Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BME Engphy > Qbank1 > Flashcards

Qbank1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The resting membrane potential of a cell is the consequence of which of the following concentrations of ions?

(A) High K+ and Cl− outside the cell and high Na+ and large anions inside the cell.
(B) High K+ and Na+ outside the cell and high Cl− and large anions inside the cell.
(C) High Cl− and Na+ outside the cell and high K+ and large cations inside the cell.
(D) High Ca2+ and Na+ outside the cell and high K+ and large cations inside the cell.

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Membrane proteins perform the following functions EXCEPT one. Which One?
    (A) form the glycocalyx.
    (B) act as receptor proteins.
    (C) form pores to allow the passage of small solutes.
    (D) behave as enzymes.
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct for intra-cellular fluid (ICF) and extra-cellular fluid (ECF)?
    (A) the ECF is part of the ICF
    (B) the majority of the body’s water is in the ECF
    (C) the ICF contains more sodium than the ECF
    (D) the ICF contains more potassium than the ECF
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which is not the ‘’principal carrier modes’’?

(A) facilitated diffusion
(B) passive diffusion
(C) primary active transport
(D) secondary active transport

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. The transport maximum (Tm) is the intersection of which two concentration lines?
    (A) simple transport and primary active transport
    (B) facilitated diffusion and secondary active transport
    (C) simple diffusion and Carrier mediated transport
    (D) simple diffusion and primary active transport
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which is not “Second messengers’’

(A) cAMP
(B) cGMP
(C) IP3
(D) ATP

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which is not the ‘’Ion-channel structure’’?

(A) Activation
(B) Selectivity
(C) Conductance
(D) Convenience

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. ____?____: Translocate to the nucleus and bind to hormone response elements within the promoter region of target genes.

(A) Intracellular receptors
(B) Catalytic receptors
(C) G protein–coupled receptors
(D) All of the above

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which resting potential of typical nerve cell is correct?

(A) -100mV
(B) -70mV
(C) 90mV
(D) 1000mV

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which ion is involved in contraction of muscle cells?

(A) Na＋
(B) Ca2＋
(C) K＋
(D) Cl－

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. In voltage-gated ion channels, which one of six spanning domains is for voltage sensory?

(A) S1
(B) S2
(C) S3
(D) S4

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which of the following is not belonging to ligand-gated groups?

(A) Cys-loop superfamily
(B) Ionotropic glutamate receptors
(C) Sensory Channels
(D) ATP receptors

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. A researcher examined the epithelial cells of the small intestine in patients with inflammatory bowel disease and found that the affected area had lower electrical impedance, whereas the healthy area had higher electrical impedance. What is inferred to be a characteristic of healthy epithelial cells?
    (A) There is a weaker trans-epithelial ion gradient.
    (B) is a transport protein that is specialized for iso-permeability.
    (C) has a thicker basement membrane.
    (D) The tight junctions are highly impenetrable.
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. A 52-year-old woman presented with palpitations and dizziness. An electrocardiogram shows atrial fibrillation due to a high expression of connexin type 43. Which of the following is the best description of a normal connexin?
    (A) It opens during depolarization of the cell membrane
    (B) Highly ion selective
    (C) Mediates Ca2+ flow from extracellular to intracellular
    (D) Aids in the transfer of electrical current between tissues.
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Hypokalemia is rare in healthy individuals. Which of the following would tend to increase 𝐾+ uptake via the transport epithelium and be transferred to the circulatory system?
    (A) Negative potential differences in the lumen
    (B) Increased intercellular water uptake
    (C) Increased sodium and potassium pumping activity
    (D) High intercellular potassium concentration.
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which of the following coefficients measures the ease with which a solute crosses the plasma membrane?

(A) Cell constant
(B) Fugacity coefficient

(C) Activity coefficient
(D) Reflection coefficient

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. In what ways do cells not respond to changes in osmotic pressure?
    (A) RVI
    (B) RVD
    (C) Change the composition of the cell membrane
    (D) None of above
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a parameter required to calculate osmotic pressure?

(A) Solute concentration
(B) Absolute temperature

(C) Gas constant
(D) All of the above

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. What is the main buffer for interstitial fluid?

(A) protein
(B) HPO42-

(C) HCO3-
(D) Hemoglobin

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What is the most abundant monovalent cation in a cell?

(A) Na+
(B) Rb+

(C) K+
(D) Choline

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of the following is the optimum pH value for extracellular fluid?

(A) 6.5
(B) 7.0

(C) 7.4
(D) 7.8

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. A 52-year-old woman presented with palpitations and lightheadedness. Electrocardiogram showed atrial fibrillation due to high expression of connexin type 43. Which of the following is the best description for connexins?
    (A) opens when the cell membrane is depolarized
    (B) highly ion-selective
    (C) only in the heart
    (D) Facilitates the transfer of electricity between tissues
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. A researcher examined small intestinal epithelial cells from patients with inflammatory bowel disease and found that the affected areas had lower electrical resistance, while healthy areas had higher electrical resistance. Which is an inference for healthy epithelial cells?
    (A) Has a weak transepithelial ion gradient
    (B) specialized isotonic transport protein
    (C) have a thicker basement membrane
    (D) Tight junctions are highly impenetrable
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Hypokalemia is rare in healthy individuals. Which of the following tends to increase K+ uptake via the transport epithelium for transfer to the circulatory system?
    (A) chamber negative potential difference
    (B) Increased water uptake between cells
    (C) Increased sodium potassium pump activity
    (D) top glucose co-transport
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Which of the following is the insulating material that enhances signal-transmission rate?

(A) Dentrites
(B) Myelin

(C) Axon hillock
(D) Soma

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Which of the following is not amino acid as neurotransmitter?

(A) Glycine
(B) Dopamine

(C) Aspartate
(D) Glutamate

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

3.Which of the following is the correct order of layers from inner to outside peripheral nerve?
(A) Epineurium -> Fascicle -> Perineurium
(B) Perineurium -> Nerve fiber -> Epineurium
(C) Nerve fiber -> Perineurium -> Epineurium
(D) Nerve fiber -> Epineurium -> Perineurium

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which of the following is not cerebral cortex?

(A) Primary sensory area
(B) Brainstem

(C) Supplementary motor area
(D) Associative area

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Which of the following is not the function of CSF?

(A) Provide buoyancy
(B) Shock absorption

(C) Nerve conduction
(D) Maintain homeostasis

A

c

30
Q
  1. Which of the following structure produces CSF?

(A) Arachnoid villi
(B) Blood-CSF barrier

(C) Choroid plexus
(D) Venous sinus

A

c

31
Q
  1. Which of the following preganglionic neurons are relatively longer?

(A) Sympathetic
(B) Parasympathetic

(C) Both are the same
(D) All above are wrong

A

b

32
Q
  1. Which of the following effector organs are controlled by ANS?

(A) Cardiac muscle
(B) Smooth muscle

(C) Glands
(D) All of the above

A

d

33
Q
  1. Which of the following the main areas involved in autonomic control?

(A) Brainstem
(B) Hypothalamus

(C) Limbic system
(D) All of the above

A

d

34
Q
  1. What is the name of the master clock responsible for circadian rhythms?

(A) Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)
(B) Hippocampus

(C) Pineal gland
(D) Anterior thalamic nuclei

A

a

35
Q
  1. What is the function of the limbic system?
    (A) It controls the body’s circadian rhythms
    (B) It regulates blood pressure and digestion
    (C) It strongly influences autonomic activity and controls emotions and motivational drives
    (D) It allows melatonin to be released into the circulation directly
A

c

36
Q
  1. What is the effect of light falling on the retina on melatonin synthesis and secretion?
    (A) It activates the sympathetic pathways from the SCN to the pineal gland and inhibits AA-NAT activity
    (B) It inhibits the sympathetic pathways from the SCN to the pineal gland and activates AA-NAT activity
    (C) It activates the parasympathetic pathways from the SCN to the pineal gland and inhibits AA-NAT activity
    (D) It inhibits the parasympathetic pathways from the SCN to the pineal gland and activates AA-NAT activity
A

a

37
Q
  1. ____ is a structure which optic nerves meet and merge in front of the pituitary gland.

(A) Cornea
(B) Optic chiasm

(C) Retina
(D) Sclera

A

b

38
Q
  1. ____ absorbs light in our eyes.

(A) Cornea
(B) Optic chiasm

(C) Retina
(D) Sclera

A

c

39
Q
  1. ____ , a G protein–coupled receptor detect and reportthe conformational change of retinal

(A) Cornea
(B) Opsin

(C) Retinal
(D) Sclera

A

b

40
Q
  1. Which bone isn’t in Middle ear with following options?

(A) Malleus
(B) Incus

(C) bony labyrinth
(D) Stapes

A

c

41
Q
  1. Which following options isn’t part of Vestibular system?

(A) Otolith organs
(B) Semicircular canals

(C) Organ of Corti
(D) All of the above

A

c

42
Q
  1. Which system in the ear is responsible for maintaining balance?

(A) Cochlear system
(B) Vestibular system

(C) Auditory system
(D) Tympanic system

A

b

43
Q
  1. Sugars are sensed by a single GPCR with __________heterodimeric composition:

(A) T1R2—T1R5
(B) T1R2—T1R3

(C) T1R1—T1R2
(D) T1R3—T1R5

A

b

44
Q
  1. When __________open, they allow ATP to diffuse out of the cell and enter the interstitium.

(A) pannexins
(B) Troponin

(C) kinesin
(D) connexins

A

a

45
Q
  1. Receptor neurons are formed from olfactory epithelial basal cells, which are_________________

(A) embryonic stem cells
(B) adult stem cells

(C) neuroblast stem cells
(D) blood stem cells

A

c

46
Q
  1. Primary receptors yields a __________ response to muscle stretching. Firing rate __________ when the length of muscle changes.

(A) dynamic / increase
(B) dynamic / decrease

(C) static / increase
(D) static / remain

A

a

47
Q
  1. Which of the following disease is more possibly caused by basal ganglia dysfunction?

(A) Intention tremors
(B) Ataxia

(C) Parkinson’s disease
(D) Alzheimer’s disease

A

c

48
Q
  1. What happened when the striatum is activated in direct path (basal ganglia feedback circuits)?
    (A) The activity of the IGP increases, causing the motor activity decreases.
    (B) Subthalamic nucleus stimulate thalamus directly, causing the motor activity increases.
    (C) EGP is inhibited by IGP, resulting the motor activity increases.
    (D) The activity of the IGP decreases, which allows the thalamus to stimulate the motor cortex.
A

d

49
Q
  1. How many Skeletal muscles percentage of total body mass in an average person?

(A) 30%
(B) 40%

(C) 50%
(D) 60%

A

b

50
Q
  1. “The main body is composed of two heavy chains, each of which is a golf club–shaped polypeptide with a head; neck; and a long, coiled tail” This message refers to which one’s structure?

(A) Skeletal muscle
(B) Actin

(C) Myosin
(D) Sarcoplasm

A

c

51
Q
  1. What is true about Dystrophin?
    (A) Binds the ends of thin filaments to the Z disks.
    (B) A massive protein. One end is attached to a Z disk, the other to the thick filaments. It forms a spring that limits how much the sarcomere can be stretched.
    (C) A large protein associated with Z disks. It helps anchor the contractile array to the cytoskeleton and surface membrane.
    (D) Associates with and extends the length of an actin filament. It is believed to act as a molecular ruler that determines thin-filament length during assembly.
A

c

52
Q
  1. Smooth muscle is found in which of the following organs?

(A) Heart
(B) Lungs

(C) Intestines
(D) All of the above

A

c

53
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a type of smooth muscle?

(A) Visceral smooth muscle
(B) Multiunit smooth muscle

(C) Cardiac smooth muscle
(D) Single-unit smooth muscle

A

c

54
Q
  1. Smooth muscle cells are characterized by which of the following?

(A) One nucleus per cell
(B)Long, branching fibers

(C) Many nuclei per cell
(D) Striations

A

a

55
Q
  1. load on muscle in relaxed state (before it contract) is?

(A) Preload
(B) Afterload

(C) Stimulation Frequency
(D) Recruitment

A

a

56
Q
  1. Synthetic derivates of physostigmine are used to diagnose and treat the symptoms of the autoimmune disease of?

(A) Ache
(B) nAChR

(C) myasthenia gravis
(D) Paralysis

A

c

57
Q
  1. Ion channels that open in response to binding of two ACh molecules to mediate
    a joint Na and K flux across the sarcolemma is?

(A) acetylcholine (ACh)
(B) nicotinic ACh receptors (nAChRs)

(C) Sodium channels
(D) Signal termination

A

b

58
Q
  1. Which chemical element is most important for smooth muscle contraction and relaxation?

(A) K+
(B) Zn+

(C) Ca2+
(D) Cu2+

A

c

59
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the sources of calcium that drives smooth muscle contraction?

(A) Calcium influx
(B) Calcium-induced calcium release

(C) Inositol trisphosphate
(D) Sodium–potassium pump

A

d

60
Q
  1. Because myosin phosphorylation is required for smooth muscle contraction, it is said to be ___?

(A) Thick-filament regulated
(B) Thin-filament regulated

(C) Short-filament regulated
(D) Long-filament regulated

A

a

61
Q
  1. How many bones make up the human skeleton?

(A) 306
(B) 603

(C) 206
(D) 602

A

c

62
Q
  1. Bone design represents a compromise between …

(A) Strength and weight
(B) Flexibility and strength

(C) Stress resistant and weight
(D) Stress resistant and flexibility

A

a

63
Q
  1. Collagen in bone aids in …
    (A) Providing weight and flexibility
    (B) Providing tensile resistance and weight
    (C) Providing tensile and shear resistance
    (D) Providing weight and shear resistance
A

c

64
Q
  1. Deposition of new bone after fracture usually occurs with a view to speed rather than strength which results in …

(A) Knitted bone
(B) Woven bone

(C) Sewn bone
(D) Knotted bone

A

b

65
Q
  1. There are three main forces driving bone remodeling, except…

(A) Mechanical stress
(B) Microdamage

(C) Osteoclasts
(D) Hormones

A

c

66
Q
  1. How long the bone remodeling sequence in total?

(A) ~ 1 year
(B) ~ 200 days

(C) ~ 400 days
(D) ~ 500 days

A

b

67
Q
  1. The group of disorders in which the balance between bone resorption and formation is tipped in favor of osteoclasts is the common for…

(A) Osteoblast
(B) Osteoporosis

(C) Osteoprotegerin
(D) Osteoclasts

A

b

68
Q
  1. What cellular component in the dermis that is similar to Langerhans cell in epidermis?

(A) Dermal dendritic cells
(B) Macrophages

(C) Fibroblast
(D) Mast cells

A

a

69
Q
  1. Which epidermal component is responsible for determining skin hue?

(A) Keratinocytes
(B) Merkel cells

(C) Melanocytes
(D) Langerhans cells

A

c

70
Q
  1. The middle layer of hair structure is?

(A) Cuticle
(B) Medulla

(C) Cortex
(D) Shaft

A

c

71
Q
  1. The portion that protrudes beyond the epidermis is known as the hair shaft. The shaft emerges from?

(A) Hair follicle
(B) Skin

(C) Cortex
(D) Medulla

A

a

72
Q
  1. What type of sweat gland that has the greatest concentrations being found on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet?

(A) Apocrine
(B) Eccrine

(C) Hypodermis
(D) Apoeccrine

A

b

BME Engphy (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions