Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OBGYN > Qbank, Pretest, Uwise > Flashcards

Qbank, Pretest, Uwise Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of puerperal fever 2 or 3 days postpartum?

A

Endometritis- polymicrobial infection, treat with clindamycin and gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the cutoff to differentiate chronic HTN and HTN 2/2 pregnancy?

A

20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most commonly identified risk factor for placenta abruption?

A

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is another treatment for Chlamydia besides doxycycline?

A

Single dose of azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A woman admitted for delivery has repetitive decreases in fetal heart rate at the same time as contractions and end before contractions stop- definition and likely diagnosis?

A

Early decelerations

Most likely fetal head compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is late deceleration different than early?

A

Late continues after contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does clomiphene work?

A

Improves GnRH and FSH release thereby inducing ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the name for plan B

A

Levonorgestrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A mother @ 28 weeks gestation comes in and the baby has no heart sounds and no fetal movements. A dead fetus is evacuated- next step

A

Autopsy of fetus to look for cause of death- can treat possible recurrence in future pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment for lactation suppression?

A

Tight fitting bra and ice packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should be done when placenta abruptio is diagnosied?

A

If in labor- vaginal delivery with augmentation of labor
If not in labor- no cervical changes- then C section

Why? Retroplacental hemorrhage is impetus for DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A 7 year old girl with precocious puberty and a pelvic mass has what type of tumor?

A

Granulosa cell tumor- secretes estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 36 year old woman presents with abnormal uterine bleeding, stable vital signs, and normal hemoglobin- next step?

A

Endometrial biopsy to r/o hyperplasia or carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diagnostic test for fetal down’s syndrome?

A

Chronic villus sampling between 10-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens to patients taking levothyroxine during pregnancy?

A

Must Increase dose- estrogen causes increased metabolism so increase dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens to BUN and Cr during pregnancy?

A

Both decrease due to increase renal plasma flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An antepartum hemorrhage with fetal heart changes from tachycardia to bradycardia with normal vital signs in mother is typical presentation of what?

A

Ruptured fetal umbilical vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the treatment of choice for endometrial hyperplasia WITHOUT atypia?

A

Cyclic progestins for 3-6 months then repeat biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A patient with vaginal discharge has a vaginal pH of 5.5- what are two presenting symptom that can differentiate bacterial vaginosis from trichomonas- both present with pH > 4.5?

A

Trichomonas causes erythema and pruritus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the best test for syphilis diagnosis?

A

Dark-field micrscopy- RPR has a high false negative rate!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A patient at 42 weeks gestation is stable- what should she be monitored for? How?

A

Oligohydramnios is associated with prolonged pregnancy

Monitor with twice weekly US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A patient presents with virilization and undetectable estrogen with high FSH and LH- diagnosis?

A

Aromatase deficiency- cannot convert testosterone to estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three antibiotics used for treatment of UTIs in pregnancy?

A

Nitrofurantoin, Amoxicillin, Cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is one way to convert a breech presentation to cephalic after 36 weeks?

A

External cephalic version- however must be prepared for emergent C section if fetal distress occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment for lichen sclerosis?

A

Topical corticosteroids

Use topical estrogen for vaginal atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A biophysical profile assesses fetal tone, fetal movements, breathing movements, amniotic fluid volume, and nonstress test- if the score is low what should be done and what does this show?

A

Immediate delivery due to fetal asphyxiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does placenta previa present as?

A

Painless 3rd trimester bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the triad of hydatidiform mole? How can it be ruled out?

A

Enlarged uterus, hyperemesis, b-hcg > 100,000

Get b-hcg level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In the workup of primary amenorrhea, what is the next step if there is a uterus on US? What if there is no uterus?

A

Uterus- get FSH- increased indicates peripheral cause whereas decrease indicates central cause (get MRI)
No Uterus- get karyotpying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What disease presents with pruritis and increased serum bile acids during 2nd or 3rd trimester? Tx?

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Tx is symptomatic- ursodeoxycholic acid is first line
Condition will resolve after pregnancy, but increased risk of gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A 75 year old tests + for blood on UA but is asymptomatic- next step?

A

Urine cultures for infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name the vaginal cyst by location:
Anterior vaginal wall
Posterior vaginal wall
Vulva

A

Anterior vaginal wall- Gartner’s duct
Posterior vaginal wall- Inclusion cyst
Vulva- Bartholins duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are 4 medications used to treat endometriosis?

A

OCPs, continuous progestins, danazole, and GnRH analogues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Adipose tissue changes andostenedione to what estrogen?

A

Estrone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the diagnostic test for luteal phase defect?

A

Endometrial biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
Name the day that the following procedures should be performed?
Hysterosalpingogram
Postcoital test
Endometrial biopsy for infertility
Progesterone level for ovulation
A

Hysterosalpingogram- day 8
Postcoital test- day 14
Endometrial biopsy for infertility- day 26
Progesterone level for ovulation- day 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are estrogens effects on lipid profile?

A

Increase in HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the use of a cystometrogram?

A

Determine if patient has normal bladder sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If intraoperatively a ureteral injury is diagnosed what is the best treatment?

A

Reimplantation into the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is bladder dyssynergia?

A

Common cause of urge incontinence, treat with oxybutynin or TCAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Kegel exercises work for which cause of incontinence?

A

Stress incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the major cause of back pain in the third trimester?

A

Lumbar lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A 25 year old presents with infertility and chronic pelvic pain- most likely diagnosis?

A

Endometriosis- can even have ovarian mass!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the most common cause of cervicitis?

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A woman @ 36 weeks gestation has sudden onset of severe abdominal pain- diagnosis? Typically will see bleeding as well

A

Abruptio placenta- most common risk factor? HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How are thyroid labs different during pregnancy?

A

Increased total T4 but normal TSH because bhcg stimulates TSH receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the most common cause of asymmetric intrauterine growth

A

Maternal causes- HTN very common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is beta hcg most important direct role in pregnancy?

A

Maintenance of the corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What neoplasm is associated with OCP use?

A

Hepatic adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Name a couple of contraindications to IUDs?

A

Cancer, pregnancy, copper allergy, PID, acute cervicitis, postpartum endometritis

51
Q

What is the most common immediate complication of a vasectomy?

A

Hematoma

52
Q

How is fetal blood returned to the umbilical arteries and placenta?

A

Hypogastric arteries

53
Q

A single umbilical artery is an indicator of increased fetal morbidity and mortality- what is one risk factor?

A

maternal diabetes

54
Q

A velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord is associated with increased risk of what?

A

Fetal exsanguination before labor

55
Q

Is bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter normal during pregnancy or require further work up?

A

Normal

56
Q

What is the diagnosis when the placenta invades the superficial lining of the uterus and can result in difficulty removing the placenta and PPH

A

Placenta accreta

57
Q

Uterine atony/ boggy uterus can be caused by what type of placenta?

A

Succenturiate placenta

58
Q

Match the fetal heart rate with the diagnosis?
Sinusoidal
Saltatory

A

Sinusoidal- Rh isoimmunization

Saltatory- depressed fetuses and low APGAR scores

59
Q

What is the best way to assess fetal heart action before 12 weeks?

A

Transvaginal sonogram

60
Q

A fetal heart tracing with tachycardia, absent variability, and late decelerations is indicative of what? Treatment?

A

Fetal metabolic acidosis

C section

61
Q

Most common complications of polyhydramnios (3)?

A

Uterine dysfunction, PPH, placental abruption

62
Q

What is the most common infection following C section? Treatment?

A

Metritis

Tx- cephalosporins

63
Q

Why should a breasteeding mother avoid OCPs?

A

Suppress lactation

64
Q

A patient presents with chronic pelvic pain, typically worse premenstrually. Not pregnant, no fever or discharge. Diagnosis and confirmatory test?

A

Endometriosis, laparoscopy

65
Q

What is the risk associated with endometriosis? (2)

A

Infertility, endometrial cancer

66
Q

How can a mother with Graves disease cause thyrotoxicosis in her neonate?

A

Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin crosses the placenta

67
Q

A newborn has micocephaly, hypoplasia of the fingers and toes, excess hair, and a cleft lip and palate. Diagnosis?

A

Fetal hydantoin syndrome- mom was taking phenytoin

68
Q

What neonatal GI complication is associated with gestational diabetes? Hematologic? Metabolic?

A

Small left colon syndrome
Polycythemia
Hypocalcemia, hypoglycemia

69
Q

What is the most useful parameter for predicting fetal weight by ultrasound in suspected fetal growth retardation?

A

Abdominal circumference

70
Q

What does the quad screen show in Down’s

A

Increased beta hcg, inhibin

Decreased estriol, MSAFP

71
Q

What is the association between hypothyroid and hyperprolactinemia?

A

TRH stimulates prolactin

72
Q

A G1P0 patient presents with bleeding and pain. Cervix is dilated- diagnosed with inevitable or incomplete abortion with stable vitals. What is the next step?

A

IV fluids, suction curretage, and RhoGAM

73
Q

Why do female athletes have amenorrhea?

A

Estrogen deficiency

74
Q

A patient with post-partum hemorrhage fails to lactate- why?

A

Sheehan’s syndrome leads to prolactin deficiency

75
Q

A G4P4 patient has vaginal bleeding following a long labor. Uterus feels soft- diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Uterine atony

Oxytocin

76
Q

What is a risk of the use of tocolytics?

A

Pulmonary edema, can lead to respiratory depression with toxic levels (>11)

77
Q

A women at 16 weeks has a snowstorm appearance- what test must be ordered?

A

Chest X ray- common site of metastasis

78
Q

A patient in active labor has umbilical cord prolapse, next step?

A

C section

79
Q

A mother has type 1 diabetes- will her babies be large/small, hyper/hypoglycemic?

A

Small and hypoglycemic

80
Q

A patient from OSH comes in with preterm premature rupture of membranes- first step?

A

Prophylactic penicillin due to unknown GBS status

81
Q

A G1P0 @ 34 weeks comes in status post MVA with intense abdominal pain- what must be ruled out?

A

Uterine rupture

82
Q

A patient is still menstruating but is experiencing hot flashes and insomnia- what is next step?

A

FSH and LH

83
Q

A patient comes in febrile three days after an abortion at an outside clinic. US shows irregular and echogenic thick endometrial stripe, uterus is 6 weeks size- next step?

A

Suction curettage to remove products of conception- this is septic abortion

84
Q

What is the treatment for idiopathic precocious puberty and why?

A

GnRH agonists to prevent premature epiphyseal plate fusion

85
Q

What public health measure would be the best way to decrease the amount of fetal growth retardation?

A

Smoking cessation- #1 cause of FGR in USA

86
Q

Trichloroacetic acid is used for the treatment of which disease?

A

HPV lesions

87
Q

A teenager girl has irregular periods following menarche. She bleeds 3 days after progesterone treatment. Diagnosis?

A

Immaturity of hypothalamic pituitary access- probably low GnRH, FSH, or LH

88
Q

What is indicated following repetitive late decelerations?

A

Emergent C section- late decels a sign of fetal distress

89
Q

A patient has a family history of thalassemia- first test?

A

CBC is first

hgb electrophoresis is best

90
Q

A patient has a HGSIL on Pap smear during pregnancy with negative colposcopy as follow up- next step?

A

Repeat cytology and colposcopy after pregnancy

91
Q

What is the size cutoff for surgical resection of vaginal cancer?

A

2 cm- anything larger should get radiation

92
Q

Is the uterus enlarged in endometriosis?

A

NO

Enlarged uterus–> think adenomyosis, fibroids, cancer

93
Q

What is the treatment for mild preeclampsia at 32 weeks? When to use mg?

A

Bed rest and frequent follow up
Use Mg for prevention of ecclamptic seizures. Always give within 24 hours of pregnancy and in severe cases up to 24 hours after pregnancy- look for pulmonary edema and areflexia as side effects

94
Q

PCOS increases the risk for which cancer?

A

Endometrial cancer- anovulation increases risk of endometrial cancer

95
Q

A post-menopausal woman presents with an adenexal mass confirmed on ultrasound- next step?

A

CA-125 levels are helpful to differentiate benign from malignant lesions

96
Q

What fibroids are most likely to cause sub fertility?

A

Sub mucosal

97
Q

A 50 year old comes in with a uterus at 14 weeks, most likely fibroids what is the next step?

A

Get biopsy to rule out malignancy

98
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of endometrial cancer?

A

Post menopausal vaginal bleeding

99
Q

A post menopausal patient has bleeding and endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. A adenexal mass is seen on ultrasound- most likely diagnosis.

A

Estrogen secreting tumor such as granulosa theca tumor

100
Q

A 23 yo patient presents asymptomatic with an ovarian mass on ultrasound- most likely diagnosis?

A

Functional ovarian cyst

101
Q

When do you give zidovudine during pregnancy for someone with HIV and viral load.?

A

At time of delivery to mom and baby after delivery

102
Q

A patient comes in at 8 weeks gestation for prenatal care. She has strong family history of diabetes and is obese- when should she be screened with 1 hr GTT?

A

ASAP due to string family history or personal history

103
Q

A woman has symptomatic mitral valve prolapse during pregnancy- treatment?

A

Beta blockers

104
Q

Which SSRI is contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Paroxetine

105
Q

What imaging is used to diagnose appendicitis during pregnancy?

A

Graded compression ultrasound

106
Q

What on fetal ultrasound is explained by Rh disease?

A

Pericardial or pleural effusion

107
Q

Where on the uterus can a fibroid be an indication to primary c section?

A

Lower uterine segment

108
Q

Twin-twin transfusion most commonly occurs in what type of twins?

A

Mono chorionic diamniotic

109
Q

What is the treatment for twins if one is breech and one is vertex?

A

C section both

110
Q

A patient at 23 weeks with twins is discovered to have had a fetal demise for one of the twins at 21 weeks- next step?

A

Maternal fibrinogen levels

111
Q

What is the treatment for arrest of the active phase of labor

A

Oxytocin, placement of IUPC. C section only if everything else fails or baby looks in trouble

112
Q

What is the treatment of an unfavorable cervix prior to use of oxytocin?

A

Cytotec (misoprostol)

113
Q 
When are the following tocolytics contraindicated?
Terbutaline
Ritodrine
Indomethacin
Mag sulfate
A

Terbutaline- dM
Ritodrine-DM
Indomethacin-after 33 weeks due to closure of PDA
Mag sulfate- myasthenia gravis

114
Q

A patient at 28 weeks has a fever, tender uterus, and elevated WBC. next step?

A

Induction of delivery

115
Q

What reduces the risk of preterm PROM?

A

17-alpha-hydroxyprogesterone

116
Q

What part of reproductive tract should be tested for nitrazine and fern testing?

A

Vagina- not cervix

117
Q

A patient has a 2000mL post partum hemorrhage- IV is in place, uterus is boggy, no lacerations present. Next step? (3)

A

IM prostaglandin F2, oral misoprostol, IV oxytocin are your options

118
Q

A patient with PpH has failed conservative and medical management. First step in OR

A

B-Lynch suture to compress uterus to conserve fertility

119
Q

What are some associated risks with postterm pregnancy (5)

A

Macrosomia, oligohydramnios, meconium aspiration, uteroplacental insufficiency, dysmaturity

120
Q

What is one benefit of amino infusion?

A

Decrease variable decelerations

121
Q

What is the most commonly used cervical ripening agent?

A

Prostaglandins

122
Q

Hirtuism- significantly elevated DHEAS, short onset, normal testosterone

A

Adrenal tumor

123
Q

A patient has hair growth, deepening of her voice, and an adenexal mass- diagnosis?

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor secreting testosterone

124
Q

A patient who desires children needs a fibroid removed. If it is sub mucosal what approach should the surgeon use?

A

Hysteroscopic removal if submucosal

OBGYN (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions