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Driver Promotional Test > Pumping and Aerial Book > Flashcards

Pumping and Aerial Book Flashcards

1
Q

NFPA 1901

A

Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatuses

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2
Q

min pump capacity

A

750 gpm

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3
Q

min tank size

A

300 gallons

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4
Q

quint min pump size

A

1000 gpm

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5
Q

quint tank size

A

300 gallons

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6
Q

mobile water supply apparatus min capacity

A

1000 gallons

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7
Q

inverters

A

converts DC (12-24V) to AC (110 or 220V)

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8
Q

vehicle mounted generators

A

110-220V, up to 12,000 W

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9
Q

class A fire

A

wood, paper

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10
Q

class B fire

A

liquids (petrol)

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11
Q

class C fire

A

Energized electric

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12
Q

class D fire

A

metals

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13
Q

class K/F fire

A

cooking oils

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14
Q

foam tanks capacity

A

20-100 gallons

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15
Q

Initial fire attack apparatus aka

A

midi or mini pumpers

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16
Q

NFPA 1002

A

Standard for Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications

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17
Q

NFPA 1071

A

Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician Qualifications

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18
Q

CDL is for

A

over 26k pounds

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19
Q

NFPA 1911

A

Maintenance, Inspection, Testing, Retirement of Apparatuses

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20
Q

tires replaced…

A

every 7 years

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21
Q

tire pressure dictated by

A

manufacturer’s recommendations

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22
Q

load sequencer

A

controls emergency lights

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23
Q

load monitor

A

watches the load, can shut down emergency electrical equipment to prevent overload

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24
Q

steering wheel play

A

no more 10 degrees in either direction

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25
Q

curb weight

A

weight of apparatus directly off assembly line

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26
Q

GVWR

A

max weight vehicle can operate in ideal conditions

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27
Q

air actuated brakes

A

compressed air holds off a spring brake (parking brake), applies air pressure to service brake

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28
Q

slack adjusters

A

connect activation pads and brake pads, compensate for wear in brake pads

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29
Q

diesel particulate filters

A

controls regeneration process

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30
Q

selective catalyst reductant uses

A

diesel exhaust fluid (DEF)

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31
Q

who determines what is needed to drive

A

state DOT

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32
Q

most driving regulations pertain to…

A

dry, clear roads in daylight

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33
Q

reckless disregard

A

doing something while consciously aware it may have a bad outcome

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34
Q

negligence

A

failing to perform to a reasonable standard

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35
Q

gross negligence

A

willful and wanton disregard

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36
Q

due regard

A

acting with safety in mind

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37
Q

brake fade

A

brakes lose stopping ability when overheated

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38
Q

tanks should be

A

completely full or empty for safety

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39
Q

excessive idling leads to

A

carbon buildup in components

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40
Q

failing to keep DEF topped up leads to

A

loss of torque

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41
Q

engine should be… before shut off

A

3-5 min of idling or piston ring wear

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42
Q

axle loading

A

balance within 7% front/back side/side

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43
Q

going downhill limit…

A

speed to below max RPM’s to prevent engine damage

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44
Q

snow/ice increases braking distance by

A

3-15x

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45
Q

sirens over how fast are ineffective

A

50mph

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46
Q

braking distance

A

brake applied to stop

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47
Q

total stopping distance

A

reaction time + braking distance

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48
Q

reaction distance

A

from perceiving need to stop to foot being applied to pedal

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49
Q

jake brake is what type of brake

A

engine compression brake

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50
Q

correcting acceleration skid

A

release throttle, straighten wheels

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51
Q

correcting locked wheel skid

A

ease off brakes, straight wheels

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52
Q

automatic traction control (ATC)

A

automatically reduces torque, applies brake automatically to wheels that skid

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53
Q

max safe speed of an apparatus

A

68mph

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54
Q

apparatus with a 500 gallon tank should pump at least

A

250gpm

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55
Q

tire pressure dictated by

A

tire manufacturer’s recommendations, not side wall PSI

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56
Q

pressure in air brakes should build within

A

60sec

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57
Q

inspect valves…

A

monthly

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58
Q

nfpa 1500

A

occupational health and safety

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59
Q

50% pump capacity test

A

conducted at 250psi for 10min

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60
Q

retarder

A

aux brake that retards the driveline

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61
Q

engine lugging

A

when throttle is applied for too high a gear for the engine demand, like going up a steep hill, leads to carbon buildup

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62
Q

serpentine course requires

A

3 cones

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63
Q

if building is under 5 stories

A

aerial on the outside

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64
Q

if building over 5 stories

A

aerial on inside

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65
Q

dual pumping

A

really strong hydrant, supply line is intake to intake

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66
Q

tandem pumping

A

for when single pump can’t supply enough pressure, supply line is discharge to intake

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67
Q

level I staging

A

late arriving unit stages a block away

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68
Q

level II staging

A

a designated staging area like a parking lot

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69
Q

anchoring

A

for wildland firefighting, apparatus placed somewhere protected

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70
Q

h2o weight

A

8.3lb/gallon

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71
Q

h2o steam expansion

A

1700x

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72
Q

head

A

height of water supply above discharge orifice

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73
Q

residual pressure

A

pressure left over not used to overcome friction or gravity

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74
Q

static pressure

A

stored potential energy available

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75
Q

converting head to pressure

A

feet of head/2.304

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76
Q

discharge rate of a smoothbore

A

gpm=29.7d^2sqrt(NP)

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77
Q

constant flow fog nozzle

A

maintain constant gpm with adjustable stream patterns at a constant discharge pressure

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78
Q

selectable gallonage nozzle

A

the nozzleman can adjust gallonage, the pump man has to adjust pdp in concert with nozzleman

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79
Q

automatic fog nozzle

A

can change patterns while maintaining constant np

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80
Q

nozzle reaction for solid stream

A

NR=1.57d^2NP

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81
Q

nozzle reaction for fog stream

A

NR=0.0505Qsqrt(NP)

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82
Q

appliance friction loss

A

10psi over 330gpm

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83
Q

elevation pressure loss

A

height/2.304

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84
Q

don’t pump standpipes over

A

200 psi

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85
Q

flow testing smooth bore

A

use pitot tube

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86
Q

condensed Q for 3”

A

FL=Q^2

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87
Q

condensed Q for 4”

A

FL=Q^2/5

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88
Q

condensed Q for 5”

A

FL=Q^2/15

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89
Q

FL method for 2 1/2” hose

A

for flow rates above 160gpm, determine flow rate, take first two numbers, subtract 10, that gives you FL per 100’ hose

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90
Q

priming pumps are

A

positive displacement pumps

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91
Q

most common type of priming pump

A

rotary vane pump

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92
Q

damage to pump in form of…

A

pump ring wear

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93
Q

most common pressure relief valve uses…

A

spring controlled pilot valve

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94
Q

pressure governor adjusts

A

engine throttle

95
Q

auxiliary cooling system

A

engine cooling water transferred to pump water

96
Q

once PTO is activated and pump is engaged speedometer should show…

A

0mph

97
Q

maintain at least what intake pressure

A

20psi

98
Q

dead end hydrants

A

supplied in only one direction, sediment

99
Q

red hydrant

A

<500gpm

100
Q

orange hydrants

A

500-1000 gpm

101
Q

green hydrants

A

1000-1500 gpm

102
Q

blue hydrants

A

> 1500 gpm

103
Q

3x additional water

A

<10% intake

104
Q

2x additional water

A

11-15% intake

105
Q

1x

A

16-25% intake

106
Q

not enough for another whatever

A

> 25% intake

107
Q

strainer on hard suction clearance

A

24” in all directions

108
Q

14.7 psi =

A

30” Hg

109
Q

drafting 10” rise

A

full capacity

110
Q

drafting 20” rise

A

max effective fire capacity, 60% rated capacity

111
Q

most common cause of inability to draft

A

air leak

112
Q

standpipe resistance

A

25psi on flows over 350

113
Q

lift

A

elevation difference between surface of static water source and center of pump intake

114
Q

theoretical lift

A

lift that would be possible if pumper could create a total vacuum

115
Q

max lift

A

max real world lift pumper is able to obtain (usually 25ft)

116
Q

max lift formula

A

1.13Xinches of Hg of vacuum at intake gauge

117
Q

dependable lift

A

usually atleast 14.7’

118
Q

pressure correction

A

lift (in ft) + total intake hose friction loss/2.3

119
Q

pumpers rated to pump at their max capacity at draft at…

A

150psi

120
Q

for industrial/business districts, mains should be at least

A

8”

121
Q

hydrant with largest capacity connected to…

A

primary feeder

122
Q

inline relay valves

A

allow late arriving pumpers to hook up without interrupting operations

123
Q

intake relief valves

A

set to 10psi above the discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay

124
Q

shutting down a relay

A

start at attack pumper

125
Q

open relay method

A

uses portable folding drop tanks

126
Q

jet assisted siphons

A

useful for transferring water from one tank to another

127
Q

tenders must be rated to fill at…

A

1000 gpm

128
Q

vacuum tenders

A

can fill from a static source at a rate of up to 2000gpm

129
Q

dump sites

A

intersections are good

130
Q

water shuttle flow rate

A

0.9Xtank size/trip time

131
Q

class B foam

A

sits on surface and suppresses vapors

132
Q

gas mixed with ethanol should be treated

A

as a polar solvent

133
Q

foam works by seperating

A

creates barrier btw fuel and fire

134
Q

foam works by cooling

A

lower temp of fuel

135
Q

foam works by smothering/suppressing

A

sits between fire and o2

136
Q

foam induction

A

use of an eductor, concentrate is drafted

137
Q

foam injection

A

foam concentrate is injected

138
Q

batch mixing

A

just for class A foams

139
Q

most common foam proportioner

A

around the pump proportioner

140
Q

drawback of around the pump proportioner

A

can not take advantage of incoming pressure

141
Q

protein foam

A

excellent heat stability and burnback resistance

142
Q

fluoroprotein foam

A

has surfactant added

143
Q

AR-AFFF foam

A

can be used on both hydrocarbons and polar fires

144
Q

foam percentage for hydrocarbons

A

1-3%

145
Q

foam percentage for polar solvents

A

3-6%

146
Q

most common foam

A

AFFF

147
Q

AFFF method of action

A

thin film spreads across fuel, foam has ability to heal

148
Q

compressed air foam system (CAFS)

A

compressed air generated into foam, increased range, sticks to surfaces, good for protecting exposures

149
Q

hydrostatic pump testing

A

500psi for 10 min

150
Q

performance test interval

A

yearly

151
Q

hose testing

A

marks around couplings can’t move more than 3/8”

152
Q

vacuum testing

A

22” Hg, at the end of 5 min no more than 10 psi lost

153
Q

priming test

A

achieve a prime in 30-45 seconds

154
Q

tank to pump test

A

500 gallon tank must flow 250gpm, tanks over 500 gallon must flow over 500 gpm

155
Q

acceleration test

A

0 to 35mph in 25 seconds

156
Q

when doing a service test, first test should be

A

a no load governed engine speed test

157
Q

interlock

A

prevents some component from functioning while another is functioning, common for aerial/stabilizer

158
Q

working length measured

A

from ground to top rung when fully extended

159
Q

load capacity of elevated platforms

A

750lbs when fully extended and no water flowing

160
Q

hydraulic power tools, hose length

A

max 100ft

161
Q

non destructive testing

A

every 5 years or after unusual stress/load

162
Q

parking an apparatus on grade

A

if only two rear jacks, must be parked uphill

163
Q

distance from 50k volt power line

A

10 feet

164
Q

distance from 50-350kv power line

A

20 feet

165
Q

distance from power lines over 350kv

A

50 feet

166
Q

max loading of an unsupported aerial

A

70-80 degrees

167
Q

railway considerations

A

avoid raising aerial over tracks, if you have to maintain 25 feet above tracks

168
Q

signs of building collapse

A

bulging walls, sagging roofs, cracks in exterior, falling bricks/mortar

169
Q

hot shift PTO

A

can engage PTO while transmission is in neutral

170
Q

operating aerial on uneven terrain

A

best to operate on uphill side

171
Q

75-80-80 guideline

A

for ladder pipe, 75% elevation, 80% extended length, 80psi

172
Q

ice buildup

A

limit is 1/4” ice

173
Q

removing ice

A

ice shrugging, slowly extending/retracting aerial to remove ice

174
Q

window rescue with straight stick

A

first rung placed even with sill

175
Q

window rescue with bucket

A

top rail even with sill

176
Q

roof rescue with straight stick

A

6” ladder extends above roof

177
Q

roof rescue with bucket

A

bottom of the platform is just over and above the roof

178
Q

blitz attack

A

master stream does transitional attack before ground crews are ready

179
Q

assisting victim on ladder

A

at least one, preferably two, FF’s assist victim

180
Q

inspect valves

A

daily

181
Q

doing a capacity test, pump at

A

150 psi

182
Q

distributors

A

smaller mains serving individual hydrants and blocks of consumers

183
Q

psi to inches of Hg

A

1 psi equal 2.04” Hg

184
Q

atmospheric pressure at sea level

A

14.7 psi or 29.9” Hg

185
Q

when pump is engaged speedometer should show

A

0 mph

186
Q

in a relay, the pump should maintain the ___ pressure as the next pumper in line

A

minimum intake

187
Q

if inlet pressure to the eductor is too high

A

foam may not be inducted

188
Q

most common foam application system in use

A

balance pressure system

189
Q

solid stream vs. straight stream

A

straight stream is a pattern on an adjustable fog nozzle

190
Q

solid stream on a 1 3/4” with a 15/16” orifice

A

180 gpm

191
Q

1” tip on a 2 1/2” hoseline

A

200 gpm

192
Q

1 1/8” tip on a 2 1/2” hoseline

A

250 gpm

193
Q

1 1/4” tip on a 2 1/2” hoseline

A

325 gpm

194
Q

1 1/4” tip on a master stream

A

400 gpm

195
Q

1 3/8” tip on a master stream

A

500 gpm

196
Q

1 1/2” tip on a master stream

A

600 gpm

197
Q

1 3/4” tip on a master stream

A

800 gpm

198
Q

2” tip on a master stream

A

1000 gpm

199
Q

fire pump standards come from

A

underwriter’s libraryy

200
Q

type I construction

A

fire resistive

201
Q

type II construction

A

non combustible

202
Q

type III construction

A

ordinary construction

203
Q

type IV construction

A

heavy timber

204
Q

type V construction

A

wood frame

205
Q

pyrolysis

A

solids undergo off gasing

206
Q

vaporization

A

liquids turning to vapor prior to combustion

207
Q

autoignition

A

ignition occurring without a flame or spark, always at higher temp than piloted ignition

208
Q

piloted ignition

A

ignition occurring with a heat source

209
Q

flash point

A

min temp at which liqiud gives of enough vapors to ignite but not sustain combustion

210
Q

fire point

A

temp where sustained combustion is possible

211
Q

entrainment

A

air being pulled into fire

212
Q

neutral plain

A

interface btw hot gas layer and cooler air layer

213
Q

rollover

A

when flames ripple across ceiling prior to flashover

214
Q

1A indicates…

A

A=5L water putting out a type A fire

215
Q

B indicates…

A

number of sqft of class B fire a ‘non expert’ can extinguish

216
Q

class K extinguisher works through

A

saponification

217
Q

class D extinguisher uses

A

dry powder

218
Q

residential floor and sill heights

A

1 story is 10 feet, sill at 3’

219
Q

commercial floor and sill heights

A

1 story is 12 feet, sill at 4’

220
Q

proper ladder climbing angle

A

75 degrees

221
Q

combination attack

A

hitting the ceiling to cool gas as well as the fuel source

222
Q

transitional attack

A

hitting the fire through an open window

223
Q

Hydrostatic pump testing

A

500 psi for 10min

224
Q

pump cert tests conducted on pumps with capacities of

A

750-3000 gpm

225
Q

acceptance testing happens at

A

purchaser’s jurisdiction

226
Q

pumper performance testing, water should be between

A

34 and 90 degrees

227
Q

FF deaths due to responding to calls

A

20-25%

228
Q

two emergency vehicles responding to same call

A

should be 300-500 ft apart

229
Q

in snowy conditions, increase braking distance by…

A

3-15x

230
Q

corrosion or mineral deposits in piping called

A

encrustation

231
Q

aux cooling system, heat goes from

A

engine coolant to pump discharge water

232
Q

discharge manifolds in relay operations

A

support more than one attack pumper

233
Q

charging apparatus battery

A

red to positive, black to frame

234
Q

nfpa 1582

A

medical evaluations

Driver Promotional Test (3 decks)

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