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Checkride > Q5190 Ground Eval Guide > Flashcards

Q5190 Ground Eval Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum Acceleration Check Speed (MACS) Definition

A

-Min acceptable speed at the check distance with which the takeoff should be continued

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2
Q

MACS is computed to allow…

A

variations in engine performance due to engine trim, throttle setting, and pilot technique

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3
Q

MACS is computed by…

A

reducing NACS 3 kts per 1000’ that runway length exceeds CFL not to exceed a 10 kt decrease

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4
Q

MACS validates…

A

The rest of the TOLD

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5
Q

Refusal Speed (RS) Definition

A

The maximum speed to which the aircraft can accelerate with both engines operating in MAX and either…

Abort with Both engines operating

or abort with engine failure

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6
Q

RS-BEO assumptions (Aircraft has not rotated)

A
  1. 3 second reaction time
  2. Both engines produce MAX thrust during the 3 seconds
  3. In 3 point attitude and <130KCAS, braking applied that desired braking achieved in 2 seconds.
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7
Q

RS-BEO assumptions (Aircraft has rotated)

A
  1. 3 second reaction time
  2. Both engines produce MAX thrust during the 3 seconds
  3. Pitch held at 7.5* for aerobraking until 120 KCAS. when nose settles proceed with normal braking.
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8
Q

RS-EF assumptions (Aircraft has not rotated)

A
  1. 3 second reaction time
  2. One engine in max/ one windmilling during 3 sec.
  3. In 3 point attitude and <130KCAS, braking applied that desired braking achieved in 2 seconds.
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9
Q

RS-EF assumptions (Aircraft has rotated)

A
  1. 3 second reaction time
  2. One engine in max/ one windmilling during 3 sec.
  3. Pitch held at 7.5* for aerobraking until 120 KCAS. when nose settles proceed with normal braking.
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10
Q

Decision Speed (DS) definition

A

The minimum speed at which the aircraft can experience and instantaneous engine failure and still accelerate to SETOS and takeoff in the remaining runway.

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11
Q

DS assumptions

A
  1. 3 second reaction time
  2. Accelerate in 3 point attitude prior to rotate
  3. One engine MAX thrust/ 1 windmilling
  4. Takeoff approx 700’ from start of rotation at SETOS
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12
Q

Critical Engine Failure Speed (CEFS)
Definitions

A

The speed to which the aircraft accelerates with bother engines, experiences an engine failure and permit either acceleration to SETOS and takeoff or deceleration to a stop in the same distance.

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13
Q

CEFS Assumptions

A

Same as RS-EF and DS

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14
Q

Critical Field Length (CFL) Definition

A

Total runway length required to accelerate with both engines to CEFS, experience an engine failure, then either continue to takeoff or stop in the same distance.

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15
Q

Single Engine Takeoff Speed (SETOS) Definition

A

The speed at which the aircraft can climb out of ground effect at a minimum of 100 feet per minute with gear down, flaps at 60%. (Rotation initiated at SETOS)

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16
Q

SETOS assumptions

A
  1. Min SETOS is 2 eng TOS
  2. Ch 3 lists 8-50 FPM for each add kt (non-PMP)
  3. Single engine climb charts shows less than 60 FPM increase for each Kt.
  4. Takeoff approximately 700’ from start of rotation at SETOS
  5. Above SETOS+10, gear door drag is NF.
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17
Q

11-2T-38V3 Go/No-Go Speeds
With remotely controlled BAK-15?

A
  1. DS<RS-EF= use RS-EF
  2. RS-EF<DS<=TOS=OG approval, use TOS
  3. DS>TOS= No takeoff authorized
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18
Q

11-2T-38V3 Go/No-Go Speeds
With raised BAK-15?

A
  1. DS <= RS-EF= use RS-EF
  2. RS-EF<DS<TOS= OG approval, Use SETOS, delay rotation until 155 and NW off rwy by 174 Kts
  3. DS>=TOS= No takeoffs authorized
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19
Q

11-2T-38V3 Go/No-Go Speeds
With no BAK-15?

A
  1. DS<=RS-BEO= use RS-BEO
  2. RS-BEO<DS<=RS-EF= OG approval, Use RS-EF
  3. DS> RS-EF = No takeoffs authorized
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20
Q

What happens to takeoff speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases?

A

No change, although the TAS required for takeoff increased the IAS has not.

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21
Q

What happens to takeoff speed as:
Headwind increases?

A

No change, the same airflow over the wing is still required to takeoff (IAS), although this will be achieved at a slower groundspeed

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22
Q

What happens to takeoff speed as:
RCR decreases?

A

No change, runway condition will not affect the IAS required to takeoff.

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23
Q

What happens to takeoff speed as:
weight decreases? Why?

A

decreases, given a specific rotation picture, it takes less lift. Since AOA is set by the rotation picture, this lift will be obtained at lower IAS.

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24
Q

What happens to takeoff distance as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? why?

A

Increases, air density reduced, thrust and acceleration reduced. Higher TAS required and since there is less acceleration the distance required goes up.

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25
Q

What happens to takeoff distance as:
Headwind increases? Why?

A

Decreases, already have some IAS= to headwind and therefore do not need to accelerate as much.

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26
Q

What happens to takeoff distance as:
RCR decreases? Why?

A

No effect, since the T-30 only has 3 tires all of which are high pressure the rolling friction is considered negligible.

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27
Q

What happens to takeoff distance as:
Weight Decreases? Why?

A

Decreases, since TO speed is less, less distance is required to accelerate to that speed.

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28
Q

What happens to SETOS as:
Pressure and temperature increases? Why?

A

Increases, as density is decreased, thrust is decreased, so SETOS must be higher to decrease the induced drag and ensure excess thrust to climb out of ground effect.

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29
Q

What happens to SETOS as:
Headwind increases? Why?

A

no effect, the same airflow over the wing is still required, although it will happen at a lower ground speed.

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30
Q

What happens to SETOS as:
RCR decreases? Why?

A

No change, runway condition will not effect the speed required to generate lift for takeoff, since SETOS is a go speed.

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31
Q

What happens to SETOS as:
Weight decreases? Why?

A

Decreases, given a specific rotation picture, it takes less lift to get a lighter aircraft airborne.

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32
Q

Why is SETOS +10 the optimum singe-engine rotation speed?

A
  1. For each knot above SETOS (up to +10) you get an extra 60 FPM.
  2. Above SETOS+10 you can get PIO or rotation, excessive rwy length, overspeed tires or blown tires, nose gear may dig in making it hard to rotate.
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33
Q

What happens to Decision speed as:
temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?

A

Increases, Thrust is reduced as air density is reduced, so in order to reach SETOS by the end of the rwy you need to accelerate on 2 engines longer.

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34
Q

What happens to Decision speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?

A

Decreases, SETOS is obtained at a lower GS. Therefore, it will be easier to reach SETOS by the end of the rwy and you will be able to lose an engine earlier.

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35
Q

What happens to Decision speed as:
RCR decreases? Why?

A

No change, decision speed is only concerned with takeoff, the RCR effects on takeoff are negligible

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36
Q

What happens to decision speed as:
Weight decreases? Why?

A

Decreases, since SETOS is lower and accel is better, you can lose an engine at a lower airspeed and still reach SETOS by the end of the runway.

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37
Q

What happens to refusal speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?

A

Decreases, since density is reduced, thrust is reduced, so it takes more distance to reach a given airspeed. Therefore, the abort must be started at a lower speed in order to stop at the end or rwy.

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38
Q

What happens to refusal speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?

A

Increases, for given IAS you have less groundspeed. Since stippin is related to groundspeed, you can accelerate to a higher IAS and still stop.

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39
Q

What happens to refusal speed as:
RCR decreases? Why?

A

Decreases, with lower RCR braking effectiveness is reduced and stopping distance is increased. Therefore you must initiate the abort at a lower speed to stop in the remaining runway.

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40
Q

What happens to refusal speed as:
Weight decreases? Why?

A

Increases, it is easier to stop a lighter plane (less momentum), so you can accelerate to a higher speed and still have room to stop

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41
Q

What happens to Critical Engine Failure Speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?

A

Increases, since CEFS is stopping and going, you need to figure out which is effected more. As density decreases, accel and ground speed are worse. Stopping is only hurt by an increased groundspeed. Therefore, takeoff accel is affected more than stopping distance, and to keep stopping and T/O distance equal, CEFS must be increased.

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42
Q

What happens to Critical Engine Failure Speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?

A

Increases, Stopping distance is greately reduced by the lower ground speed. Since stopping distance is decreased, CEFS must be increased to keep stopping and takeoff distance equal.

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43
Q

What happens to Critical Engine Failure Speed as:
RCR is decreased? Why?

A

Decreases, Effect of RCR on T/O distance is negligable. Stopping distance is greately increased due to reduced braking effectiveness. Therefore since stopping distance is greater than takeoff distance, CEFS must be decreased to keep stopping and takeoff distance equal.

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44
Q

What happens to Critical Engine Failure Speed as:
Weight is decreased? Why

A

Decreases. Takeoff distance is reduced by light aircraft, better SETOS accel. Stopping a lighter aircraft is easier but is not affected nearly as much as the go distance, CEFS must be decreased to keep stopping and takeoff distance equal.

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45
Q

What happens to Normal Acceleration Check Speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increase? Why?

A

Decreases. Thrust is decreased, so accel is less and aircraft will not meet as high of an airspeed at a given check distance.

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46
Q

What happens to Normal Acceleration Check Speed as:
Weight decreases? Why?

A

Increases, Acceleration for a lighter aircraft is faster.

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47
Q

What happens to the Minimum Acceleration Check Speed as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?

A

Decreases, since NACS decreases MACS decreases at low T/O factors.

Increases, at higher T/O factors, CFL will increase in this case, less is subtracted from NACS.

No change, given the above there is a theoretical point in which MACS remains the same

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48
Q

What happens to the Minimum Acceleration Check Speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?

A

Increases, NACS increases, so MACS will increase.

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49
Q

What happens to the Minimum Acceleration Check Speed as:
RCR decreases? Why?

A

No change, NACS is unaffected so MACS will be unaffected. If CFL approaches actual runway length there will be less to subtract and NACS will go up.

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50
Q

What happens to the Minimum Acceleration Check Speed as:
Weight decreases? Why?

A

Increases, NACS increases, so MACS will increase as well.

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51
Q

Why do we use MACS instead of NACS

A

NACS defines a normal aircraft, 50% are better and 50% are worse, would abort half of the T/Os. MACS gives the jet a chance to takeoff and still be able to validate TOLD.

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52
Q

What happens to Landing Distance as:
Temperature and pressure altitude increases? Why?

A

Increases, as air density decreases, touch down at a given KIAS translates into a higher groundspeed, thus a greater landing roll.

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53
Q

What happens to Landing Distance as:
Headwind increases? Why?

A

Decreases, with headwind, touching down at a given KIAS is less GS and shorter landing roll.

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54
Q

What happens to Landing Distance as:
RCR decreases? Why?

A

Increases. The braking effectiveness of the aircraft is reduced at a lower RCR.

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55
Q

What happens to Landing Distance as:
Weight decreases? Why?

A

Decreases, you can touch down at a lower KIAS with less momentum, allowing a faster decel.

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56
Q

Generator Cut-in Speed?

A

43-48%

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57
Q

Generator shift range?

A

65-75%

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58
Q

How many phases are the generator?

A

3 Phase

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59
Q

Left Generator major items powered?

A

All lighting except flood and utililty
L hyd press ind
L oil press ind
AOA
SAS
L fuel boost pump/ind

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60
Q

Normal Hydraulic Pressure

A

2850-3200 psi

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61
Q

When will hydro light illuminate for pressure?

A

1500 PSI

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62
Q

What psi must Hyd press climb past to extinguish light?

A

1800 PSI

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63
Q

What does a hydro light w/ good pressure mean?

A

High temp

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64
Q

Does the hydro light illuminate for overpressure?

A

No

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65
Q

If one of the hydro systems has failed to 0 PSI what is your flight duration limit?

A

35 Min

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66
Q

Systems that are powered by the utility hydraulic system?

A

Flight control backup
Stability augmenter
Nosewheel steering
Landing gear ext/ret.
Speedbrake

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67
Q

What is normal fuel pressure?

A

10 PSI

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68
Q

When does the low fuel pressure light illuminate?

A

below 6 PSI

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69
Q

How high is boost pump failure gravity feed guaranteed?

A

6000’

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70
Q

How high is boost pump failure gravity feed sufficient?

A

25,000’

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71
Q

How low have engine flameouts occured with boost pump failure?

A

7,000’

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72
Q

Max thrust dive at 0 or neg G limits?

A

10 sec @ 10,000’
30 sec @ 30,000’

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73
Q

Do not perform max thrust dives with less than….

A

650 lbs of fuel in either system

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74
Q

When does engine anti-ice illuminate?

A

Man-on
Right gen fail

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75
Q

When does anti-ice turn on automatically?

A

below 65% RPM

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76
Q

What happens with Engine Anti-Ice is placed on?

A
  1. Provides 8th stage air to the inlet guide vanes and bullet nose
  2. At 94-98% RPM an increase of 15*C
  3. 8.5% loss in MIL thrust, 5.5% loss MAX thrust.
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77
Q

When does th fuel low light illuminate?

A

Illuminates when wither indicator reads 250# for more than 7.5 seconds

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78
Q

How is a fuel imbalance displayed on the EDD?

A

0-50#: no display
60-190#: white difference display
200# or more: red difference display

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79
Q

Do not allow what to happen to the fuel system when solo?

A

Do not allow the right fuel system to equal double the left system.

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80
Q

Total usable fuel using single point?

A

3,906#

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81
Q

Total usable fuel using over the top?

A

3,866#

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82
Q

Total usable fuel in the left system?

A

1,916#

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83
Q

Total usable fuel in the right system?

A

1,990#

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84
Q

Battery Start:
Which lights should be illuminated (Prior to applying air?)

A

All except oxygen and fuel low

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85
Q

In what order sohuld the lights extingush?

A
  1. Connect Air (flt hydraulics)
  2. Rt Gen reaches cut-in Speed (Rt fuel px, rt gen, XMFR rect out, anti-ice)
  3. Left air connected (Utility hydraulics)
  4. Left throttle idle (left fuel PX)
  5. Left gen reaches cut-in speed (left gen)
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86
Q

With External AC power start:
Which lights should be illuminated (Prior to applying air?)

A

L/R Gen,
Util/Flt Hyd
R/L Fuel PX

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87
Q

With External AC power start:
What order should the lights extinguish?

A

Hydro
Fuel px,
Gen

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88
Q

Possible causes of a generator light?
(4)

A
  1. Gen failure
  2. Gen failure to shift
  3. Gen failure (partial)
  4. Gen failure no crossover
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89
Q

Major Items that are powered by the right Generator

A

MDP/UFCP/HUD
Flap Motors
Trim
R Fuel Boost Pump/ind
R oil press ind
R hyd press ind
Fuel/oxy Quantity ind
Caut/warn lights dim / floodlights
Airconditioning/canopy seal
pitot heat

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90
Q

Should you attempt to land with a dual hydraulic failure?

A

No

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91
Q

Should the hyd lights illuminate when rapidly cycling the flight controls?

A

No

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92
Q

Items that are powered by the flight hydraulic system?

A

Flight controls

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93
Q

Possible causes of a Fuel px light

A

-Corresponding boost pump failure
-fuel leak
-generator phase failure
-fuel pressor sensor malfunction
-Momentary blink due to fuel requirement surge

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94
Q

What is the expected mil power fuel flow?

A

2100-2700 pph

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95
Q

What is normal Oxygen pressure?

A

50-120

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96
Q

When does the oxygen light turn on?

A

with less than 1 liter of LOX

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97
Q

When may the oxygen light illuminate?

A

1 liter or 3 liters due to sloshing

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98
Q

When does the transformer rectifier out light illuminate?

A

Illuminates when the battery is powering the DC busses

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99
Q

What are the indications of a single TRU failure?

A

PFL generated by the MDP

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100
Q

How long should the battery last in the event of dual TRU failure?

A

15 min at 80% charge

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101
Q

What is the type of power the TRUs provide to the DC busses?

A

28 VDC

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102
Q

What type of power does the battery provide to the DC busses?

A

24 VDC

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103
Q

Min voltage required to close the battery relay?

A

18 volts

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104
Q

How low of a voltage will the battery stay connected to the DC busses?

A

10 volt

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105
Q

How can you activate the static inverter?

A
  1. Any engine start button
  2. Fuel/oxy quantity check/gauge test
  3. Max power
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106
Q

What is the allowed time for the AB to light during takeoff?

A

5 seconds

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107
Q

How many seconds from initial fuel flow do you have for an EGT rise?

A

12 seconds

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108
Q

What do you do if you get no EGT rise during engine start?

A

Blow out system for 2 minutes and try again

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109
Q

What pins are you required to install during an emergency ground egress?

A

None

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110
Q

What are the landing gear extension limits?

A

240 KIAS, no more than 45* of bank or 1.5 Gs

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111
Q

What is the throttle setting for normal thrust?

A

98% RPM or 630 EGT, whichever occurs first

112
Q

How long does the start button arm the ignition circuit?

A

30 seconds

113
Q

When is the low fuel pressure light a valid indication of boost pump failure?

A

Cross-feed is off, fuel shutoff switch is normal, and throttle is out of off.

114
Q

When will the hydraulic caution light illuminate?

A

Hydraulic fluid overtemp/ low hydraulic pressure

115
Q

What PSI is considered low pressure for the hydraulic system?

A

1500 PSI

116
Q

What PSI is require to extinguish the hydraulic caution light?

A

1800 PSI

117
Q

Is it acceptable for the hydraulic caution light to illuminate during normal cycling of the flight controls if the light goes out afterward?

A

No, with normal movement, hydraulic pressure should not drop below 1500 PSI.

118
Q

Up to what altitude will fuel flow by gravity be guaranteed with the throttles in MAX? Up to what altitude will it normally suffice? Flameouts have occurred as low as what altitude?

A

6000 ft/ 25000ft/ 7000ft

119
Q

While accelerating, the landing gear warning tone may not go out until what airspeed?

A

240 KIAS

120
Q

What is the min RPM required for start?

A

12%

121
Q

What doe crosswind landing procedures mean?

A

Land on the upwind side, maintain the landing attitude and do not aerobrake, 6000ft landing spacing.

122
Q

When are crosswind procedures in effect?

A

Greater than 15 kts crosswind

123
Q

Before engine shutdown, operate the engines at ____ RPM or below for a minimum of ____ Minutes

A

70%, 1 min

124
Q

What is the minimum speed to retract flaps on a single engine go-around?

A

200 KIAS

125
Q

What altitude should you be below before attempting an airstart?

A

25,000 ft

126
Q

How to you engage the barrier?

A

Steer to engage perpendicular, in a 3-pt attitude, in the center if possible

127
Q

Can you advance the throttles above idle after a compressor stall? explain?

A

Yes, if no engine damage is suspected

128
Q

What systems do you lose if you ram dump?

A

Defog, canopy seals, G-suit, air conditioning, and cabin pressure (DC GAP)

129
Q

At engine speeds of 94-98% an increase in EGT of approx ____ is normal with anti ice on

A

15 * C

130
Q

When does the anti-ice system come on?

A

Placing the switch to manual on, loss of right AC power, engine RPM below 65%

131
Q

What kind of thrust loss can you expect when the anti-ice system is on?

A

8.5% at mil
5.5% at MAX

132
Q

When do you not crossfeed?

A

BILLL
Boost pump failure
indicator malfunction
Leak
Fuel low
Low altitude

133
Q

What is a throttle burst?

A

Idle to mil in 1 second or less

134
Q

What is the oil capacity?

A

4 quarts with a 1 quart expansion space

135
Q

Oil consumption through engine operation and overboard venting should not exceed _____ per hour

A

6 ounces per hour

136
Q

When does the fuel caution light illuminate?

A

7.5 seconds after either fuel indicator reads below 250 pounds

137
Q

What is the full rudder deflection under normal conditions with the gear down? Gear up?

A

30*
6*

138
Q

How is the landing gear warning system activated?

A

Gear not down and locked, airspeed below 210, altitude below 10,000 and BOTH throttles below 96%

139
Q

Can you taxi with a canopy malfunction? What do you do?

A

No, the aircraft should not be taxied or towed until cleared by qualified maintenance personnel

140
Q

What is the gross wight of the T-38?

A

12,800 lbs

141
Q

at what RPM does the gearbox shift?

A

65-75%

142
Q

What is the voltage of the DC TRUs

A

28 VDC

143
Q

What is the min battery voltage to close the battery relay? at what voltage does the relay open?

A

18/10

144
Q

What are the items on the left AC bus?

A

Lights
stab augmentor
AOA vane heater
Left boost pump
left autosyn instruments
rudder trim

145
Q

What are the items on the right AC bus?

A

Flap motors
Trim
Ignition exciters
Pitot heat
Right boost pump
Right autosyn isntruments/anti ice
HUD
MDP
Canopy seal

146
Q

What items are on the non-essential DC bus?

A

HUD video camera, TCAS processor, UFCP, VHF radio, video take recorder

147
Q

What items are on the left DC bus?

A

AOA lights
AAP
crossfeed
Left fire test
flap control
fuel shutoff
IFF
speed brake
standby altimeter
VOR/ILS

148
Q

What items are on the right DC bus?

A

ADC
EED
EGI
Landing gear control
MFD
nosewheel steering
radar altimeter
TACAN
UHF

149
Q

What are the three phase AC items

A

boost pumps
HUD
TRU
flap motors

150
Q

What are the engine mounted accessories?

A

T-5 alternator
overspeed governor
nozzle power unit
tachometer generator
oil pump
main fuel pump
afterburner fuel pump
main fuel control
afterburner fuel control
(TONTO MAMA)

151
Q

What is the thrust at MAX power? MIL?

A

3300 lbs // 2200 lbs

152
Q

What is the voltage of the AC power supply?

A

115/200 volts

153
Q

What is the voltage of the AC power supplied by the static inverter?

A

115 volts

154
Q

What does the Flap-Slab interconnect system do?

A
  1. Eliminates pitch changes caused by flap movement by repositioning the horizontal tail
  2. Increasing the amount of horizontal tail travel available in the nose down direction
  3. increasing the amount of horizontal tail deflection per inch of stick travel
155
Q

What are the inputs to the main fuel control?

A
  1. Compressor discharge pressure
  2. engine inlet air temp
  3. RPM
  4. Throttle position

(DIRT)

156
Q

What are the functions of the main fuel control?

A

-Regulates engine speed
-Protects from over temps, stalls, flameouts
-regulates fuel for low power settings
- positions compressor inlet guide vanes and bleed valves

157
Q

What are the AB fuel control inputs?

A
  1. Compressor discharge pressure
  2. EGT (T-5)
  3. Nozzle position
  4. Throttle position
    (DENT)
158
Q

What is T2 cutback?

A

At low airspeeds and low outside air temperatures, engine RPM and EGT indications are below normal operating limits for MIL and MAX.

159
Q

How to you correct T2 cutback?

A

Exchange altitude for airspeed before moving throttles

160
Q

What is EGT droop?

A

At high airspeeds and low altitude, engine EGT indications are below normal operating limits for MIL and MAX.

161
Q

How do you fix EGT droop?

A

Exchange airspeed for altitude before moving throttles

162
Q

What is idle decay?

A

At altitudes above 20,000 with throttles at IDLE and airspeed 200 knots or less, in flight IDLE can decal less than ground idle speed and generator lights can illuminate.

163
Q

How to prevent idle decay?

A

Avoid it by maintaining RPM above 80% or above when less than 200 KCAS above 20,000 indicated are anticipated. if it happens, correct by leaving the throttles in IDLE and increasing speed above 200 KCAS

164
Q

Afterburner provides what percent thrust augmentation above MIL power?

A

5-40%

165
Q

How can you deactivate the nosewheel steering system?

A

Release the NWS button, place a throttle in MAX, rotate to get weight off nosewheel

166
Q

nosewheel tires are severely damages when maximum deflection turns are attempted at speeds in excess of ___ knots?

A

10 knots

167
Q

What is min taxi spacing? How about staggered?

A

300’, 150’

168
Q

How is Joker fuel defined?

A

A pre-briefed fuel needed to terminate an event and transition to the next phase of flight.

169
Q

How is Bingo fuel defined?

A

A pre-briefed fuel state that allows the aircraft to return to base of intended landing or alternate, if required, using preplanned recovery parameter and arrive with normal recovery fuel.

170
Q

What is emergency fuel for the T-38?

A

400lbs

171
Q

When should you land at an alternate based on landing roll if possible?

A

when landing distance exceeds 80% or runway length

172
Q

What are the crosswind limits?

A

10 kts icy or wet solo
15 kts solo, form T/O & Ldg, Xwind proc
20 kts duel wet full stop
25 kts dual touch and go
30 kts dual dry full stop

173
Q

What are the no-flap crosswind landing restricitons?

A

Do not perform no-flap touch-and-go landings on runways without a suitable barrier when the crosswind component exceeds 15 kts.

174
Q

What are the crosswind restrictions when there is no suitable barrier available?

A

If crosswinds exceed 15 knots, the minimum runway length for 60 and 100 percent flap t & gs on runways without a barrier is 10,000 ft.

175
Q

What are the minimum items for an OPS check?

A

Engine instruments
Fuel quantity/balance
G-suit connection
Oxygen system
cabin altitude

176
Q

How do you know when it is safe to operate a system on the ground?

A

the crew chief will repeat ground visual signal

177
Q

Are you allowed to taxi an aircraft with a single generator malfunction or failure?

A

NO

178
Q

What is the minimum runway length for take-off required for the T-38? can it be changed?

A

8,000 Ft
OG/CC can wait to 7000 ft

179
Q

What is the min and max altitude to do TP stalls?

A

8,000 AGL
FL200

180
Q

What is the maximum altitude for nose high recoveries and instruments unusual attitudes?

A

FL240

181
Q

Can pilots reduce gross weight by burning fuel to a predetermined usable fuel wight prior to taking the runway for takeoff?

A

Yes with squadron sup approval

182
Q

Max taxi speed is ___kts GS in congested areas and the parking row, and ____kts otherwise

A

10,25

183
Q

What DME must you remain within on a breakout from the VFT pattern?

A

7 DME

184
Q

What is the minimum landing spacing for same side of the runway? Opposite sides?

A

6,000ft
3,000ft

185
Q

How any T-38s may occupy taxiway juliet at one time?

A

2

186
Q

Off the center runway, you are told by lariet to “Center, continue straight ahead” what should you do

A

Maintain RWY heading and VFR at or below 1600’ until pattern entry clearance is received.

187
Q

Under Restricted Patters, what is the primary way to enter the VFR pattern?

A

Zadom Procedure

188
Q

Aircraft full stopping on the hot side of the runway should not transition to the cold side until past…

A

the 2k’ remaining sign

189
Q

What are the tolerances for the HSI?

A

8* of mag compass withing 5* of known heading

190
Q

When do you execute a stall recovery in the traffic pattern?

A

If stall indications or an excessive sink rate occur in the traffic patter, immediately execute a stall recovery.

191
Q

When may we combine the climb check and the level off check?

A

When the cruise altitude is at or below FL180

192
Q

What are the entry parameters for a Cuban 8? How much altitude do you need? how much distance?

A

500 kts
Mil power
8-10k ft
1 mile ahead and 2 behind

193
Q

What are the entry parameters for the cloverleaf? How much altitude do you need? How much distance?

A

450 kts
mil power
8-10k ft
3NM forward, 2 NM in dir of first turn, 3 NM opposite direction of first turn

194
Q

Rolling takeoffs increase takeoff rolls approximately..?

A

150-300ft

195
Q

When do you need a wing-walker?

A

Any time taxiing within 25 ft of an obstacle

196
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance for taxiing?

A

10 ft

197
Q

What is the minimum speed to start a closed pull-up? What is the minimum speed during the closed pullup?

A

240 KIAS
200 KIAS

198
Q

When you approach the break how do you ensure 3000-6000 ft spacing?

A

45 degrees off AC on inside downing for 3000ft or abeam AC for 6000ft

199
Q

What is the minimum airspeed should be maintained on inside downwind?

A

Final turn airspeed

200
Q

How do rolling takeoffs affect takeoff roll and critical field length?

A

Increases both by 150-300’

201
Q

Is it permissible to descend in slow flight?

A

Yes(if mil power will not hold level flight)

202
Q

What is normal recovery fuel for dual aircraft at Laughlin? Solo?

A

800lbs/ 1000lbs

203
Q

What is minimum fuel for dual aircraft at Laughlin? Solo?

A

600lbs/ 800 lbs

204
Q

Is there a difference between being cleared to land and cleared the option?

A

Yes

205
Q

The HSI should be within how many degrees of the runway heading prior to takeoff?

A

5 degrees

206
Q

Can voice or broadcast messages over VOR or ILS freq be used to identify a station?

A

Only for VOR, the recorded automatic voice identification, indicated by the word VOR following the station name may be used to ID the station.

207
Q

What obstacle clearance does emergency safe altitude provide?

A

1000’/2000’ mountain within 100 NM of the facility

208
Q

Emergency safe altitudes are normally developed for what kind of procedures?

A

military procedures

209
Q

What obstacle clearance does min sector altitude provide?

A

1000’ within 25NM of the fac

210
Q

Max allowable VOR/TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint allowable for the CDI is ___?

A

+/-4*

211
Q

What is the allowable DME error of VOR/TACAN?

A

.5 NM or 3% of the distance to the facility whichever is greater

212
Q

Technique for bank angle for turns less than 30? Greater than 30?

A

Use bank = to degrees to turn up to a max of 30*

213
Q

Leg length of holding at and below 14,000’? above 14,000?

A

1 min// 1.5 min

214
Q

What is the direction of standard holding patterns?

A

right

215
Q

Can a TACAN be used to identify a holding fix if the fix is located over a VORTAC?

A

No, VOR can be used in its place, but if equipped only with a TACAN then no you cannot.

216
Q

What is the purpose of adherence to a maximum holding airspeed?

A

keeps the aircraft within the protected airspace of the holding pattern.

217
Q

Are holding entry sector procedures required in the NAS?

A

No, within the NAS they are only recommend techniques

218
Q

During holding (in NAS), what is the maximum and minimum bank angles you can use?

A

3* per second
30* of bank
25* when using a flight director system

219
Q

What items must be accomplished prior to starting descent?

A
  1. Review IAP
  2. Recheck weather
  3. check heading and attitude
  4. coordinate lost comm
220
Q

During a non-DME teardrop approach, can you start the penetration from an altitude higher than what is published? If not, what should you do?

A

Pilot should descend to the published IAF altitude prior to starting the approach. Request maneuvering airspace from ATC if descent is required at the IAF.

221
Q

What is the pilot’s responsibilities when repeating ATC instructions?

A

Altitudes, restrictions, vectors, headings, altimeter settings, and runway assignments in the same sequence they are given

222
Q

What maximum airspeed should be flown during a procedure turn?

A

200 KIAS to ensure containment within the obstruction clearance area.

223
Q

When is a procedure turn not allowed while flying a low altitude approach procedure?

A

SNERT
Straight-in
No PT
Established
Radar vectors
Timed approach

224
Q

The localizer has a usable range of +/- ____* within ___NM, and +/- ____* within ____NM of course centerline.

A

10*
18NM
35*
10NM

225
Q

What is the usable range of the ILS glideslope?

A

10NM

226
Q

The final approach course on a nonradar final may vary from the runway heading by as much as ____ degrees and still be a published straight-in.

A

30*

227
Q

When executing and ILS approach, what do you do if the aircraft gets more than 1 dot below or 2 dot widths above glideslope?

A

Do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is one dot low or 2 dot high.

228
Q

If the glideslope is recaptured prior to _____ what can you do?

A

If glideslope is recaptured, descent may be continued to DH.

229
Q

How do you determine the required ceiling to execute a circling approach with no published ceiling requirement?

A

The required ceiling will be the HAA plus 100 feet rounded up to the next one hundred foot value.

230
Q

What are the required components for an ILS?

A

Glide slope
Localizer
Outer marker

231
Q

What are acceptable substitutions for OM?

A

DME
another NAVAID
crossing radial
Radar

must be depicted or NOTAMed

232
Q

When is an ILS not authorized?

A

Localizer failure
OM identification failure

233
Q

What should you set in the course selector window for a back course localizer approach?

A

Set the published front course

234
Q

When should a missed approach be initiated?

A

-When at the MAP, At DH, DA is reached and any of the following…
-Rwy not in sight
-Unable to make safe landing
-Directed by controlling agency

235
Q

While going missed during a circling approach, in what direction should you make you initial climbing turn and why?

A

Climbing turn to the landing runway to ensure the aircraft remains within the circling obstruction clearance area. Continue turn until established on missed approach course. Immediate climb is require.

236
Q

If you are vectored off a SID, can you assume the SID cancelled?

A

If vectored assume the SID is canceled unless controller adds “Expect to resume SID”

237
Q

What are max holding airspeeds?

A

0-6000: 200 KIAS
6001-14000: 230 KIAS
14001 and above: 265 KIAS

238
Q

What should ATC holding instructions entail?

A

-Complete holding instructions
- An EFC
-Best estimate of any additional delay when acft is cleared to a fix other than destination airfield and delay expected.

239
Q

What direction of turn is a nonstandard holding pattern?

A

Left

240
Q

What does a “/” mean in an approach name?

A

more than one type of equipment is required to fly the final approach

241
Q

What is the definition of a VDP?

A

is defined on the final approach course of a non-precision approach from which a stabilized visual descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced.

242
Q

Pilots should ____ descend below MDA prior to reaching ____.

A

not
VDP

243
Q

What is a visual approach?

A

Reduces pilot/controller work load and expedite traffic by shortening flight paths to the airport. A visual approach is an IFR procedure conducted under IFR in VMC.

244
Q

What conditions must be met to conduct a visual approach?

A

-Reported weather at or above 1000’ and 3 mi vis
-Must have airport or preceding traffic in sight

245
Q

What are you expected to do if cleared a visual approach?

A

ATC expects you to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport in the most direct and safe manner for the straight in.

Visual approach clearance does not authorize you for overhead VFR pattern entry

246
Q

What is a contact approach?

A

IFR flight plan when clear of clouds with 1 NM of flight vis may request a contact approach

247
Q

ATC may only issue a clearance for a contact approach when…

A
  • Pilot specifically requests the approach
    -reported ground vis at airport is 1SM
    -Contact made to airport that has published IAP
248
Q

What does the runway environment consist of?

A

-ALS
-Threshold, markings, or lights
-Runway end identifier lights
-Touchdown zone, markings, lights
-Runway markings or lights
-VASI/PAPI
-Runway or runway markings

249
Q

What is VOR station passage?

A

When the To-From indicator makes the first positive change to a from.

250
Q

If indicating 0.6 mach, a 1* pitch change give approximately a _____ FPM climb or descent?

A

600 FPM

Pitch100TAS in NM/MIN

251
Q

How do you determine a VDP?

A

HAT/Gradient

252
Q

What is the category E obstruction clearance radius for a circling approach?

A

4.5 NM

253
Q

How much should you lead your turn point?

Degrees to turn
90 60 45 30

A

Fraction of 90* turn
1
1/2
1/3
1/6

254
Q

MEA definition

A

Lowest published altitude between 2 radio fixes which assures nav reception and obstacle clearance req.

255
Q

MOCA definition

A

Altitude in effect between radio fixes, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment which assures navaid reception within 22NM of station.

256
Q

MRA definition

A

the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined

257
Q

Define HAA

A

Height of minimum descent used with circling

258
Q

Define HAT

A

The height of decision height or MDA above the highest elevation in the touchdown zone elevation. Used with straight ins

259
Q

Define touchdown zone elevations

A

The highest elevation in the first 3,000 ft of the landing surface.

260
Q

Who and wat are specifically governed by the directives stated in AFMAN 11-202V3?

A

Governs the operation of Air Force aircraft flown by Air Force pilots, pilots of other services, foreign pilots, and civilian pilots.

261
Q

When are deviations authorized from AFMAN 11-202V3

A

PIC may deviate from any flight rule only when:
-in-flight emergency requires immediate action
-Deviation is require to protect lives
-when safety of flight dictates

262
Q

If you have deviated from 11-202V3 as a result of an emergency, what must the pilot do upon landing?

A
  1. Verbally report incident to immediate sup and commander in 24 hours.
  2. PIC make detailed written record
  3. Unit will keep record for 1 year and provide it to investigation authority
263
Q

If a pilot decides to file based on visibility-only criterial, what additional allowances must be provided for in the preflight planning?

A

Fuel for an approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan fuel.

264
Q

When do you have to file an IFR flight plan?

A

Pilots must fly under IFR under max extent practical but specifically if…
-Weather conditions do not permit flight according to VFR.
-Class A airspace
-Excess of 180 KTAS within Fed airways
-Operating fixed wing at night

265
Q

What is required for file to a destination?

A
  1. Wx +/-1 hour above lowest compatible mins (not tempo)
  2. For straight in or sidestep, forecast wx must only meet published vis.
  3. Circling approach must meet ceiling or vis.
  4. If not compatible approach must be able to fly composite IFR/VFR
266
Q

What is required to file an alternate?

A
  1. Wx +/-1 hour including tempo less than 2000/3SM
  2. AETC winds out of limits
  3. AETC denial of RVSM prevents reaching planned destination
267
Q

What ex is required for an alternate?

A

Wx +/- 1 hour not including TEMPO caused by rain, snow, thunderstorms, 1000/2 or 500/1 above lowest compatible mins

268
Q

Other than wx, what disqualifies an alternate?

A

-require radar
-all NAVAIDs unmonitored
-No WX reporting
- ANA
- All approaches require GPS
-AETC winds
-AETC regardless of wx, access to RVSM required.

269
Q

What are the takeoff minimums?

A
  1. Wx above lowest compatible approach mins
  2. Takeoff vis must be greater than 600 RVR
  3. Mins below 1600 RVR not authorized unless centerline lights and 2 RVR reporting systems
  4. PWC minimums
270
Q

What weather is required to start an approach?

A
  1. Pilots will not descend if wx is required approach mins
  2. Straight in or sidestep the wx must only be at or above published vis mins
  3. circling mins use ceiling or vis
271
Q

What do you do if the wx goes below mins on an approach?

A

if already started descent, receiving radar vectors or established, can continue down to MDP/DH MAP

272
Q

Requirements to fly cat D approaches?

A

Straight in
Final 165 KIAS or less
260 KTAS on missed

273
Q

When do you hold short of the ILS localizer critical area?

A

WX 800/2

274
Q

Where are the ILS critical areas at KDLF?

A

between center and outside runways on taxiways alpha, foxtrot, and golf

275
Q

What happens to Normal Acceleration Check Speed as:
RCR decreases? Why?

A

No Change, the effects of RCR on acceleration are negligible

276
Q

What happens to Normal Acceleration Check Speed as:
Headwind increases? Why?

A

Increases, Thrust and acceleration are unaffected, but headwind will give an extra IAS equal to the headwind component.

Checkride (2 decks)

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