Purchase & Sale L1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four methods of sale?

A

Private Treaty, Formal Tender, Informal Tender, Auction

Each method has unique characteristics regarding negotiation and binding offers.

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2
Q

What is the Private Treaty method of sale?

A

Property is marketed at a set price, allowing negotiation between buyer and seller.

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3
Q

What is the Formal Tender method of sale?

A

Buyers submit binding offers by a set deadline, with the highest bids securing the property.

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4
Q

What is the Informal Tender method of sale?

A

Similar to formal tender but non-binding, allowing negotiations after submission.

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5
Q

What is the Auction method of sale?

A

Buyers bid in a competitive environment, and the highest bid immediately exchanges contracts.

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6
Q

What is an advantage of sale by Private Treaty?

A

Allows flexibility & negotiation.

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7
Q

What is a disadvantage of sale by Private Treaty?

A

Can be a slow process.

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8
Q

What is an advantage of sale by Formal Tender?

A

Ensures a legally binding offer.

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9
Q

What is a disadvantage of sale by Formal Tender?

A

Higher costs for bidders.

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10
Q

What is an advantage of sale by Informal Tender?

A

Generates interest without commitment.

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11
Q

What is a disadvantage of sale by Informal Tender?

A

No legal certainty until contracts exchanged.

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12
Q

What is an advantage of sale by Auction?

A

Certainty – contract exchanged on the day.

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13
Q

What is a disadvantage of sale by Auction?

A

May not achieve highest price.

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14
Q

What are the legal processes to complete a purchase/sale?

A

Pre-Contract, Exchange of Contracts, Completion, Post-Completion.

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15
Q

What happens during the Exchange of Contracts?

A

Binding agreement, deposit paid.

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16
Q

What occurs during Completion?

A

Transfer of ownership, payment settled, keys handed over.

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17
Q

What is the Estate Agents Act 1979?

A

Regulates conduct in property transactions.

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18
Q

What does the Misrepresentation Act 1967 ensure?

A

Truth in marketing.

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19
Q

What are the six key principles of the Estate Agents Act 1979?

A
  • Act honestly in clients’ best interests
  • Provide clear terms of business
  • Disclose conflicts of interest
  • Avoid misleading descriptions
  • Handle client money properly
  • Follow complaints procedures
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20
Q

How does Section 18 relate to agency practice?

A

Limits tenant liability for dilapidations, affecting investment decisions and lease negotiations.

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21
Q

What are the four agency bases?

A
  • Sole Agency
  • Joint Sole Agency
  • Multiple Agency
  • Sole Selling Rights
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22
Q

What is a Sole Agency?

A

One agent, no fee if the owner finds a buyer.

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23
Q

What is a Joint Sole Agency?

A

Two agents share commission.

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24
Q

What is a Multiple Agency?

A

Multiple agents, only the successful agent gets paid.

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25
Q

What are Sole Selling Rights?

A

The agent gets paid regardless of who finds the buyer.

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26
Q

What defines interests in land?

A

Law of Property Act 1925.

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27
Q

What is a ready, willing and able purchaser?

A

Has funds available, is prepared to proceed on the seller’s terms, is legally able to complete the transaction.

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28
Q

What does Section 21 of the Housing Act 1988 allow?

A

Landlords to evict tenants without fault at the end of an Assured Shorthold Tenancy (AST).

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29
Q

What three elements are needed to make a contract?

A
  • Offer
  • Acceptance
  • Consideration
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30
Q

Can a verbal contract be legally binding?

A

Yes, but contracts for land must be in writing under the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1989.

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31
Q

What is capacity in relation to contract law?

A

A party’s legal ability to enter a contract.

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32
Q

Does the sale of land have to be in writing?

A

Yes, under the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1989.

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33
Q

What do the Consumer Protection Regulations state?

A

Agents must not mislead buyers or tenants.

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34
Q

What is material information?

A

Key facts affecting a purchasing decision.

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35
Q

What are considered unfair practices under Consumer Protection legislation?

A

Misleading buyers or tenants, failing to disclose material information.

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36
Q

How does the Misrepresentation Act 1967 relate to agency practice?

A

Prevents false statements in property sales/lettings.

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37
Q

What does the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977 state?

A

Prevents unreasonable exclusions of liability in contracts.

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38
Q

What are the key principles of the RICS Professional Standard Property Agency and Management Principles?

A
  • Transparency in transactions
  • Fair treatment of clients and consumers
  • Compliance with professional and legal obligations
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39
Q

What are three key issues raised in the RICS Real Estate Agency and Brokerage Standards?

A
  • Client confidentiality & conflict management
  • Duty to disclose material information
  • Fair agency terms & clear fee structures
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40
Q

What factor drives property markets?

A
  • Interest rates
  • Supply & demand
  • Economic growth
  • Government policies
41
Q

What government incentives impact demand in relation to property transactions?

A
  • First Homes Scheme
  • Stamp Duty Land Tax (SDLT) reliefs
  • Capital Allowances
  • Help to Buy
42
Q

What are current SDLT levels for commercial property?

A
  • 0% on purchases up to £150,000
  • 2% on the portion from £150,001 to £250,000
  • 5% on the portion above £250,000
43
Q

What is SDLT?

A

Stamp Duty Land Tax (SDLT) is a tax paid on property transactions in England and Northern Ireland.

44
Q

What are the different types of interest in land?

A
  • Legal interests
  • Equitable interests
45
Q

What is the difference between freehold and leasehold?

A

Freehold: indefinite ownership; Leasehold: fixed period under a lease agreement.

46
Q

What are profits a prendre?

A

A right to take something from another person’s land.

47
Q

What is a rent charge?

A

A regular payment made by a freehold property owner to a third party.

48
Q

What legislation relates to rent charges?

A

The Rentcharges Act 1977.

49
Q

What happens if a rent charge is not paid in full?

A

Claim arrears through legal action.

50
Q

What is an example of an equitable interest in land?

A

Beneficial interest under a trust.

51
Q

What is an example of a legal interest in land?

A

Registered charge (mortgage).

52
Q

Why use online marketing for property transactions?

A
  • Wider exposure
  • Cost-effectiveness
  • Speed
  • Data and analytics
53
Q

What is included in a standard information pack for a property transaction?

A
  • Title documents
  • Planning documents
  • Surveys & reports
  • Lease details
  • Tenancy schedule
  • Service charge & ground rent details
  • Legal pack
54
Q

What are CPSEs?

A

Commercial Property Standard Enquiries used in property transactions.

55
Q

What is a Memorandum of Sale?

A

A non-legally binding document prepared after an offer is accepted.

56
Q

What governs the auction process?

A

Law of Property Act 1925, Misrepresentation Act 1967, Consumer Protection from Unfair Trading Regulations 2008, Estate Agents Act 1979.

57
Q

What is the auction process?

A
  • Pre-auction: Seller instructs auctioneer, legal pack prepared
  • Auction Day: Bidders register, bidding process
  • Post-auction: Buyer signs contract, deposit paid
58
Q

When is an auction sale legally binding?

A

When the auctioneer’s hammer falls.

59
Q

What due diligence should be carried out pre-auction?

A
  • Legal pack review
  • CPSE enquiries
  • Site inspection
  • Planning and environmental checks
  • Checking tenancy agreements
60
Q

What are the advantages for sellers at auction?

A
  • Speed of sale
  • Certainty
  • Competitive bidding may drive price up
61
Q

What are the disadvantages for sellers at auction?

A
  • If reserve price isn’t met, no sale
  • Costs of marketing and auction fees
62
Q

What are the advantages for buyers at auction?

A
  • Transparent process
  • Potential to acquire undervalued assets
63
Q

What are the disadvantages for buyers at auction?

A
  • Limited time for due diligence
  • Immediate deposit payment required
  • Risk of overbidding
64
Q

What do the RICS Common Auction conditions cover?

A
  • Contract formation
  • Deposit payments
  • Completion timelines
  • Buyer/seller obligations
65
Q

What is a guide price in an auction?

A

The initial advertised price giving buyers an indication of the expected sale price.

66
Q

What is a reserve price in an auction?

A

The minimum price the seller is willing to accept.

67
Q

What is an addendum in the context of auctions?

A

A document updating information about a lot before an auction.

68
Q

What are typical fees for an auctioneer?

A
  • Seller’s fee: 1.5% - 2.5% + VAT
  • Buyer’s fee: Fixed or percentage-based
  • Entry fees: Some auction houses charge sellers
69
Q

Can you sell a property before or after auction?

A

Yes, sellers can accept pre-auction offers or negotiate after the auction.

70
Q

How does finance work for auctions?

A

Buyers must arrange finance before bidding, as completion is usually within 20-28 days.

71
Q

What are the possible fee structures for auction houses?

A

Fixed (£500 - £2,000) or percentage-based.

72
Q

Can a seller accept offers before an auction?

A

Yes, if they meet/exceed expectations.

73
Q

What happens if a property does not meet its reserve price after an auction?

A

The seller can negotiate with interested bidders.

74
Q

What must buyers do regarding finance before bidding at an auction?

A

Arrange finance before bidding, as completion is usually within 20-28 days.

75
Q

What types of properties may not be mortgageable?

A

Derelict or short leases.

76
Q

What are bridging loans used for in the context of auctions?

A

Quick financing if a mortgage isn’t feasible within the timeframe.

77
Q

What deposit is typically payable upon winning a bid at auction?

A

A 10% deposit of the purchase price.

78
Q

What happens if a buyer fails to complete after winning a bid?

A

It may result in forfeiture.

79
Q

What are the methods to bid at an auction?

A
  • In person
  • Telephone bid
  • Online bidding
  • Proxy bid
80
Q

What is a proxy bid?

A

A maximum bid submitted in advance, with the auctioneer bidding incrementally on behalf of the buyer.

81
Q

When is insurance required for an auction purchase?

A

Immediately after exchange (when the hammer falls).

82
Q

Who is responsible for insurance in an auction sale?

A

The buyer is responsible immediately.

83
Q

Is VAT payable on auction properties?

A

Yes, if the seller has opted to tax the property.

84
Q

What is the standard VAT rate on auction properties?

A

20% on the sale price.

85
Q

What key principles are outlined in the RICS Professional Standard Auctioneers Selling Real Estate (6th Edition)?

A
  • Transparency
  • Professional conduct
  • Due diligence
  • Bidding integrity
86
Q

What are the EPC requirements at auction?

A

EPC must be available for buyers to view before auction.

87
Q

What is the Minimum Energy Efficiency Standard (MEES) in relation to auctions?

A

Landlords cannot let properties below an E rating since April 2023.

88
Q

What should be checked regarding the auction venue?

A
  • Venue compliance with health & safety regulations
  • Capacity for bidders
  • AV equipment for online/remote bidding
  • Accessibility for bidders with disabilities
89
Q

What does the Sale of Land by Auction Act 1867 require?

A
  • Contracts must be in writing
  • Auctioneer must disclose if bidding on behalf of the seller
  • Disclosure required if a property is withdrawn after bidding
90
Q

How are arrears handled in relation to auction properties?

A

The buyer must check the legal pack for arrears on service charges, rent, or business rates.

91
Q

What should be included in auction particulars?

A
  • Property description
  • Tenure and lease details
  • Guide price and VAT liability
  • EPC rating
  • Key conditions of sale
  • Viewing arrangements
92
Q

What is the power to sell in the context of property auctions?

A

A legal right to dispose of a property.

93
Q

What does the 1927 Auctions (Bidding Agreements) Act prohibit?

A

Collusive bidding agreements to suppress auction prices.

94
Q

What does the 1969 Auctions (Bidding Agreements) Act require?

A

Declarations of bidding agreements, or the sale can be voided.

95
Q

What are Use Classes in planning law?

A

Categories defining property use set out in The Town and Country Planning (Use Classes) Order 1987.

96
Q

What is an example of a residential use class?

A

C3 – Residential housing.

97
Q

What change was made to Use Classes on 1st September 2020?

A

Class E was introduced, merging A1, A2, A3, B1.

98
Q

Why are Price on Application (POA) listings considered unlawful?

A

They breach Consumer Protection from Unfair Trading Regulations 2008 as they lack transparency.

99
Q

What changes did the Charities Act 2022 introduce regarding charity land disposal?

A
  • New flexibility for disposal of charity land
  • Charities can seek advice from RICS members
  • Reduces red tape on disposals