Q1 Flashcards

0
Q
Salivary secretion is stimulated by
	A)	the salivary nucleus only.
	B)	the salivary nucleus and gastrin.
	C)gastrin only.
	D)the salivary nucleus and local reflexes in the tunica mucosa and submucosa.
A

Salivary nucleus only
Feedback: Secretions along the digestive tract can be stimulated by the automatic nervous system, by local reflexes in the tunica mucosa and submucosa and by hormones. Typically secretions are stimulated by either the nervous system or release of hormones. Salivation, however, is only stimulated by the nervous system. The tactile stimulation in the oral cavity, stimulation of taste buds, as well as the smell or thought of food stimulates the salivary nucleus in the brainstem. Normal salivation is stimulated by the parasympathetic nervous system.

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1
Q
Surface area of the stomach is increased by
	A)	gastric pits.
	B)	plicae circulares.
	C)villi.
	D)microvilli.
A

Gastric pits
Feedback:
The small intestine’s surface area for digestion and absorption is increased by plicae circulares, villi and microvilli. In the stomach, gastric glands line the numerous tube-like gastric pits that increase the surface area for digestion.

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2
Q

The esophagus is different from the GI tract because the esophagus has
A) skeletal muscles at the superior end and smooth muscles at the inferior end.
B) no tunica submucosa.
C)villi and microvilli to increase surface area.
D)no tunica mucosa.

A

A
Feedback: The esophagus contains four tunics: mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and adventitia. The tunica adventitia is different from the tunica serosa, because the tunica adventitia grades into the surrounding connective tissue. The tunica muscularis in the GI tract consists of smooth muscle only, while in the esophagus the superior part contains skeletal muscle and the inferior part contains smooth muscle.

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3
Q

Sometimes when you are talking and eating you initiate the gagging reflex. The gagging or coughing reflex is stimulated when foreign material enters the larynx. Some of the bolus you are swallowing enters the larynx when you are talking because the
A) epiglottis is not closed over the glottis.
B) soft palate moves inferiorly.
C) pharyngeal constrictor muscles relax.
D) esophageal sphincters relax.

A

A
In normal swallowing, the soft palate (particularly the uvula) moves superiorly, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles contract and the esophageal sphincters relax. If the soft palate moves inferiorly (you are breathing through your nose while swallowing) some of the bolus could enter the nasopharynx and initiate a sneezing reflex. When talking while swallowing, the epiglottis is open, which may allow some of the bolus to enter the larynx. This would initiate the gagging or coughing reflex

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4
Q
The cardiac or lower gastroesophageal sphincter is composed of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle and prevents chyme from moving into the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
	A)	smooth; esophagus
	B)	skeletal; esophagus
	C)	smooth; duodenum
	D)	skeletal; duodenum
A

A
Feedback:
Both the cardiac and pyloric sphincters are composed of smooth muscle. The pyloric sphincter regulates the movement of chyme into the duodenum and prevents the chyme from moving back into the stomach. The cardiac sphincter prevents chyme from moving into the esophagus. If this occurs, irritation of the esophagus or hearth burn may result.

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5
Q
Parasympathetic stimulation causes endocrine cells in the stomach to release the hormone
	A)	gastrin.
	B)	pepsinogen.
	C)	histamine.
	D)	secretin.
A

A
Feedback: Pepsinogen is an enzyme produced by chief cells in the stomach, while secretin is a hormone produced by endocrine cells in the duodenum. The endocrine cells of the stomach produce two major hormones: gastrin and histamine. Histamine stimulates parietal cells to secrete hydrochloric acid. Gastrin not only stimulates gastric secretions, but also increases gastric motility, relaxes the pyloric sphincter and stimulates the release of histamine.

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6
Q
After eating or drinking dairy products like cheese and milk, you have intestinal cramps, bloating and diarrhea. You most likely have
	A)	lactose intolerance.
	B)	diabetes mellitus, Type I.
	C)	heartburn.
	D)	peritonitis.
A

A
Feedback: In heartburn you feel pain in the area of the heart, because of the acid chyme from the stomach irritating the lining of the esophagus. Peritonitis is an infection or inflammation of the peritoneum, which is not be related to eating dairy products. Type I diabetes mellitus is a result of lack of adequate insulin production, and the symptoms include abnormally high glucose levels in the blood, glucose in the urine, and excessive urine production. The inability to digest the disaccharide, lactose, in dairy products is called lactose intolerance and results in intestinal cramps, bloating and diarrhea.

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7
Q
The lipids that can be absorbed across the epithelial wall of the small intestine are hydrophobic and would have a difficult time in the watery lumen to come in contact with the epithelial membrane. These lipids are able to move easily in the watery lumen because of interaction with
	A)	bile salts.
	B)	lipase.
	C)	micelles.
	D)	chylomicrons.
A

A
Feedback:
The lipid digestion products are fatty acids, glycerol, cholesterol and phospholipids. These are nonpolar or hydrophobic molecules in a medium of water, which is polar. Bile salts have hydrophobic ends that are directed toward the lipid products and hydrophilic ends directed outward toward the water environment. The complex is called a micelle and it allows for easy movement of the complex toward the epithelial wall and subsequent diffusion of the lipid products into the epithelial cell. A micelle can be seen in the below figure. (Figure 24.28)

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8
Q
Once absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine, free fatty acids and glycerol are recombined and a protein coat is added to form a
	A)	chylomicron.
	B)	micelle.
	C)	lipoprotein.
	D)	fatty droplet.
A

A
A micelle is the package in the lumen of the small intestine formed by lipid digestion products surrounded by bile salts. Once lipids reach the blood they combine with proteins and the complex is called a lipoprotein. Fatty droplets are smaller molecules of lipids that are produced when bile salts emulsify large lipid molecules. When the intestinal cells absorb cholesterol and fatty acids, they are recombined in the smooth ER to form fat. The protein coat is added to the fat and other lipid products in the golgi apparatus. This new package is called a chylomicron, which leaves the cell by exocytosi

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9
Q
Most of the protein digesting enzymes are produced by the
	A)	stomach and pancreas.
	B)	small intestine and pancreas.
	C)	stomach and small intestine.
	D)	salivary glands and stomach.
A

A
Three major enzymes break down protein to peptides. Pepsinogen produced by chief cells in the stomach is activated to pepsin by the acid pH. Trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen are produced by the acinar cells in the pancreas. Trypsinogen is activated by enterokinase in the small intestine to trypsin. Trypsin then activates chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin. So, the protein digesting enzymes are produced in the stomach (pepsinogen) and pancreas (trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen). The last two enzymes become activated in the small intestine

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10
Q
Which one of the following hormones is released by both the stomach and small intestine?
	A)	gastrin
	B)	secretin
	C)	cholecystokinin
	D)	gastric inhibitory polypeptide
A

A
Feedback:
In the intestinal phase, in response to a chyme that has a pH below 2 or contains fatty acids, the endocrine cells of the duodenum release hormones to inhibit gastric secretions. These hormones include secretin (pH below 2), cholecystokinin (fatty acids), and gastric inhibitory polypeptide (fatty acids). An increase in protein in the chyme stimulates the endocrine cells of the duodenum to release gastrin. Gastrin is also released by the endocrine cells of the stomach and whether gastrin is released by the stomach or small intestine, gastric secretions are increased.

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11
Q

In the tunica mucosa and submucosa of the small intestine, a series of folds called the ____________ functions to __________________.
A) plicae circulares; increase surface area
B) villi; increase surface area
C) microvilli; allow the small intestine to expand
D) rugae; allow the small intestine to expand

A

A
Feedback:
The stomach contains folds called rugae in the tunica mucosa and submucosa, which allow the stomach to expand. The small intestine has several modifications that allow its surface area to increase about 600 fold over a tube that has no modifications. Microvilli are cytoplasmic extensions on individual epithelial cells, and villi are fingerlike projections of the tunica mucosa. The tunica mucosa and submucosa form a series of folds called circular folds or plicae circulares.

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12
Q
The lymphatic capillaries in the villi of the small intestine are called
	A)	lacteals.
	B)	Peyer's patches.
	C)	Crypts of Lieberkuhn.
	D)	microvilli.
A

A
Feedback:
Crypts of Lieberkuhn are tubular invaginations of the tunica mucosa in the small intestine while Peyer’s patches are lymph nodules in the tunica mucosa and submucosa of the ileum. Microvilli are cytoplasmic extensions on the absorptive cells. Villi are fingerlike projections that contain blood capillary networks and lymphatic capillaries called lacteals.

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13
Q
Bacteria and other foreign material absorbed by the small intestine are destroyed by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cells found lining the hepatic sinusoids.
	A)	kupffer
	B)	hepatic
	C)	endothelial
	D)	acinar
A

A
Feedback: The acinar cells are found in the pancreas and produce the enzymatic component of pancreatic juice. The hepatic cells or hepatocytes line the outside of the sinusoids and perform many functions including absorbing oxygen and nutrients, detoxifying materials like alcohol, storing as well as releasing nutrients back into the blood, and producing bile. Endothelial cells are very thin simple squamous cells making up the wall of the sinusoid along with kupffer cells or hepatic phagocytic cells that phagocytize bacteria and other foreign material.

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14
Q
Gall stones result from the precipitation of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in the gallbladder.
	A)	cholesterol
	B)	calcium salts
	C)	uric acid salts
	D)	urea
A

A
Feedback: Crystals of calcium salts may cause kidney stones, while crystals of uric acid salts may result in gout. Urea is very water-soluble and is less likely to form crystals. Cholesterol, which can be taken in via the diet and is also a waste product of saturated fat metabolism, is one of the components of bile. Cholesterol may precipitate out in the gallbladder and help to form gallstones. Drastic dieting with rapid weight loss may lead to gallstone production.

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15
Q
In the production of the aqueous component of pancreatic juice, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ions are actively transported into the intercalated duct and sodium ions are exchanged for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ions.
	A)	bicarbonate; hydrogen
	B)	sodium; potassium
	C)	bicarbonate; potassium
	D)	hydrogen; potassium
A

A
Feedback:
The aqueous component of pancreatic juice is composed of water, sodium ions, and bicarbonate ions. In the cells that line the intercalated duct, water and carbon dioxide are stimulated by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase to form carbonic acid. The carbonic acid dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions. Bicarbonate ions are actively transported into the intercalated duct. The hydrogen ions are exchanged for sodium ions between the cell and the capillary. Sodium ions and water follow the actively transported bicarbonate ions into the intercalated duct lumen by diffusion.

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16
Q
You have the following symptoms: sudden abdominal pain, slight fever, loss of appetite, and nausea. You may have
	A)	appendicitis.
	B)	heartburn.
	C)	diarrhea.
	D)	hemorrhoids.
A

A
Feedback:
Heartburn is chest pain associated with acid chyme from the stomach irritating the lining of the inferior esophagus. Hemorrhoids are inflammation of the hemorrhoidal veins, which supply the anal canal. This may result in pain, itching and bleeding around the anus. Diarrhea results when the large intestine is irritated and causes an abnormally frequent discharge of watery feces. Sudden abdominal pain (especially in the right lower portion), slight fever, loss of appetite, and nausea may be a result of inflammation of the vermiform appendix called appendicitis. Constipation or diarrhea may accompany appendicitis.

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17
Q

The coronary ligament attaches the
A) liver to the diaphragm.
B) liver to the anterior abdominal wall.
C) colon to the posterior body wall.
D) lesser curvature of the stomach and proximal end of the duodenum to the liver and diaphragm.

A

A
Feedback:
The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall, and the mesocolon attaches the colon to the posterior abdominal wall. The lesser omentum attaches the lesser curvature of the stomach and proximal end of the duodenum to the liver and diaphragm. The mesentery that attaches the liver to the diaphragm is the coronary ligament.

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18
Q
The most common cause of tooth loss in adults is
	A)	periodontal disease.
	B)	gingivitis.
	C)	pyorrhea.
	D)	dental caries.
A

A
Feedback: Dental caries or tooth decay is caused by the break down of enamel by acids produced by bacteria. Gingivitis is inflammation of the gingiva and may lead to periodontal disease. Pyorrhea is a condition in which pus occurs with periodontal disease. Periodontal disease is the inflammation and degradation of the periodontal ligaments, gingiva, and alveolar bone and is the leading cause of tooth loss in adults.

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19
Q
In a given tooth, the dentin is located \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the enamel.
	A)	inferior
	B)	anterior
	C)	superior
	D)	posterior
A

A

dentin is located below or inferior to the enamel.

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20
Q

Salivary glands structurally are
A) compound tubuloacinar or tubuloalveolar glands.
B) compound alveolar or acinar glands.
C) compound tubular glands.
D) simple branched alveolar or acinar glands.

A

A
Salivary glands have ducts that are both tubular and alveolar or acinar in shape. Because the ducts branch repeatedly, the salivary glands are also compound.

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21
Q
Saliva decreases gingivitis and caries because it contains immunoglobulin A and
	A)	lysozymes.
	B)	mucus.
	C)	salivary amylase.
	D)	water.
A

A
Feedback: Saliva contains water, which liquefies the food and is the medium for digestion; mucus that lubricates the food and protects the epithelial cells and gives saliva a lubricating quality; and the salivary amylase, which breaks down starch to maltose and isomaltose. The antibacterial enzyme, lysozyme, is found in a number of secretions including saliva and tears. In the oral cavity this antibacterial enzyme reduces the occurrence of gingivitis and caries.

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22
Q
Secretion of the enzymatic component of pancreatic juice is stimulated by the hormone
	A)	gastric inhibitory polypeptide.
	B)	secretin.
	C)	gastrin.
	D)	cholecystokinin.
A

D
Feedback:
The endocrine cells of the duodenum produce four hormones. Gastrin and gastric inhibitory polypeptide increase gastric secretions and inhibit gastric secretions respectively. Secretin and cholecystokinin have a number of target organs, but the pancreas is stimulated by both. Secretin stimulates the cells lining the intercalated duct to secrete the aqueous component. Cholecystokinin stimulates the acinar cells to secrete the enzymatic component. Cholecystokinin is stimulated to be released by fatty acids and fat in the chyme of the small intestine.

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23
Q
This region of the large intestine has a simple columnar epithelium in its tunica mucosa, smooth muscle in its tunica muscularis, and epiploic appendages attach to its outer surface. This region is called the
	A)	cecum.
	B)	colon.
	C)	rectum.
	D)	anal canal.
A

B
Feedback:
The cecum, colon and rectum all have a simple columnar epithelium and smooth muscle in their tunica muscularis. The anal canal has smooth muscle but the epithelium changes from simple columnar to stratified squamous. Epiploic appendages are fat-filled connective tissue pouches unique to the colon.

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24
Q

In the colon, the teniae coli are bands of __________, which contract to form ___________.
A) fat; epiploic appendages
B) longitudinal smooth muscle; haustra
C) skeletal muscle; haustra
D) smooth muscle; the internal anal sphincter

A

B
Feedback:
The epiploic appendages are fat-filled connective tissue pouches attached to the outer surface of the colon. The anal canal contains smooth muscle that forms the internal anal sphincter. There is no skeletal muscle in the wall of the colon. The teniae coli are three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle that run the length of the colon. When the teniae coli contract, pouches called haustra form along the length of the colon.

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25
Q
This blind tube is about 9 cm long, is filled with lymph nodules and attaches to the cecum. This blind tube is called the
	A)	epiploic appendix.
	B)	haustra.
	C)	vermiform appendix.
	D)	tenia coli.
A

C
Feedback:
Epiploic appendages are fat-filled pouches attached to the outer surface of the colon. Haustra are pouches in the colon formed by contraction of three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle called teniae coli. The cecum is the proximal end of the large intestine and forms a blind sac. Attached to the cecum is a small blind tube about 9 cm long called the vermiform appendix.

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26
Q
Once chylomicrons leave the simple columnar epithelium of the small intestine, they diffuse into
	A)	capillaries.
	B)	lacteals.
	C)	arterioles.
	D)	venules.
A

B
Feedback:
Chylomicrons are large molecules composed of phospholipids, triglycerides, and cholesterol with a protein coat. Products are taken up from the interstitial fluid around the small intestine either by capillaries or by lymphatic capillaries called lacteals. The walls of arterioles and venules are too thick to allow for any absorption. The chylomicron is too big and too polar to enter the capillary. Lacteals have large spaces between their simple squamous cells that allow for the diffusion of the chylomicrons.

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27
Q
A lipoprotein has the following components: 5% tryglyceride, 20% cholesterol, 30% phospholipid, and 45% protein. This molecule would be best described as a
	A)	micelle.
	B)	chylomicron.
	C)	low-density lipoprotein.
	D)	high-density lipoprotein.
A

D
Feedback:
A micelle is composed of bile salts, fatty acids, glycerol, plus other lipid products, but it contain no protein. A chylomicron is composed of only about 1% protein. The chylomicron carries the fat products to the lacteals. When the fat products are released into the blood, they are carried by proteins. Lipids that combine with proteins in the blood form lipoproteins. Lipids are less dense than water while proteins are more dense than water. A chylomicron with only 1% protein is referred to as a very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) whereas a lipoprotein with 45% protein would be a high-density lipoprotein (HDL).

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28
Q
Cholesterol that is required to produce steroids and bile salts is carried in
	A)	micelles.
	B)	chylomicrons.
	C)	low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
	D)	high-density lipoproteins (HDL).
A

C
Feedback:
About 15% of the cholesterol in the body is ingested in the food we eat, while the remaining 85% is manufactured by cells of the body. Cells have LDL receptors on their surfaces that bind to the low-density lipoproteins (LDL). Cholesterol transported to cells must be carried by LDL to allow for absorption into cells by endocytosis. Excess lipids are packaged in HDL and transported back to the liver for recycling or disposal.

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29
Q
Cholesterol is a major component of atherosclerotic plaque. Cholesterol carried by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is linked to coronary heart disease.
	A)	micelle
	B)	chylomicron
	C)	low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
	D)	high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
A

C
Feedback: Micelles carry cholesterol to the small intestinal epithelium, and chylomicrons carry cholesterol to lacteals. Most of the cholesterol in the blood attach to proteins forming lipoproteins - either low-density lipoproteins ( LDL) or high-density lipoproteins (HDL). Cholesterol carried in HDL is being carried to the kidneys for removal, and LDL carries cholesterol to the tissues. The higher the LDL levels, the more cholesterol is carried to the tissues and the higher the possibility of atherosclerotic plaque. The higher the HDL levels the more cholesterol is carried to the liver for disposal. Sometimes LDLs are called bad cholesterol carriers and HDLs are called good cholesterol carriers

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30
Q
The optimum pH for trypsin and chymotrypsin is about
	A)	1-3.
	B)	5-7.
	C)	7-9.
	D)	10-12
A

C
Feedback: There are different pH levels in the GI tract. The saliva has a pH between 6 and 7 where salivary amylase is active. The stomach has a pH between 1 and 3 where pepsin is active. The acid chyme is buffered by bicarbonate ions added to the duodenum by bile and pancreatic juices. The pH of the small intestine is about 8 where trypsin and chymotrypsin are most active.

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31
Q
Calcium is actively absorbed by the small intestine and this is accelerated by
	A)	sodium.
	B)	the intrinsic factor.
	C)	Vitamin D.
	D)	Vitamin K.
A

C
Feedback: Sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, and phosphate are actively transported into epithelial cells lining the small intestine. The intrinsic factor helps in the absorption of Vitamin B12. Most of the Vitamin K is produced by the colic bacteria in the large intestine, but Vitamin K is lipid-soluble and is easily absorbed. Vitamin D or calcitriol helps increase the active transport of calcium

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32
Q
Probably the main reason why elderly people have antacids, H2 antagonists and proton pump inhibitors is because of the increase in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ with age.
	A)	Crohn's disease
	B)	irritable bowel syndrome
	C)	gastroesophageal reflux disorder
	D)	colitis
A

C
Feedback:
Crohn’s disease involves localized inflammatory degeneration anywhere along the GI tract. There are many causes of this, but smoking increases the risk the most. Irritable bowel syndrome is a disorder of unknown causes in which intestinal mobility is abnormal. Affected individuals have alternating bouts of constipation and diarrhea. Colitis is an inflammation of the colon. Antacids, H2 antagonists and proton pump inhibitors would not effect the three previous pathologies. Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD) is caused by the movement of acid chyme from the stomach through the weak gastroesophageal sphincter back to the esophagus where it irritates the lining. The sph

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33
Q
Cholesterol is a major component of atherosclerotic plaque. Cholesterol carried by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is linked to coronary heart disease.
	A)	micelle
	B)	chylomicron
	C)	low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
	D)	high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
A

C
Feedback: Micelles carry cholesterol to the small intestinal epithelium, and chylomicrons carry cholesterol to lacteals. Most of the cholesterol in the blood attach to proteins forming lipoproteins - either low-density lipoproteins ( LDL) or high-density lipoproteins (HDL). Cholesterol carried in HDL is being carried to the kidneys for removal, and LDL carries cholesterol to the tissues. The higher the LDL levels, the more cholesterol is carried to the tissues and the higher the possibility of atherosclerotic plaque. The higher the HDL levels the more cholesterol is carried to the liver for disposal. Sometimes LDLs are called bad cholesterol carriers and HDLs are called good cholesterol carriers.

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34
Q
The lamina propria and muscularis mucosa are found in the tunica
	A)	mucosa.
	B)	submucosa.
	C)	muscularis.
	D)	serosa.
A

A
Feedback:
The lamina propria is composed of loose connective tissue, and the muscularis mucosae is a thin ring of smooth muscle controlled by Meissner’s or submucosal plexus.

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35
Q

The term gastrointestinal (GI) tract refers to the
A) oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine.
B) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine.
C) esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine.
D) stomach, small intestine and large intestine

A

D
The digestive tract consists of the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and anus plus the following accessory organs: teeth, tongue, salivary or other oral glands, tonsils, mucous glands, liver, gallbladder, appendix and pancreas. The term GI tract just refers to the stomach, small intestine and large intestine

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36
Q

The nervous system or systems that can control peristalsis in the inferior esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine is (are) the
A) somatic motor nervous system.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
D) autonomic and somatic motor nervous systems.

A

C
Feedback: The walls of the inferior esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine contain smooth muscle, and waves of contractions of these muscles are called peristaltic waves. The autonomic nervous system is composed of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems or divisions and control the contraction of smooth muscle in the walls of the inferior esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine. The tongue, pharynx, superior esophagus and external rectal sphincter contain skeletal muscle, which is controlled by the somatic motor nervous system.

37
Q

Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system will cause which one of the following effects in the inferior esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine?
A) nothing, because skeletal muscle is found in the walls of these areas
B) increases peristalsis by stimulation of smooth muscle
C) decreases peristalsis by inhibition of smooth muscle
D) decreases peristalsis by stimulation of smooth muscle

A

C
Feedback: The walls of the inferior esophagus, stomach, small intestine and large intestine contain smooth muscle which is innervated by fibers of the autonomic nervous system. Normal secretions and peristalsis in the digestive tract is stimulated by the parasympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system or fight-or-flight system stops or decreases activities that for a short period of time are not essential for survival. Sympathetic nervous system decreases secretions and inhibits peristalsis in the digestive tract.

38
Q
Contractions that mix material in the small intestine are called
	A)	peristalsis.
	B)	deglutition.
	C)	mass movements
	D)	segmental contractions.
A

D
Feedback:
Deglutition or swallowing moves the bolus from the oral cavity into the esophagus. Peristalsis moves material along most of the digestive tract, and mass movements move material from the transverse colon to the rectum. Segmental contractions occur in the small intestine to mix the contents to allow for more rapid digestion and absorption.

39
Q
Which one of the following is absorbed in the GI tract without being digested?
	A)	starch
	B)	proteins
	C)	vitamins
	D)	triglycerides
A

C
Feedback: Before being absorbed across the wall of the GI tract, starch is broken down to glucose, protein is broken down to amino acids, and triglycerides are broken down to glycerol and fatty acids. Minerals, water and vitamins are not broken down and can be absorbed as is.

40
Q
The epithelium of the mouth, oropharynx, esophagus and anal canal is
	A)	simple squamous.
	B)	stratified squamous.
	C)	simple columnar.
	D)	pseudostratified columnar.
A

B
Feedback: The openings and ducts into and out of the digestive tract are lined with a protective epithelium called stratified squamous.

41
Q
The stomach, small intestine and large intestine are lined by this epithelium.
	A)	simple squamous
	B)	stratified squamous
	C)	simple columnar
	D)	pseudostratified columnar
A

C
Feedback: Digestion and absorption in the GI tract requires a simple epithelium for absorption and cells large enough to produce the variety of secretions which include the following: mucus, enzymes, hormones, and acids. The epithelium of most of the respiratory tract is pseudostratified columnar. The epithelium of the GI tract is simple columnar.

42
Q

Contractions of the smooth muscles in the tunica muscularis in the GI tract causes ___________ and is stimulated by ____________ plexus.
A) local secretions, Meissner’s or submucosal
B) peristalsis, Auerbach’s or myenteric
C) peristalsis, Meissner’s or submucosal
D) local secretions, Auerbach’s or myenteric

A

Feedback:
In the GI tract the tunica submucosa contains Meissner’s or submucosal plexus that contains autonomic fibers. Stimulation of this plexus may cause contraction of the muscularis mucosa, which stimulates local secretions. The tunica muscularis contains Auerbach’s or myenteric plexus, which also contains autonomic fibers. Stimulation of the myenteric plexus may cause contraction of the smooth muscles of the tunica muscularis, which results in peristalsis.

43
Q
The muscular contractions, which move material through the digestive tract, are called:
	A)	peristalsis
	B)	deglutition.
	C)	mass movements.
	D)	segmental contractions.
A

A
Feedback:
Swallowing or deglutition moves food from the oral cavity to the esophagus. Mass movements occur in the large intestine to move fecal material into the rectum. Segmentation contractions are mixing contractions, which occur in the small intestine. Peristalsis creates waves of contractions through most of the digestive tract to move the material along.

44
Q
The secretions that lubricate the food so it moves easily through the digestive tract and also protects the epithelium are called
	A)	mucus.
	B)	water.
	C)	enzymes.
	D)	hormones.
A

A
Feedback: Water is the most common secretion of the digestive tract; it liquefies food and provides the medium for digestion. Enzymes are secreted in the oral cavity, by the stomach, small intestine and pancreas and are responsible for the chemical digestion of food. Hormones are produced by the stomach and small intestine and stimulate or inhibit secretions and/or movements along the GI tract. Mucus is secreted along the entire digestive tract and functions to lubricate the food and protect the epithelium from abrasion, acids, and enzymes.

45
Q
The tunica muscularis in the superior esophagus is made up of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle.
	A)	skeletal
	B)	cardiac
	C)	smooth
	D)	smooth and skeletal
A

A
Feedback: Throughout most of the digestive tract, the tunica muscularis is made up of two or three layers of smooth muscle. The inferior esophagus has smooth muscle while the superior esophagus has skeletal muscle in the tunica muscularis. Even though the superior esophagus has skeletal muscle, the bolus moves down the entire esophagus by involuntary peristaltic contractions.

46
Q
Hepatocytes or hepatic cells produce bile, which is secreted into the
	A)	hepatic portal vein.
	B)	bile canaliculi.
	C)	hepatic sinusoid.
	D)	lacteal.
A

B
Feedback:
Bile is produced by the hepatocytes or hepatic cells from the hepatic cords around the hepatic sinusoids. Bile is secreted into a cleft-like lumen called the bile canaliculus.

47
Q

Which one of the following is the correct pathway of bile from the hepatocytes to the gallbladder?
A) bile canaliculus → hepatic duct → common hepatic duct → common bile duct → gallbladder.
B) bile canaliculus → hepatic duct → cystic duct → common hepatic duct → gallbladder.
C) hepatic sinusoid → central vein → hepatic vein → gall bladder.
D) bile canaliculus → hepatic duct → common hepatic duct → cystic duct → gallbladder.

A

D
Feedback:
Bile is produced by the hepatocytes in liver lobules and secreted into a bile canaliculus, not into the blood (hepatic sinusoids). The common bile duct carries bile from the gallbladder to the duodenum. The correct pathway of bile to the gallbladder is bile canaliculus → hepatic duct → common hepatic duct → cystic duct → gallbladder.

48
Q

One of the major functions of bile salts is to
A) break down fat to fatty acids and glycerol.
B) emulsify fat to fatty droplets.
C) break down fat to cholesterol and lecithin.
D) emulsify fats to bilirubin.

A

B
Feedback: The liver produces and secretes about 600-1000 mL of bile each day. Bile contains water, bilirubin, cholesterol, fats, fat-soluble hormones, lecithin, bicarbonate ions, and bile salts. Many of the components of bile are waste products, but bile does play two roles in digestion. Bile helps neutralize the acid chyme (via bicarbonate ions) coming from the stomach. Bile salts emulsify fats to fatty droplets, which increases the surface area for the digestive enzyme lipase. Lipase can now very efficiently and quickly breakdown the fatty droplets to fatty acids and glycerol.

49
Q
An individual has the following symptoms: jaundice, pale in color, liver with a buildup of connective tissue. This individual most likely has
	A)	gastritis.
	B)	pancreatitis.
	C)	gall stones.
	D)	cirrhosis.
A

D
Feedback: An individual who has a yellowish color (jaundice) of the integument and sclera is not excreting enough bile into the duodenum. Bilirubin, a breakdown product of hemoglobin, builds up in the tissue and is the major cause of jaundice. Bile is not being adequately formed in the liver or adequately excreted into the duodenum. Pathologies of the stomach (gastritis) and pancreas (panceatitis) will not influence bile production. Gallstones may cause jaundice, but jaundice with the buildup of connective tissue in the liver is cirrhosis. Hepatocytes die and are replaced by connective tissue. The buildup of connective tissue may impede blood flow in the liver resulting in a pale color. Cirrhosis frequently develops in alcoholics.

50
Q
The liver is a major storehouse for all of the following except one. Which one of the following substance or substances are not stored in the liver.
	A)	copper and iron
	B)	calcium
	C)	Vitamins A, B12, D, E and K.
	D)	glycogen
A

B
Feedback:
Most people who like liver benefit from the many substances stored in the liver. Copper and iron are stored as well as the fat-soluble Vitamins A, B12, D, E and K. Glucose is stored in the liver as glycogen. Most of the calcium in the body is stored in bone

51
Q

Bile secretion is stimulated by the hormone ______________ in response to ______________.
A) cholecystokinin; high pH of the chyme
B) cholecystokinin; low pH of the chyme
C) secretin; high pH of the chyme
D) secretin; low pH of the chyme

A

D
Feedback:
The duodenum monitors the chyme entering from the stomach. In response to fatty acids and other lipids, the endocrine cells release the hormone cholecystokinin. In response to an acid chyme (low pH), the endocrine cells release the hormone secretin. One type of the cells controlled by secretin are hepatocytes, which increases their secretions of bicarbonate ions and increases the volume of bile

52
Q

Which one of the following functions best describes the effects of the hormone cholecystokinin?
A) inhibits gastric secretions
B) increases gastric secretions
C) inhibits gastric secretions, stimulates pancreatic secretions (high in enzymes), stimulates contraction of the gall bladder and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi
D) inhibits gastric secretions, stimulates pancreatic secretions (high in bicarbonate ions) and increases the secretions of bile, intestinal juice

A

C
Feedback:
Gastric inhibitory polypeptide inhibits gastric secretions, while gastrin increases gastric secretions. Secretin, in response to acid chyme, inhibits gastric secretions, stimulates pancreatic secretions rich in bicarbonate ions, and increases the secretions of bile, intestinal juice and mucus. Cholecystokinin (CCK), in response to fatty acids and other lipids in the duodenum, inhibits gastric secretions, stimulates pancreatic secretions rich in enzymes, stimulates contraction of the gallbladder and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi.

53
Q
The liver combines a toxic by-product of amino acid metabolism, ammonia, with another waste product, carbon dioxide, to form the water-soluble \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is excreted in the kidneys.
	A)	cholesterol
	B)	bilirubin
	C)	urea
	D)	uric acid
A

C
Feedback:
Cholesterol in the diet can be absorbed across the simple epithelium in the small intestine and is also a waste product of saturated fat metabolism in the liver. Bilirubin results from the breakdown of hemoglobin and is excreted into bile by the hepatocytes in the liver. In purine (adenine or guanine) metabolism, purines are deaminated (ammonia group removed) and produce uric acid, which is not very toxic, but also not very water-soluble. In the liver, as a result of deamination of amino acids, toxic molecules of ammonia (NH3) are produced. In the liver, two molecules of ammonia are combined with one molecule of carbon dioxide to form urea. Urea is also not very toxic, but it is water-soluble and readily excreted in the liver

54
Q
The gallbladder contracts in response to
	A)	vagal stimulation only.
	B)	cholecystokinin and vagal stimulation.
	C)	cholecystokinin and secretin.
	D)	a low pH of chyme.
A

B
Feedback: The gallbladder stores 40-70 mL of bile and contracts shortly after a meal. The hormone secretin, and a low pH of chyme have no feedback effects on the gallbladder. The hormone cholecystokinin, in response to fatty acids and other lipids in the duodenal chyme, stimulates the gallbladder to contract and sphincter of Oddi to relax. Vagal stimulation can also stimulate the gallbladder to contract but to a lesser degree.

55
Q
Histamine stimulates the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cells to release \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
	A)	parietal; intrinsic factor
	B)	chief; pepsinogen
	C)	parietal; HCl
	D)	mucous neck; mucus
A

C
Feedback:
Chief cells produce pepsinogen; mucous neck cells produce mucus; but neither cell is stimulated by histamine. Parietal cells produce intrinsic factor and HCl, but histamine binds to histamine receptors (H2receptors) on parietal cells to stimulate the release of HCl

56
Q
In the regulation of stomach secretions, distension of the stomach activates local reflexes and a parasympathetic reflex. This is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ phase.
	A)	cephalic
	B)	gastric
	C)	intestinal
	D)	enterogastric
A

B
Feedback:
There are three phases in the regulation of stomach secretions. The cephalic phase is stimulated by taste and smell of food and tactile sensation in the mouth. The intestinal phase is controlled by the duodenum in response to the chyme from the stomach. Distention of the stomach activates local reflexes and a parasympathetic reflex. This is called the gastric phase

57
Q

Cells in duodenum monitor chyme coming from the stomach that has a pH of 1. You would expect the duodenal cells to
A) release gastric inhibitory polypeptide and cholecystokinin, which inhibits gastric secretions.
B) initiate the enterogastric reflex, which increases gastric secretions.
C) release secretin, which inhibits gastric secretions.
D) release enterogastrone, which inhibits gastric secretions

A

C
Feedback:
In the intestinal phase of gastric regulation, the entrance of chyme coming from the stomach is regulated by the duodenum. Decrease in fatty acids initiates the release of two hormones, gastric inhibitory polypeptide and cholecystokinin, which decrease gastric secretions. Hypertonic solutions may cause the release of the hormone enterogastrone, which may inhibit gastric secretions. The acid pH would initiate the enterogastric reflex, but this reduces gastric secretions. Chyme with a pH of less than 2 will cause the endocrine cells of the duodenum to release the hormone secretin, which inhibits gastric secretions.

58
Q

Which part(s) of the pharynx normally conduct food?
A) oropharynx only
B) oropharynx, laryngopharynx and nasopharynx
C) nasopharynx only
D) oropharynx and laryngopharynx

A

D
Feedback:
The nasopharynx is lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium and is part of the respiratory tract. The oropharynx and larynopharynx are parts of both the respiratory and digestive tracts. Because these two regions of the pharynx come in contact with food, their epithelium is the protective, moist, stratified squamous epithelium

59
Q
A major secretion of the esophagus is
	A)	bile.
	B)	amylase.
	C)	mucus.
	D)	hydrochloric acid.
A

C
Feedback: The esophagus does not secrete bile (liver), amylase (salivary glands and pancreas), or hydrochloric acid (stomach). The tunica submucosa in the esophagus contains numerous mucous glands that secrete a thick, lubricating mucus

60
Q

Which one of the following does not occur during swallowing?
A) The larynx raises.
B) The epiglottis moves anteriorly to close the glottis.
C) The uvula and soft palate move inferiorly to block the oropharynx.
D) The vestibular folds move medially.

A

C
Feedback: During swallowing the passages into the airways are blocked so food is moved down into the esophagus. The larynx raises, the vestibular folds move medially, and the epiglottis moves anteriorly to block the glottis. The nasopharynx is blocked as the soft palate (particularly the uvula) raises or moves superiorly; this allows the food to move down the oropharynx into the esophagus.

61
Q
The pharyngeal phase of swallowing is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ , which is controlled by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle.
	A)	involuntary; smooth
	B)	voluntary; smooth
	C)	involuntary; skeletal
	D)	voluntary; skeletal
A

C
Feedback:
The pharyngeal phase of swallowing is initiated by stimulation of the swallowing center in the medulla oblongata. The swallowing center stimulates pharyngeal constrictor muscles to contract in succession. This is an involuntary process but the pharyngeal constrictor muscles are skeletal.

62
Q
The esophageal phase of swallowing is caused by the
	A)	peristaltic reflex.
	B)	enteric reflex.
	C)	swallowing center.
	D)	coughing reflex.
A

B
Feedback:
Food in the oropharynx stimulates the swallowing center to initiate the pharyngeal phase of swallowing. Foreign material in the larynx initiates the coughing reflex. Food in the esophagus stimulates the medulla oblongata to initiate peristaltic waves in the esophagus. This is called the esophageal phase, and the nervous system regulation of this phase is called the enteric reflex.

63
Q
The region of the stomach around the opening from the esophagus is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ region.
	A)	pyloric
	B)	body
	C)	cardiac
	D)	fundus
A

C
Feedback:
The stomach consists of four regions: the cardiac, fundus, body and pyloric. The pyloric region is where the stomach joins the duodenum. The body is the largest part of the stomach, and the fundus is located lateral to the cardiac region. The cardiac region is located where the esophagus joins the stomach, and the opening is called the gastroesophageal or cardiac opening.

64
Q
The stomach is unique to the GI tract because it contains
	A)	circular smooth muscle.
	B)	longitudinal smooth muscle.
	C)	skeletal muscle.
	D)	oblique smooth muscle
A

D
Feedback:
The GI tract (stomach, small intestine and large intestine) all contain circular and longitudinal smooth muscles. The stomach contains a third inner layer of oblique smooth muscle.

65
Q
The tunica submucosa and mucosa of the stomach are thrown into large folds called
	A)	epiploic appendages.
	B)	rugae.
	C)	plicae cirulares.
	D)	villi.
A

B
Feedback:
Epiploic appendages attach to the outer surface of the colon. Plicae circulares are large folds in the mucosa and submucosa of the small intestine, while villi are fingerlike projections of the mucosa in the small intestine. Rugae are folds in the tunica submucosa and mucosa of the stomach to allow the stomach to expand

66
Q
Which one of the following cells in the gastric glands produce pepsinogen?
	A)	endocrine cells
	B)	mucous neck cells
	C)	chief or zymogenic cells
	D)	parietal or oxyntic cells
A

C
Feedback:
The gastric glands of the stomach contain four types of cells. Endocrine cells produce hormones such as gastin and histamine; mucous neck cells produce mucus; and parietal cells produce hydrochloric acid and the intrinsic factor. Chief or zymogenic cells produce the major enzyme of the stomach, pepsinogen.

67
Q
The major food digested by gastric secretions is
	A)	fat.
	B)	starch.
	C)	protein.
	D)	nucleic acids.
A

C
Feedback: Nucleic acids are digested by enzymes produced by the pancreas and small intestine. Starch is digested in the stomach but from salivary amylase that is produced by the salivary glands. Fat may be digested by enzymes produced by salivary glands, and in infants the chief cells in the stomach produce lipase. In the adult, however, the only enzyme produced by the chief cells is pepsinogen that is activated by acidic conditions to form pepsin. Pepsin digests protein to peptides.

68
Q
The hydrogen ions that form hydrochloric acid of the stomach come from
	A)	pyruvic acid.
	B)	lactic acid.
	C)	carbonic acid.
	D)	citric acid.
A

C
Feedback:
In the parietal cells of gastric glands, carbon dioxide combines with oxygen to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions. The bicarbonate ions diffuse into the plasma and are exchanged with chloride ions. The chloride ions and hydrogen ions diffuse into the gastric pits and form hydrochloric acid.

69
Q
The low pH of the stomach activates enzymes that digest \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ while inactivating enzymes that digest \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
	A)	lipids; proteins
	B)	proteins; starch
	C)	starch; proteins
	D)	nucleic acids; starch
A

B
Feedback: Hydrochloric acid causes the pH of the stomach to be between 1 and 3. This low pH kills bacteria and also effects enzyme activity. Nucleic acids are digested in the small intestine. There is some digestion of lipids from saliva (lingual lipase). The acid pH activates pepsinogen to pepsin, which digests proteins and inactivates salivary amylase, which digests starch.

70
Q
The parietal cells in the gastric glands of the pyloric region produce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that bonds with Vitamin \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to make it more readily absorbed in the ileum.
	A)	hydrochloric acid; B12
	B)	mucus; D
	C)	pepsinogen; D
	D)	intrinsic factor; B12
A

D
Feedback:
The chief cells of the stomach produce pepsinogen which when activated breaks down proteins to form peptides. Parietal cells produce hydrochloric acid, which kills bacteria, activates pepsinogen to pepsin, and inactivates salivary amylase. Vitamin D is produced in the integument and is activated by the parathyroid hormone in the kidneys. Vitamin D has nothing to do with the stomach. Mucous neck cells and surface mucous cells produce mucus, which protects the stomach epithelium from acid and pepsin. Parietal cells also produce the intrinsic factor which bonds to Vitamin B12 to make it more readily absorbed in the ileum.

71
Q

The stomach produces acids, which denature protein, and pepsin that digests protein. The cell membranes of the epithelial cells lining the stomach contain protein. The protein in the epithelial cells are not denatured or digested because
A) the membranes contain a different type of protein that resists denaturation and digestion.
B) mucus coats the epithelium.
C) cell membranes are destroyed but mitotic activity replaces cells with new ones every few hours.
D) hormones produced by the endocrine cells protect the cell membranes and neutralize

A

B
Feedback: The environment of the stomach with a pH between 1 and 3 and with pepsin digesting proteins is a very hostile environment for the simple columnar cells that line the stomach. Endocrine cells produce hormones, but these play no direct role in changing the pH of the stomach. The proteins in the cell membranes can be denatured and digested by pepsin, and the life span of a gastric cell is only about 3 days. Mucus from surface mucous cells and mucous neck cells is a viscous and alkaline secretion and forms a protective layer over the epithelial cells 1-1.5 mm thick.

72
Q
The painful or burning sensation in the chest usually associated with acid reflux in the esophagus is called
	A)	a peptic ulcer.
	B)	heart burn.
	C)	angina.
	D)	a duodenal ulcer.
A

B
Feedback: Ulcers occur when the epithelium of the GI tract is eroded away. Peptic ulcers caused by stomach acids and pepsin, which erode through the protective mucous lining. A duodenal ulcer refers to the specific location of the ulcer. Angina is pain often mistaken for indigestion that results from a reduced blood supply to cardiac muscle. The cardiac sphincter is not a particularly strong sphincter and sometimes the acid chyme moves from the stomach to the esophagus. This is called acid reflux and results in a burning sensation in the chest called heartburn.

73
Q

One of your family members has developed peptic ulcers and is consulting you for advice. You can tell your family member that there may be a chance of permanently curing this ulcer by
A) giving up smoking and alcohol.
B) taking meditation classes to reduce stress.
C) taking antibiotics that destroy Helicobacter pylori.
D) taking Tagment or Zantac.

A

C
Feedback:
In the past, the major causes of peptic ulcers were thought to be stress and that smoking and alcohol would cause excess acid secretion resulting in ulcers. For temporary relief, both Tagamet and Zantac are histamine blockers that inhibit gastric acid secretion. Most ulcers (possibly as high as 80%) are caused by an infection of a bacterium, Helicobacter pylori. A medical office can test for H. pylori, and antibiotic treatment has been very successful in permanently eradicating people’s ulcers.

74
Q

Contractions of the smooth muscles in the tunica muscularis in the GI tract causes ___________ and is stimulated by ____________ plexus.
A) local secretions, Meissner’s or submucosal
B) peristalsis, Auerbach’s or myenteric
C) peristalsis, Meissner’s or submucosal
D) local secretions, Auerbach’s or myenteric

A

B
In the GI tract the tunica submucosa contains Meissner’s or submucosal plexus that contains autonomic fibers. Stimulation of this plexus may cause contraction of the muscularis mucosa, which stimulates local secretions. The tunica muscularis contains Auerbach’s or myenteric plexus, which also contains autonomic fibers. Stimulation of the myenteric plexus may cause contraction of the smooth muscles of the tunica muscularis, which results in peristalsis

75
Q
Stimulation of the parasympathetic neurons in the GI tract from Auerbach's or myenteric plexus will cause
	A)	inhibition of local secretions.
	B)	inhibition of peristalsis.
	C)	stimulation of local secretions.
	D)	stimulation of peristalsis
A

D
Feedback: The enteric plexi consist of sensory neurons, sympathetic and parasympathetic motor neurons and interneurons. Meissner’s or submucosal plexus in the tunica submucosa controls the muscularis mucosae, which controls local secretions. Auerbach’s or myenteric plexus in the tunica muscularis controls peristalsis. Stimulation of the parasympathetic motor neurons in Auerbach’s plexus will stimulate peristalsis.

76
Q
Branches of which autonomic nerve carry the parasympathetic motor neurons to the enteric plexi?
	A)	oculomotor
	B)	facial
	C)	glossopharyngeal
	D)	vagus
A

D
Feedback: Cranial nerves III (oculomotor), VII (facial), and IX (glossopharyngeal) carry parasympathetic motor neurons to various regions of the head. Cranial nerve X (vagus) carries parasympathetic motor neurons to most of the target areas of the parasympathetic nervous system including the enteric plexi.

77
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the enteric nervous system?
A) It works through local control.
B) It consists of enteric sensory and motor neurons.
C) Enetric interneurons connect sensory and motor neurons together.
D) The eneteric neurons are incapable of controlling digestive tract

A

D

Feedback: The enteric neurons can work independently, but normally work together with the CNS.

78
Q
Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensation from the digestive tract to the CNS?
	A)	gastric
	B)	vagus
	C)	spinal accessory
	D)	None of the above.
A

B

Feedback: The vagus nerve carries sensory information from the gastrointestinal tract to the CNS.

79
Q
Organs that lie outside the abdominal cavity such as the duodenum, pancreas, urinary bladder and rectum are
	A)	covered with parietal peritoneum.
	B)	covered with visceral peritoneum.
	C)	retroperitoneal.
	D)	covered with serous membranes
A

C
Feedback:
In the abdominal cavity organs are covered by a visceral peritoneum, and the internal wall of the cavity is lined by a parietal peritoneum. The visceral and parietal peritoneums are both serous membranes. Organs located outside of the abdominal cavity are outside of the peritoneums and are referred to as retroperitoneal.

80
Q
Which one of the connective tissue sheets listed below consists of two layers of serous membranes with a thin layer of connective tissue between them and attaches to the small intestine?
	A)	lesser omentum
	B)	mesentery proper
	C)	greater omentum
	D)	falciform ligament
A

B
Feedback:
In the abdominal cavity connective sheets that consist of two layers of serous membranes with a thin layer of connective tissue between them are called mesenteries. The mesentery that connects to the lesser curvature of the stomach is called the lesser omentum. The greater curvature of the stomach is connected to a mesentery called the greater omentum, and the falciform ligament is a mesentery that attaches to the liver. The mesentery that connects to the small intestine is called mesentery proper.

81
Q
If you place a pin through the greater omentum, through how many layers of simple squamous epithelium would the pin pass?
	A)	0
	B)	1
	C)	2
	D)	3
A

C
Feedback: The greater omentum is a mesentery that attaches to the greater curvature of the stomach. All of the mesenteries of the abdominal cavity are composed of two layers of serous membranes with a thin layer of loose connective tissue between them. Each of the serous membranes is lined composed of a simple squamous epithelium, so the pin would pass through two layers of simple squamous epithelium.

82
Q
Accumulation of excess fluid in the peritoneal cavity is called
	A)	peritonitis.
	B)	a hiatal hernia.
	C)	an inguinal hernia.
	D)	ascites.
A

D
Feedback: Inflammation of the peritoneal membranes is called peritonitis. A rupture in the abdominal wall in the inguinal region is called an inguinal hernia, while a hiatal hernia is a widening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes. Accumulation of excess serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is called ascites and may accompany peritonitis, starvation, alcoholism or liver cancer

83
Q
Which of the following structures forms a cavity or pocket between the layers of mesenteries?
	A)	visceral pleura
	B)	parietal pleura
	C)	omental bursa
	D)	retroperitoneum
A

C

The omental bursa forms a pocket between the layers of mesenteries.

84
Q
Which of the following ligaments attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall?
	A)	coronary ligament
	B)	falciform ligament
	C)	quadrate ligament
	D)	caudate ligament
A

B

Feedback: The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall.

85
Q
Which of the following structures would be considered retropertitoneal?
	A)	pancreas
	B)	stomach
	C)	jejunum
	D)	spleen
A

A

86
Q
A person who is "tongue-tied" can often be treated by surgically cutting the
	A)	uvula.
	B)	buccinator muscle.
	C)	frenulum.
	D)	labium.
A

C
Feedback:
The uvula is a projection from the posterior edge of the soft palate that is sometimes removed to treat people who snore. The bucinnator muscle flattens the cheek against the teeth, and the labium is another term for your upper or lower lip. There are three different frenulums: one attaches to the alveolar process of the maxilla, one attaches to the alveolar process of the mandible, and one attaches to the tongue. This last frenulum is often called the lingual frenulum and may be cut to allow the tongue more freedom of movement that is hampered in people who are “tongue-tied.”

87
Q
The oral cavity and oropharynx are lined by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ epithelium.
	A)	simple squamous
	B)	simple columnar
	C)	stratified squamous
	D)	stratified cuboidal
A

C
Feedback: The oral cavity and oropharynx are lined by an epithelium that primarily protects against abrasion. This epithelium could not be simple. Stratified cuboidal epithelium is a fairly uncommon epithelium, while stratified squamous epithelium lines all the openings and ducts that enter or leave the body including the oral cavity, oropharynx and esophagus.

88
Q
The lips are lined by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ epithelium.
	A)	moist stratified squamous
	B)	dry stratified squamous
	C)	simple columnar
	D)	pseudostratified columnar
A

B
Feedback: The lips are lined by an epithelium that protects against abrasion so that rules out simple columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelia. The skin is lined by a highly keratinized or dry stratified squamous epithelium, while the oral cavity in lined by a moist nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium. The lips are lined by a dry stratified squamous epithelium, but it is thinner and not as keratinized as the skin. Lips may dry out and crack especially in dry climates and many people often use a lubricant to prevent the lips from drying out and cracking.

89
Q
The projection from the posterior edge of the soft palate elevates and helps close off the nasopharynx when swallowing. The projection is called the
	A)	buccal fat pad.
	B)	epiglottis.
	C)	uvula.
	D)	palatine tonsil.
A

C
Feedback:
The buccal fat pad is found in the cheeks and helps round out the profile of the face. The epiglottis is one of the nine cartilages of the larynx and closes off the glottis when swallowing. The palatine tonsils are lymphoid masses located in the lateral wall of the fauces and are important in protection against pathogens entering the pharynx. The uvula is the projection from the posterior edge of the soft palate and helps close off the nasopharynx. Surgical removal of the uvula is sometimes done as a treatment for snoring.

90
Q
Which one of the following is not located in the oral cavity or oropharynx?
	A)	frenulums
	B)	lingual tonsils
	C)	palatine tonsils
	D)	pharyngeal tonsils
A

D
Feedback:
The frenulums attach to the lips and tongue; the lingual tonsils are found on the posterior surface of the tongue; and the palatine tonsils are located in the lateral wall of the fauces. The pharyngeal tonsils or adenoids are located on the posterior surface of the nasopharynx.

91
Q
Which one of the following is most easily absorbed in the oral cavity?
	A)	glucose
	B)	water
	C)	fatty acids
	D)	peptides
A

C
Feedback: Not much absorption occurs in the oral cavity due to its stratified squamous epithelium. Peptides need to be broken down to amino acids before being absorbed. Some glucose, water and fatty acids may be absorbed in the oral cavity but lipid-soluble materials like fatty acids are most readily absorbed. Nitroglycerin is a lipid-soluble drug which when placed under the tongue is absorbed in less than one minute.