Pure Monopoly Flashcards
Why is it called pure monopoly?
Because it’s a man-made monopoly
What are the assumptions of a monopoly?
- Single seller with large number of buyers
- Perfect information for buyers in market
- No close substitutes for product
1, 2, and 3: price setter (can decide how much to produce to control the price), downward sloping demand with no supply curve - Barriers to enter and exit (extremely high set up costs)
4: in long run, firm can continue to sustain positive or zero profit made in the short run (firm can never make negative profit in the short run)
Why does monopoly have no supply curve?
Because the monopolist determines how much to produce from profit maximisation condition then decides the price later on by substituting x (output level) into demand equation (read from x0 to P0),
unlike firms who have the supply curve to determine output based on price level (read from P0 to x0)
What’s the supply rule of a profit-maximising monopolist?
Output at MC = MR
Relation of price and MR depends on demand curve
Why is a monopolist’s marginal revenue (MR) twice as steep than the demand curve?
Because the slope of the MR is twice as steep as demand curve when comparing MR and inverse demand equation
How do we show that a monopolist is initially making 0 profit, negative profit and positive profit?
- 0 profit: P0 = AC(x0) -> tangency between AC and Demand
- Negative Profit: P0 < AC(x0) -> minimum AC on MC above P0
- Positive Profit: P0 > AC(x0) -> minimum AC on MC below intersection of MC & Demand and above MC = MR
//Marginal revenue when price falls, varying on price elasticity of demand
- When price falls and price is elastic: the total revenue goes up, hence marginal revenue > 0
(monopolists maximise profit where MC = MR, and MC > 0, implying that MR > 0) - When price falls and price is unit elastic: total revenue is constant, hence marginal revenue = 0
- When price falls and price is inelastic: total revenue falls, hence marginal revenue < 0
//What happens to markup of price when the demand is more price elastic?
The price markup becomes smaller
//How much is a perfect competition firm’s markup?
P = 1 MC
Can’t be 0 bc if markup is 0, P = (0)(MC) = 0, but PC firms always set the price to MR = MC where price is fixed and > 0
Price discrimination
Only applicable to monopolists bc price setter, sole firm in market and no close substitutes for its product -> monopolist has absolute power over price
How do monopolists successfully price discriminate?
No arbitrage opportunities (no reselling of products to others)
What are the degrees of price discrimination?
- First degree price discrimination (perfect price discrimination) -> only degree that has allocative efficiency due to P = MC (like PC market)
- Second degree price discrimination (quantity discount)
- Third degree price discrimination
First degree price discrimination example
Doctor’s consultation, registering with IC which has address. Type of property determines price charged (e.g. HDB: normal rate but private property: higher rate) despite going through the same treatment
No arbitrage opportunity bc patients wouldn’t want to disclose personal health information to other patients
Second degree price discrimination example
- Bakery: 1 donut is $1, but 3 donuts is $2.80, each donut now costs < $1
- Lazada: 1 shirt is full price, but 2 or more shirts gives you 20% discount -> people buy more apparels which they don’t need
Focus: consumer behaviour where people buy more when price is low
Third degree price discrimination example
- Airlines: business class (price inelastic, there for work and may buy ticket for better features or to show social status) and economy class (price elastic, usually buy for vacation)
- Movie tickets: weekdays (price elastic, alternatives of other entertainment) and weekends (fri-sun) (price inealstic as viewers are usually working class who only have time on weekends)
- Taxi: peak hours (price inelastic, just want to reach work/school and not considering price) and non-peak hours (price elatic, alternative of public transport)