Q5190 Ground Eval Guide Flashcards
1
Q
Minimum Acceleration Check Speed (MACS) Definition
A
-Min acceptable speed at the check distance with which the takeoff should be continued
2
Q
MACS is computed to allow…
A
variations in engine performance due to engine trim, throttle setting, and pilot technique
3
Q
MACS is computed by…
A
reducing NACS 3 kts per 1000’ that runway length exceeds CFL not to exceed a 10 kt decrease
4
Q
MACS validates…
A
The rest of the TOLD
5
Q
Refusal Speed (RS) Definition
A
The maximum speed to which the aircraft can accelerate with both engines operating in MAX and either…
Abort with Both engines operating
or abort with engine failure
6
Q
RS-BEO assumptions (Aircraft has not rotated)
A
- 3 second reaction time
- Both engines produce MAX thrust during the 3 seconds
- In 3 point attitude and <130KCAS, braking applied that desired braking achieved in 2 seconds.
7
Q
RS-BEO assumptions (Aircraft has rotated)
A
- 3 second reaction time
- Both engines produce MAX thrust during the 3 seconds
- Pitch held at 7.5* for aerobraking until 120 KCAS. when nose settles proceed with normal braking.
8
Q
RS-EF assumptions (Aircraft has not rotated)
A
- 3 second reaction time
- One engine in max/ one windmilling during 3 sec.
- In 3 point attitude and <130KCAS, braking applied that desired braking achieved in 2 seconds.
9
Q
RS-EF assumptions (Aircraft has rotated)
A
- 3 second reaction time
- One engine in max/ one windmilling during 3 sec.
- Pitch held at 7.5* for aerobraking until 120 KCAS. when nose settles proceed with normal braking.
10
Q
Decision Speed (DS) definition
A
The minimum speed at which the aircraft can experience and instantaneous engine failure and still accelerate to SETOS and takeoff in the remaining runway.
11
Q
DS assumptions
A
- 3 second reaction time
- Accelerate in 3 point attitude prior to rotate
- One engine MAX thrust/ 1 windmilling
- Takeoff approx 700’ from start of rotation at SETOS
12
Q
Critical Engine Failure Speed (CEFS)
Definitions
A
The speed to which the aircraft accelerates with bother engines, experiences an engine failure and permit either acceleration to SETOS and takeoff or deceleration to a stop in the same distance.
13
Q
CEFS Assumptions
A
Same as RS-EF and DS
14
Q
Critical Field Length (CFL) Definition
A
Total runway length required to accelerate with both engines to CEFS, experience an engine failure, then either continue to takeoff or stop in the same distance.
15
Q
Single Engine Takeoff Speed (SETOS) Definition
A
The speed at which the aircraft can climb out of ground effect at a minimum of 100 feet per minute with gear down, flaps at 60%. (Rotation initiated at SETOS)
16
Q
SETOS assumptions
A
- Min SETOS is 2 eng TOS
- Ch 3 lists 8-50 FPM for each add kt (non-PMP)
- Single engine climb charts shows less than 60 FPM increase for each Kt.
- Takeoff approximately 700’ from start of rotation at SETOS
- Above SETOS+10, gear door drag is NF.
17
Q
11-2T-38V3 Go/No-Go Speeds
With remotely controlled BAK-15?
A
- DS<RS-EF= use RS-EF
- RS-EF<DS<=TOS=OG approval, use TOS
- DS>TOS= No takeoff authorized
18
Q
11-2T-38V3 Go/No-Go Speeds
With raised BAK-15?
A
- DS <= RS-EF= use RS-EF
- RS-EF<DS<TOS= OG approval, Use SETOS, delay rotation until 155 and NW off rwy by 174 Kts
- DS>=TOS= No takeoffs authorized
19
Q
11-2T-38V3 Go/No-Go Speeds
With no BAK-15?
A
- DS<=RS-BEO= use RS-BEO
- RS-BEO<DS<=RS-EF= OG approval, Use RS-EF
- DS> RS-EF = No takeoffs authorized
20
Q
What happens to takeoff speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases?
A
No change, although the TAS required for takeoff increased the IAS has not.
21
Q
What happens to takeoff speed as:
Headwind increases?
A
No change, the same airflow over the wing is still required to takeoff (IAS), although this will be achieved at a slower groundspeed
22
Q
What happens to takeoff speed as:
RCR decreases?
A
No change, runway condition will not affect the IAS required to takeoff.
23
Q
What happens to takeoff speed as:
weight decreases? Why?
A
decreases, given a specific rotation picture, it takes less lift. Since AOA is set by the rotation picture, this lift will be obtained at lower IAS.
24
Q
What happens to takeoff distance as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? why?
A
Increases, air density reduced, thrust and acceleration reduced. Higher TAS required and since there is less acceleration the distance required goes up.
25
What happens to takeoff distance as:
Headwind increases? Why?
Decreases, already have some IAS= to headwind and therefore do not need to accelerate as much.
26
What happens to takeoff distance as:
RCR decreases? Why?
No effect, since the T-30 only has 3 tires all of which are high pressure the rolling friction is considered negligible.
27
What happens to takeoff distance as:
Weight Decreases? Why?
Decreases, since TO speed is less, less distance is required to accelerate to that speed.
28
What happens to SETOS as:
Pressure and temperature increases? Why?
Increases, as density is decreased, thrust is decreased, so SETOS must be higher to decrease the induced drag and ensure excess thrust to climb out of ground effect.
29
What happens to SETOS as:
Headwind increases? Why?
no effect, the same airflow over the wing is still required, although it will happen at a lower ground speed.
30
What happens to SETOS as:
RCR decreases? Why?
No change, runway condition will not effect the speed required to generate lift for takeoff, since SETOS is a go speed.
31
What happens to SETOS as:
Weight decreases? Why?
Decreases, given a specific rotation picture, it takes less lift to get a lighter aircraft airborne.
32
Why is SETOS +10 the optimum singe-engine rotation speed?
1. For each knot above SETOS (up to +10) you get an extra 60 FPM.
2. Above SETOS+10 you can get PIO or rotation, excessive rwy length, overspeed tires or blown tires, nose gear may dig in making it hard to rotate.
33
What happens to Decision speed as:
temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?
Increases, Thrust is reduced as air density is reduced, so in order to reach SETOS by the end of the rwy you need to accelerate on 2 engines longer.
34
What happens to Decision speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?
Decreases, SETOS is obtained at a lower GS. Therefore, it will be easier to reach SETOS by the end of the rwy and you will be able to lose an engine earlier.
35
What happens to Decision speed as:
RCR decreases? Why?
No change, decision speed is only concerned with takeoff, the RCR effects on takeoff are negligible
36
What happens to decision speed as:
Weight decreases? Why?
Decreases, since SETOS is lower and accel is better, you can lose an engine at a lower airspeed and still reach SETOS by the end of the runway.
37
What happens to refusal speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?
Decreases, since density is reduced, thrust is reduced, so it takes more distance to reach a given airspeed. Therefore, the abort must be started at a lower speed in order to stop at the end or rwy.
38
What happens to refusal speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?
Increases, for given IAS you have less groundspeed. Since stippin is related to groundspeed, you can accelerate to a higher IAS and still stop.
39
What happens to refusal speed as:
RCR decreases? Why?
Decreases, with lower RCR braking effectiveness is reduced and stopping distance is increased. Therefore you must initiate the abort at a lower speed to stop in the remaining runway.
40
What happens to refusal speed as:
Weight decreases? Why?
Increases, it is easier to stop a lighter plane (less momentum), so you can accelerate to a higher speed and still have room to stop
41
What happens to Critical Engine Failure Speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?
Increases, since CEFS is stopping and going, you need to figure out which is effected more. As density decreases, accel and ground speed are worse. Stopping is only hurt by an increased groundspeed. Therefore, takeoff accel is affected more than stopping distance, and to keep stopping and T/O distance equal, CEFS must be increased.
42
What happens to Critical Engine Failure Speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?
Increases, Stopping distance is greately reduced by the lower ground speed. Since stopping distance is decreased, CEFS must be increased to keep stopping and takeoff distance equal.
43
What happens to Critical Engine Failure Speed as:
RCR is decreased? Why?
Decreases, Effect of RCR on T/O distance is negligable. Stopping distance is greately increased due to reduced braking effectiveness. Therefore since stopping distance is greater than takeoff distance, CEFS must be decreased to keep stopping and takeoff distance equal.
44
What happens to Critical Engine Failure Speed as:
Weight is decreased? Why
Decreases. Takeoff distance is reduced by light aircraft, better SETOS accel. Stopping a lighter aircraft is easier but is not affected nearly as much as the go distance, CEFS must be decreased to keep stopping and takeoff distance equal.
45
What happens to Normal Acceleration Check Speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increase? Why?
Decreases. Thrust is decreased, so accel is less and aircraft will not meet as high of an airspeed at a given check distance.
46
What happens to Normal Acceleration Check Speed as:
Weight decreases? Why?
Increases, Acceleration for a lighter aircraft is faster.
47
What happens to the Minimum Acceleration Check Speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?
Decreases, since NACS decreases MACS decreases at low T/O factors.
Increases, at higher T/O factors, CFL will increase in this case, less is subtracted from NACS.
No change, given the above there is a theoretical point in which MACS remains the same
48
What happens to the Minimum Acceleration Check Speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?
Increases, NACS increases, so MACS will increase.
49
What happens to the Minimum Acceleration Check Speed as:
RCR decreases? Why?
No change, NACS is unaffected so MACS will be unaffected. If CFL approaches actual runway length there will be less to subtract and NACS will go up.
50
What happens to the Minimum Acceleration Check Speed as:
Weight decreases? Why?
Increases, NACS increases, so MACS will increase as well.
51
Why do we use MACS instead of NACS
NACS defines a normal aircraft, 50% are better and 50% are worse, would abort half of the T/Os. MACS gives the jet a chance to takeoff and still be able to validate TOLD.
52
What happens to Landing Distance as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?
Increases, as air density decreases, touch down at a given KIAS translates into a higher groundspeed, thus a greater landing roll.
53
What happens to Landing Distance as:
Headwind increases? Why?
Decreases, with headwind, touching down at a given KIAS is less GS and shorter landing roll.
54
What happens to Landing Distance as:
RCR decreases? Why?
Increases. The braking effectiveness of the aircraft is reduced at a lower RCR.
55
What happens to Landing Distance as:
Weight decreases? Why?
Decreases, you can touch down at a lower KIAS with less momentum, allowing a faster decel.
56
Generator Cut-in Speed?
43-48%
57
Generator shift range?
65-75%
58
How many phases are the generator?
3 Phase
59
Left Generator major items powered?
All lighting except flood and utililty
L hyd press ind
L oil press ind
AOA
SAS
L fuel boost pump/ind
60
Normal Hydraulic Pressure
2850-3200 psi
61
When will hydro light illuminate for pressure?
1500 PSI
62
What psi must Hyd press climb past to extinguish light?
1800 PSI
63
What does a hydro light w/ good pressure mean?
High temp
64
Does the hydro light illuminate for overpressure?
No
65
If one of the hydro systems has failed to 0 PSI what is your flight duration limit?
35 Min
66
Systems that are powered by the utility hydraulic system?
Flight control backup
Stability augmenter
Nosewheel steering
Landing gear ext/ret.
Speedbrake
67
What is normal fuel pressure?
10 PSI
68
When does the low fuel pressure light illuminate?
below 6 PSI
69
How high is boost pump failure gravity feed guaranteed?
6000'
70
How high is boost pump failure gravity feed sufficient?
25,000'
71
How low have engine flameouts occured with boost pump failure?
7,000'
72
Max thrust dive at 0 or neg G limits?
10 sec @ 10,000'
30 sec @ 30,000'
73
Do not perform max thrust dives with less than....
650 lbs of fuel in either system
74
When does engine anti-ice illuminate?
Man-on
Right gen fail
75
When does anti-ice turn on automatically?
below 65% RPM
76
What happens with Engine Anti-Ice is placed on?
1. Provides 8th stage air to the inlet guide vanes and bullet nose
2. At 94-98% RPM an increase of 15*C
3. 8.5% loss in MIL thrust, 5.5% loss MAX thrust.
77
When does th fuel low light illuminate?
Illuminates when wither indicator reads 250# for more than 7.5 seconds
78
How is a fuel imbalance displayed on the EDD?
0-50#: no display
60-190#: white difference display
200# or more: red difference display
79
Do not allow what to happen to the fuel system when solo?
Do not allow the right fuel system to equal double the left system.
80
Total usable fuel using single point?
3,906#
81
Total usable fuel using over the top?
3,866#
82
Total usable fuel in the left system?
1,916#
83
Total usable fuel in the right system?
1,990#
84
Battery Start:
Which lights should be illuminated (Prior to applying air?)
All except oxygen and fuel low
85
In what order sohuld the lights extingush?
1. Connect Air (flt hydraulics)
2. Rt Gen reaches cut-in Speed (Rt fuel px, rt gen, XMFR rect out, anti-ice)
3. Left air connected (Utility hydraulics)
4. Left throttle idle (left fuel PX)
5. Left gen reaches cut-in speed (left gen)
86
With External AC power start:
Which lights should be illuminated (Prior to applying air?)
L/R Gen,
Util/Flt Hyd
R/L Fuel PX
87
With External AC power start:
What order should the lights extinguish?
Hydro
Fuel px,
Gen
88
Possible causes of a generator light?
(4)
1. Gen failure
2. Gen failure to shift
3. Gen failure (partial)
4. Gen failure no crossover
89
Major Items that are powered by the right Generator
MDP/UFCP/HUD
Flap Motors
Trim
R Fuel Boost Pump/ind
R oil press ind
R hyd press ind
Fuel/oxy Quantity ind
Caut/warn lights dim / floodlights
Airconditioning/canopy seal
pitot heat
90
Should you attempt to land with a dual hydraulic failure?
No
91
Should the hyd lights illuminate when rapidly cycling the flight controls?
No
92
Items that are powered by the flight hydraulic system?
Flight controls
93
Possible causes of a Fuel px light
-Corresponding boost pump failure
-fuel leak
-generator phase failure
-fuel pressor sensor malfunction
-Momentary blink due to fuel requirement surge
94
What is the expected mil power fuel flow?
2100-2700 pph
95
What is normal Oxygen pressure?
50-120
96
When does the oxygen light turn on?
with less than 1 liter of LOX
97
When may the oxygen light illuminate?
1 liter or 3 liters due to sloshing
98
When does the transformer rectifier out light illuminate?
Illuminates when the battery is powering the DC busses
99
What are the indications of a single TRU failure?
PFL generated by the MDP
100
How long should the battery last in the event of dual TRU failure?
15 min at 80% charge
101
What is the type of power the TRUs provide to the DC busses?
28 VDC
102
What type of power does the battery provide to the DC busses?
24 VDC
103
Min voltage required to close the battery relay?
18 volts
104
How low of a voltage will the battery stay connected to the DC busses?
10 volt
105
How can you activate the static inverter?
1. Any engine start button
2. Fuel/oxy quantity check/gauge test
3. Max power
106
What is the allowed time for the AB to light during takeoff?
5 seconds
107
How many seconds from initial fuel flow do you have for an EGT rise?
12 seconds
108
What do you do if you get no EGT rise during engine start?
Blow out system for 2 minutes and try again
109
What pins are you required to install during an emergency ground egress?
None
110
What are the landing gear extension limits?
240 KIAS, no more than 45* of bank or 1.5 Gs
111
What is the throttle setting for normal thrust?
98% RPM or 630 EGT, whichever occurs first
112
How long does the start button arm the ignition circuit?
30 seconds
113
When is the low fuel pressure light a valid indication of boost pump failure?
Cross-feed is off, fuel shutoff switch is normal, and throttle is out of off.
114
When will the hydraulic caution light illuminate?
Hydraulic fluid overtemp/ low hydraulic pressure
115
What PSI is considered low pressure for the hydraulic system?
1500 PSI
116
What PSI is require to extinguish the hydraulic caution light?
1800 PSI
117
Is it acceptable for the hydraulic caution light to illuminate during normal cycling of the flight controls if the light goes out afterward?
No, with normal movement, hydraulic pressure should not drop below 1500 PSI.
118
Up to what altitude will fuel flow by gravity be guaranteed with the throttles in MAX? Up to what altitude will it normally suffice? Flameouts have occurred as low as what altitude?
6000 ft/ 25000ft/ 7000ft
119
While accelerating, the landing gear warning tone may not go out until what airspeed?
240 KIAS
120
What is the min RPM required for start?
12%
121
What doe crosswind landing procedures mean?
Land on the upwind side, maintain the landing attitude and do not aerobrake, 6000ft landing spacing.
122
When are crosswind procedures in effect?
Greater than 15 kts crosswind
123
Before engine shutdown, operate the engines at ____ RPM or below for a minimum of ____ Minutes
70%, 1 min
124
What is the minimum speed to retract flaps on a single engine go-around?
200 KIAS
125
What altitude should you be below before attempting an airstart?
25,000 ft
126
How to you engage the barrier?
Steer to engage perpendicular, in a 3-pt attitude, in the center if possible
127
Can you advance the throttles above idle after a compressor stall? explain?
Yes, if no engine damage is suspected
128
What systems do you lose if you ram dump?
Defog, canopy seals, G-suit, air conditioning, and cabin pressure (DC GAP)
129
At engine speeds of 94-98% an increase in EGT of approx ____ is normal with anti ice on
15 * C
130
When does the anti-ice system come on?
Placing the switch to manual on, loss of right AC power, engine RPM below 65%
131
What kind of thrust loss can you expect when the anti-ice system is on?
8.5% at mil
5.5% at MAX
132
When do you not crossfeed?
BILLL
Boost pump failure
indicator malfunction
Leak
Fuel low
Low altitude
133
What is a throttle burst?
Idle to mil in 1 second or less
134
What is the oil capacity?
4 quarts with a 1 quart expansion space
135
Oil consumption through engine operation and overboard venting should not exceed _____ per hour
6 ounces per hour
136
When does the fuel caution light illuminate?
7.5 seconds after either fuel indicator reads below 250 pounds
137
What is the full rudder deflection under normal conditions with the gear down? Gear up?
30*
6*
138
How is the landing gear warning system activated?
Gear not down and locked, airspeed below 210, altitude below 10,000 and BOTH throttles below 96%
139
Can you taxi with a canopy malfunction? What do you do?
No, the aircraft should not be taxied or towed until cleared by qualified maintenance personnel
140
What is the gross wight of the T-38?
12,800 lbs
141
at what RPM does the gearbox shift?
65-75%
142
What is the voltage of the DC TRUs
28 VDC
143
What is the min battery voltage to close the battery relay? at what voltage does the relay open?
18/10
144
What are the items on the left AC bus?
Lights
stab augmentor
AOA vane heater
Left boost pump
left autosyn instruments
rudder trim
145
What are the items on the right AC bus?
Flap motors
Trim
Ignition exciters
Pitot heat
Right boost pump
Right autosyn isntruments/anti ice
HUD
MDP
Canopy seal
146
What items are on the non-essential DC bus?
HUD video camera, TCAS processor, UFCP, VHF radio, video take recorder
147
What items are on the left DC bus?
AOA lights
AAP
crossfeed
Left fire test
flap control
fuel shutoff
IFF
speed brake
standby altimeter
VOR/ILS
148
What items are on the right DC bus?
ADC
EED
EGI
Landing gear control
MFD
nosewheel steering
radar altimeter
TACAN
UHF
149
What are the three phase AC items
boost pumps
HUD
TRU
flap motors
150
What are the engine mounted accessories?
T-5 alternator
overspeed governor
nozzle power unit
tachometer generator
oil pump
main fuel pump
afterburner fuel pump
main fuel control
afterburner fuel control
(TONTO MAMA)
151
What is the thrust at MAX power? MIL?
3300 lbs // 2200 lbs
152
What is the voltage of the AC power supply?
115/200 volts
153
What is the voltage of the AC power supplied by the static inverter?
115 volts
154
What does the Flap-Slab interconnect system do?
1. Eliminates pitch changes caused by flap movement by repositioning the horizontal tail
2. Increasing the amount of horizontal tail travel available in the nose down direction
3. increasing the amount of horizontal tail deflection per inch of stick travel
155
What are the inputs to the main fuel control?
1. Compressor discharge pressure
2. engine inlet air temp
3. RPM
4. Throttle position
(DIRT)
156
What are the functions of the main fuel control?
-Regulates engine speed
-Protects from over temps, stalls, flameouts
-regulates fuel for low power settings
- positions compressor inlet guide vanes and bleed valves
157
What are the AB fuel control inputs?
1. Compressor discharge pressure
2. EGT (T-5)
3. Nozzle position
4. Throttle position
(DENT)
158
What is T2 cutback?
At low airspeeds and low outside air temperatures, engine RPM and EGT indications are below normal operating limits for MIL and MAX.
159
How to you correct T2 cutback?
Exchange altitude for airspeed before moving throttles
160
What is EGT droop?
At high airspeeds and low altitude, engine EGT indications are below normal operating limits for MIL and MAX.
161
How do you fix EGT droop?
Exchange airspeed for altitude before moving throttles
162
What is idle decay?
At altitudes above 20,000 with throttles at IDLE and airspeed 200 knots or less, in flight IDLE can decal less than ground idle speed and generator lights can illuminate.
163
How to prevent idle decay?
Avoid it by maintaining RPM above 80% or above when less than 200 KCAS above 20,000 indicated are anticipated. if it happens, correct by leaving the throttles in IDLE and increasing speed above 200 KCAS
164
Afterburner provides what percent thrust augmentation above MIL power?
5-40%
165
How can you deactivate the nosewheel steering system?
Release the NWS button, place a throttle in MAX, rotate to get weight off nosewheel
166
nosewheel tires are severely damages when maximum deflection turns are attempted at speeds in excess of ___ knots?
10 knots
167
What is min taxi spacing? How about staggered?
300', 150'
168
How is Joker fuel defined?
A pre-briefed fuel needed to terminate an event and transition to the next phase of flight.
169
How is Bingo fuel defined?
A pre-briefed fuel state that allows the aircraft to return to base of intended landing or alternate, if required, using preplanned recovery parameter and arrive with normal recovery fuel.
170
What is emergency fuel for the T-38?
400lbs
171
When should you land at an alternate based on landing roll if possible?
when landing distance exceeds 80% or runway length
172
What are the crosswind limits?
10 kts icy or wet solo
15 kts solo, form T/O & Ldg, Xwind proc
20 kts duel wet full stop
25 kts dual touch and go
30 kts dual dry full stop
173
What are the no-flap crosswind landing restricitons?
Do not perform no-flap touch-and-go landings on runways without a suitable barrier when the crosswind component exceeds 15 kts.
174
What are the crosswind restrictions when there is no suitable barrier available?
If crosswinds exceed 15 knots, the minimum runway length for 60 and 100 percent flap t & gs on runways without a barrier is 10,000 ft.
175
What are the minimum items for an OPS check?
Engine instruments
Fuel quantity/balance
G-suit connection
Oxygen system
cabin altitude
176
How do you know when it is safe to operate a system on the ground?
the crew chief will repeat ground visual signal
177
Are you allowed to taxi an aircraft with a single generator malfunction or failure?
NO
178
What is the minimum runway length for take-off required for the T-38? can it be changed?
8,000 Ft
OG/CC can wait to 7000 ft
179
What is the min and max altitude to do TP stalls?
8,000 AGL
FL200
180
What is the maximum altitude for nose high recoveries and instruments unusual attitudes?
FL240
181
Can pilots reduce gross weight by burning fuel to a predetermined usable fuel wight prior to taking the runway for takeoff?
Yes with squadron sup approval
182
Max taxi speed is ___kts GS in congested areas and the parking row, and ____kts otherwise
10,25
183
What DME must you remain within on a breakout from the VFT pattern?
7 DME
184
What is the minimum landing spacing for same side of the runway? Opposite sides?
6,000ft
3,000ft
185
How any T-38s may occupy taxiway juliet at one time?
2
186
Off the center runway, you are told by lariet to "Center, continue straight ahead" what should you do
Maintain RWY heading and VFR at or below 1600' until pattern entry clearance is received.
187
Under Restricted Patters, what is the primary way to enter the VFR pattern?
Zadom Procedure
188
Aircraft full stopping on the hot side of the runway should not transition to the cold side until past...
the 2k' remaining sign
189
What are the tolerances for the HSI?
8* of mag compass withing 5* of known heading
190
When do you execute a stall recovery in the traffic pattern?
If stall indications or an excessive sink rate occur in the traffic patter, immediately execute a stall recovery.
191
When may we combine the climb check and the level off check?
When the cruise altitude is at or below FL180
192
What are the entry parameters for a Cuban 8? How much altitude do you need? how much distance?
500 kts
Mil power
8-10k ft
1 mile ahead and 2 behind
193
What are the entry parameters for the cloverleaf? How much altitude do you need? How much distance?
450 kts
mil power
8-10k ft
3NM forward, 2 NM in dir of first turn, 3 NM opposite direction of first turn
194
Rolling takeoffs increase takeoff rolls approximately..?
150-300ft
195
When do you need a wing-walker?
Any time taxiing within 25 ft of an obstacle
196
What is the minimum obstacle clearance for taxiing?
10 ft
197
What is the minimum speed to start a closed pull-up? What is the minimum speed during the closed pullup?
240 KIAS
200 KIAS
198
When you approach the break how do you ensure 3000-6000 ft spacing?
45 degrees off AC on inside downing for 3000ft or abeam AC for 6000ft
199
What is the minimum airspeed should be maintained on inside downwind?
Final turn airspeed
200
How do rolling takeoffs affect takeoff roll and critical field length?
Increases both by 150-300'
201
Is it permissible to descend in slow flight?
Yes(if mil power will not hold level flight)
202
What is normal recovery fuel for dual aircraft at Laughlin? Solo?
800lbs/ 1000lbs
203
What is minimum fuel for dual aircraft at Laughlin? Solo?
600lbs/ 800 lbs
204
Is there a difference between being cleared to land and cleared the option?
Yes
205
The HSI should be within how many degrees of the runway heading prior to takeoff?
5 degrees
206
Can voice or broadcast messages over VOR or ILS freq be used to identify a station?
Only for VOR, the recorded automatic voice identification, indicated by the word VOR following the station name may be used to ID the station.
207
What obstacle clearance does emergency safe altitude provide?
1000'/2000' mountain within 100 NM of the facility
208
Emergency safe altitudes are normally developed for what kind of procedures?
military procedures
209
What obstacle clearance does min sector altitude provide?
1000' within 25NM of the fac
210
Max allowable VOR/TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint allowable for the CDI is ___?
+/-4*
211
What is the allowable DME error of VOR/TACAN?
.5 NM or 3% of the distance to the facility whichever is greater
212
Technique for bank angle for turns less than 30*? Greater than 30*?
Use bank = to degrees to turn up to a max of 30*
213
Leg length of holding at and below 14,000'? above 14,000?
1 min// 1.5 min
214
What is the direction of standard holding patterns?
right
215
Can a TACAN be used to identify a holding fix if the fix is located over a VORTAC?
No, VOR can be used in its place, but if equipped only with a TACAN then no you cannot.
216
What is the purpose of adherence to a maximum holding airspeed?
keeps the aircraft within the protected airspace of the holding pattern.
217
Are holding entry sector procedures required in the NAS?
No, within the NAS they are only recommend techniques
218
During holding (in NAS), what is the maximum and minimum bank angles you can use?
3* per second
30* of bank
25* when using a flight director system
219
What items must be accomplished prior to starting descent?
1. Review IAP
2. Recheck weather
3. check heading and attitude
4. coordinate lost comm
220
During a non-DME teardrop approach, can you start the penetration from an altitude higher than what is published? If not, what should you do?
Pilot should descend to the published IAF altitude prior to starting the approach. Request maneuvering airspace from ATC if descent is required at the IAF.
221
What is the pilot's responsibilities when repeating ATC instructions?
Altitudes, restrictions, vectors, headings, altimeter settings, and runway assignments in the same sequence they are given
222
What maximum airspeed should be flown during a procedure turn?
200 KIAS to ensure containment within the obstruction clearance area.
223
When is a procedure turn not allowed while flying a low altitude approach procedure?
SNERT
Straight-in
No PT
Established
Radar vectors
Timed approach
224
The localizer has a usable range of +/- ____* within ___NM, and +/- ____* within ____NM of course centerline.
10*
18NM
35*
10NM
225
What is the usable range of the ILS glideslope?
10NM
226
The final approach course on a nonradar final may vary from the runway heading by as much as ____ degrees and still be a published straight-in.
30*
227
When executing and ILS approach, what do you do if the aircraft gets more than 1 dot below or 2 dot widths above glideslope?
Do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is one dot low or 2 dot high.
228
If the glideslope is recaptured prior to _____ what can you do?
If glideslope is recaptured, descent may be continued to DH.
229
How do you determine the required ceiling to execute a circling approach with no published ceiling requirement?
The required ceiling will be the HAA plus 100 feet rounded up to the next one hundred foot value.
230
What are the required components for an ILS?
Glide slope
Localizer
Outer marker
231
What are acceptable substitutions for OM?
DME
another NAVAID
crossing radial
Radar
must be depicted or NOTAMed
232
When is an ILS not authorized?
Localizer failure
OM identification failure
233
What should you set in the course selector window for a back course localizer approach?
Set the published front course
234
When should a missed approach be initiated?
-When at the MAP, At DH, DA is reached and any of the following...
-Rwy not in sight
-Unable to make safe landing
-Directed by controlling agency
235
While going missed during a circling approach, in what direction should you make you initial climbing turn and why?
Climbing turn to the landing runway to ensure the aircraft remains within the circling obstruction clearance area. Continue turn until established on missed approach course. Immediate climb is require.
236
If you are vectored off a SID, can you assume the SID cancelled?
If vectored assume the SID is canceled unless controller adds "Expect to resume SID"
237
What are max holding airspeeds?
0-6000: 200 KIAS
6001-14000: 230 KIAS
14001 and above: 265 KIAS
238
What should ATC holding instructions entail?
-Complete holding instructions
- An EFC
-Best estimate of any additional delay when acft is cleared to a fix other than destination airfield and delay expected.
239
What direction of turn is a nonstandard holding pattern?
Left
240
What does a "/" mean in an approach name?
more than one type of equipment is required to fly the final approach
241
What is the definition of a VDP?
is defined on the final approach course of a non-precision approach from which a stabilized visual descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced.
242
Pilots should ____ descend below MDA prior to reaching ____.
not
VDP
243
What is a visual approach?
Reduces pilot/controller work load and expedite traffic by shortening flight paths to the airport. A visual approach is an IFR procedure conducted under IFR in VMC.
244
What conditions must be met to conduct a visual approach?
-Reported weather at or above 1000' and 3 mi vis
-Must have airport or preceding traffic in sight
245
What are you expected to do if cleared a visual approach?
ATC expects you to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport in the most direct and safe manner for the straight in.
Visual approach clearance does not authorize you for overhead VFR pattern entry
246
What is a contact approach?
IFR flight plan when clear of clouds with 1 NM of flight vis may request a contact approach
247
ATC may only issue a clearance for a contact approach when...
- Pilot specifically requests the approach
-reported ground vis at airport is 1SM
-Contact made to airport that has published IAP
248
What does the runway environment consist of?
-ALS
-Threshold, markings, or lights
-Runway end identifier lights
-Touchdown zone, markings, lights
-Runway markings or lights
-VASI/PAPI
-Runway or runway markings
249
What is VOR station passage?
When the To-From indicator makes the first positive change to a from.
250
If indicating 0.6 mach, a 1* pitch change give approximately a _____ FPM climb or descent?
600 FPM
Pitch*100*TAS in NM/MIN
251
How do you determine a VDP?
HAT/Gradient
252
What is the category E obstruction clearance radius for a circling approach?
4.5 NM
253
How much should you lead your turn point?
Degrees to turn
90 60 45 30
Fraction of 90* turn
1
1/2
1/3
1/6
254
MEA definition
Lowest published altitude between 2 radio fixes which assures nav reception and obstacle clearance req.
255
MOCA definition
Altitude in effect between radio fixes, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment which assures navaid reception within 22NM of station.
256
MRA definition
the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined
257
Define HAA
Height of minimum descent used with circling
258
Define HAT
The height of decision height or MDA above the highest elevation in the touchdown zone elevation. Used with straight ins
259
Define touchdown zone elevations
The highest elevation in the first 3,000 ft of the landing surface.
260
Who and wat are specifically governed by the directives stated in AFMAN 11-202V3?
Governs the operation of Air Force aircraft flown by Air Force pilots, pilots of other services, foreign pilots, and civilian pilots.
261
When are deviations authorized from AFMAN 11-202V3
PIC may deviate from any flight rule only when:
-in-flight emergency requires immediate action
-Deviation is require to protect lives
-when safety of flight dictates
262
If you have deviated from 11-202V3 as a result of an emergency, what must the pilot do upon landing?
1. Verbally report incident to immediate sup and commander in 24 hours.
2. PIC make detailed written record
3. Unit will keep record for 1 year and provide it to investigation authority
263
If a pilot decides to file based on visibility-only criterial, what additional allowances must be provided for in the preflight planning?
Fuel for an approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan fuel.
264
When do you have to file an IFR flight plan?
Pilots must fly under IFR under max extent practical but specifically if...
-Weather conditions do not permit flight according to VFR.
-Class A airspace
-Excess of 180 KTAS within Fed airways
-Operating fixed wing at night
265
What is required for file to a destination?
1. Wx +/-1 hour above lowest compatible mins (not tempo)
2. For straight in or sidestep, forecast wx must only meet published vis.
3. Circling approach must meet ceiling or vis.
4. If not compatible approach must be able to fly composite IFR/VFR
266
What is required to file an alternate?
1. Wx +/-1 hour including tempo less than 2000/3SM
2. AETC winds out of limits
3. AETC denial of RVSM prevents reaching planned destination
267
What ex is required for an alternate?
Wx +/- 1 hour not including TEMPO caused by rain, snow, thunderstorms, 1000/2 or 500/1 above lowest compatible mins
268
Other than wx, what disqualifies an alternate?
-require radar
-all NAVAIDs unmonitored
-No WX reporting
- ANA
- All approaches require GPS
-AETC winds
-AETC regardless of wx, access to RVSM required.
269
What are the takeoff minimums?
1. Wx above lowest compatible approach mins
2. Takeoff vis must be greater than 600 RVR
3. Mins below 1600 RVR not authorized unless centerline lights and 2 RVR reporting systems
4. PWC minimums
270
What weather is required to start an approach?
1. Pilots will not descend if wx is required approach mins
2. Straight in or sidestep the wx must only be at or above published vis mins
3. circling mins use ceiling or vis
271
What do you do if the wx goes below mins on an approach?
if already started descent, receiving radar vectors or established, can continue down to MDP/DH MAP
272
Requirements to fly cat D approaches?
Straight in
Final 165 KIAS or less
260 KTAS on missed
273
When do you hold short of the ILS localizer critical area?
WX 800/2
274
Where are the ILS critical areas at KDLF?
between center and outside runways on taxiways alpha, foxtrot, and golf
275
What happens to Normal Acceleration Check Speed as:
RCR decreases? Why?
No Change, the effects of RCR on acceleration are negligible
276
What happens to Normal Acceleration Check Speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?
Increases, Thrust and acceleration are unaffected, but headwind will give an extra IAS equal to the headwind component.
