.1, para

Answer 164

1. The 412 TW/CC must be capable of providing support to the NAOC and TACAMO missions. Physical security requirements for NAOC and TACAMO aircraft are provided according to AFI 31-101. In most situations the aircraft will be considered a PL 1 resource unless otherwise dictated.

a. The 412 OSS/OSA will:

(1) Notify BDOC of any inbound NAOC or TACAMO mission affecting EAFB.

b. The 412 MXG/CC will:

(1) Ensure the MOC coordinates with the BDOC in selecting the location to park an inbound NAOC and TACAMO aircraft.

(2) Ensure all required support and equipment is provided.

c. The DFC will:

(1) Ensure SF are capable of providing the appropriate level of security for incoming aircraft.

(2) If incoming aircrafts provide their own security, ensure communication with BDOC is provided.

(3) Ensure checklists are established and implemented.

(4) Ensure required SF and boundary equipment are available 30 minutes prior to aircraft arrival.

(5) Ensure required physical security requirements for the assigned alert billets with single point access are IAW AFI 31-101.

(6) Upon engine shutdown, ensure senior SF representative coordinates roping of the aircraft. The established Restricted Area will be accomplished within 15 minutes of engine shutdown.

d. In the event of a SECURITY INCIDENT/COVERED WAGON involving the aircraft, the NAOC Security Team Chief will be notified and provide liaison between the NAOC Operations Team Chief and host base SF. During SECURITY INCIDENT/COVERED WAGON situations on board the aircraft, only NAOC security personnel will initially enter the aircraft in response to the hostilities.

e. If aircrafts do not provide security the following will be provided.

f. Posting requirements for Protection Level 1.

(1) Entry Controller, Close Boundary Sentry (CBS), ISRT, ESRT, and Area Supervisor.

g. Posting requirements for Protection Level 2.

(1) Entry Controller, CBS and ISRT.

h. Posting requirements for Protection Level 3.

(1) Supporting forces and owner/user personnel provide internal control and surveillance for aircraft parking areas.

i. SF will provide an ISRT in the Restricted Area. NOTE: ISRT may be responsible for multiple restricted areas.

Question 165

Cordon procedures (Ref: AFI 31-115 para 12.2.7.1)

Answer 165

.2.7.1. Cordon. A cordon surrounds the accident area where controls are established to
keep emergency responders safe and preclude unauthorized entry. Cordon sizes vary and
will be decided by the IC or be predetermined by local guidance. (T-3). Cordons typically
AFI31-115 18 AUGUST 2020 135
consist of military personnel and/or physical barriers that keep personnel out of the area
affected by the incident. The goal of the cordon is prevent contamination and/or injury to
both the personnel manning the cordon and the personnel they are keeping from the
scene.

Question 166

Locating suspects (Ref: SFTRG 2 vol 4 chapter 6, para 4)v

Answer 166

360-Degree Security. Defenders respond to a magnitude of situations. Some situations require us to establish security and enter a potentially hostile environment. The following steps will ensure you are in an advantageous position over any adversary. These steps are to be taken anytime 360-degree security is needed. As a minimum deploy as a two Defender team with each individual taking an opposite corner of the incident site, for maximum visual and tactical coverage. Do not block avenues of approach for other response units; remember that back-up forces may be needed.
The BDOC will relay a radio communication dispatching the senior ranking patrol to a particular building, with an additional patrol acting as a back-up. The senior ranking patrol will be defined either through written local guidance or through a localized manning matrix. The patrol will relay communication to BDOC in relation to their route of travel until they reach the incident site.
During timing, routes and execution of movement, Mission, Enemy, Terrain and Weather, Troops-Time Available and Civilian Considerations (METT-TC) factors should be considered simultaneous or phased. The responding senior patrol will advise additional patrols on where to set up security. Upon arriving at the incident site the patrol will relay their position to BDOC in relation to the main entrance of the building. At this point the patrol will set up 360-degree security on the building using the point system. Point one (1) will be to the left of the main entrance and will be taken up by the first patrol on-scene as long as it does not create a vulnerability. For example if taking up point one (1) has the Defender crossing the main entrance, you would dictate other patrols to take up that point. The Defender would take up the point opposite of point one which in this case is point three (3). Remember that METT-TC and building layouts will dictate the approach to setting up on the incident site. Point one (1) and all other subsequent points will be used and identified in a clockwise direction for a total of four (4) points (See Figure 22.1.). The last point being point four (4) will be to the immediate far right of the main entrance. Not all buildings are square or rectangular in shape therefore; take into account angles and the troops that may be needed for an accurate 360-degree coverage.
Defender actions at this point depend on a multitude of situations. Are there Personnel on Duty (POD) or not? If POD, BDOC will make telephonic contact with the personnel inside following local OI for the responding patrol to make contact with them and establish if a joint walk through of the facility has to be accomplished. If there is no POD, Defenders will maintain a 360 and tactfully make a sweep around the facility, use caution and ensure posted patrols know your location as you sweep, looking for signs of forced entry or any objects which may be out of place or could be demeaned an actual or possible hostile item. Forced entry could be identified as broken windows pry marks on doors or windows, doors kicked in any signs of damage. After a 360 sweep with negative signs of forced entry the on call facility manager will be notified of an immediate response by them for a walk through and securing of the facility. If there is signs of forced entry, maintain your 360 and have additional patrols respond to assist with going in and sweeping the building for suspects. In any situation remember an MWD can be a vital asset to use due to their ability to find suspects and the physiological effects the MWD has on personnel.
The below information is for all responses the only difference is if faced with an Active Shooter the first to the scene must immediately go in and neutralize the threat using the techniques below and as responding forces arrive they will integrate in and fill the role of member 2, 3 and so on. If you respond and positions are already filled with members then you will be placed by the Defender in charge of securing any additional position identified, examples could be hallways, exterior exits additional floors as one is cleared, setting up as members to go in an provide immediate medical evacuation.
Once the on-scene commander has determined that the 360-degree security has been established, communication will be made to BDOC acknowledging security of the building. Local operating instructions will provide guidance for additional steps to be taken based upon the particular alarm, the location and further pending information. If at this point it is determined that entry of the building will be made see figure
Cordon. A cordon surrounds the accident area where controls are established to keep emergency responders safe and preclude unauthorized entry. Cordon sizes vary and will be decided by the IC or
be predetermined by local guidance. Some incidents require an evacuation. The type of incident, amount/type of materials involved and weather conditions are some factors that influence the size of the cordon. Cordons typically consist of military personnel and/or physical barriers that keep personnel out of the area affected by the incident. The goal of the cordon is prevent contamination and/or injury to both the personnel manning the cordon and the personnel they are keeping from the scene.
As the situation matures and the type and scope of the problem is identified, the cordon is redefined based upon that information. US Department of Transportation Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration 2016 Emergency Response Guidebook, lists initial cordon sizes for most hazardous material (HAZMAT) incidents. The EM flight may advise on evacuation and cordon size based upon type and size.
Establish Incident Entry and TCPs and Requirements. Isolating the scene of the incident takes place when the emergency is discovered. If possible, the first patrol on-scene should secure the scene and control access, but no one should be placed in physical danger to perform these functions. Access to the incident scene must be limited to persons directly involved in the response. An ACP must be established with along with Control Zones. Access through the ACP is only allowed with the permission of the IC or designated representative.
ACP. The ACP is where ingress and egress of all responders from an incident cordon takes place and is controlled by Defenders or other government agencies. During an incident, the ACP is established upwind or crosswind of the incident site and at the established evacuation distance. The initial ACP location can change as new information is gathered during site assessment. During natural disasters the ACP, in most cases, is located for ease of resource entry to the incident area or region.
ACP Locations: Each incident site must be cordoned and an ACP established.
• Initially located upwind or crosswind if upwind is not available, on the perimeter of the cordon, within a 90-degree arc on either side of the current surface wind.

• The ACP must be clearly marked for easy recognition by responding forces. At night, vehicle, flood or similar lights should illuminate the ACP.

• The ACP may be relocated to enhance entry and exit control procedures.

• When conditions (i.e. inclement weather) arise and relocation is not feasible, personnel manning ACPs and cordon/TCPs should shelter in place or seek the closest cover/protection available.

Once The ACP is established, the IC will notify BDOC of the location using the grid coordinate of the location from their location installation grid map.
BDOC will establish the TCP(s) to secure the cordon around the incident site. TCP’s are placed to keep personnel out of the area affected by the incident, prevent contamination and/or injury to
both the personnel manning the cordon and the personnel they are keeping from the scene (i.e… streets, intersections, parking lots, etc.). TCPs should be located at road intersections as well as areas of pedestrian traffic.
BDOC will relay the coordinates of each TCP with a location, number and a call sign for the IC. (TCP #1 is Defender 9 at Grid coordinate H4).
TCPs are established at locations which offer movement into an area. Defenders use these points to control personnel from entering into an effected area.
Defenders execute operational and tactical security procedures to ensure the safety and security of emergency RFs and populations at risk. Defenders provide initial site and incident cordon security functions. In addition, they respond to natural disasters on the installation, establish locations for protection of classified materials, identify and secure TCP, direct identification of personnel entering the incident site, coordinate with local law enforcement agencies and advise the IC on Defender issues during establishment of an NDA at CONUS locations.
Only trained personnel perform advanced security measures. Entrance locations into the controlled zones are determined by the IC.

Question 167

Aircraft procedures (Ref: Tab t to appendix 3 to annex C of 412 TW IDP 31, vol para 2.b.2.d)

Answer 167

(2) Ensure Distinguished Visitor (DV) Aircraft procedures are established and used.

(3) Inform Security Forces of the arrival, parking arrangements and departure of all DV aircraft.

c. The 412 TW/CC will ensure the mission support aircraft parking area (excluding designated Restricted Areas) is designated as a Controlled area under the provisions of AFI 31-101.

d. The 412 SFS/CC will ensure on-duty SF posts and patrols are capable of providing the appropriate level of security for mission aircraft and are capable of responding to any and all hostile incidents.

Question 168

Blocking Actions (ref: TAB T TO APPENDIX 3 TO ANNEX C OF 412 TW ICP 31, VOL 1 PARA 2.b.2.b)

Answer 168

Upon initial notification from airfield management operations, dispatch a mobile element to follow the taxiing aircraft to its parking spot. Coordinate SF response with the Control Tower if blocking actions are necessary. A SECURITY INCIDENT/COVERED WAGON report will not be submitted unless hostility is detected.

Question 169

RAMP 1

Answer 169

MPA, primary pkng for f16, b1, b52

Question 170

Ramp 6

Answer 170

Cargo AC

Question 171

Ramp 7

Answer 171

F22