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Pumping And Aerial Apparatus Driver/Operator Handbook 3rd Edition > Pumping And Aerial Apparatus Driver/Operator Handbook 3rd Edition > Flashcards

Pumping And Aerial Apparatus Driver/Operator Handbook 3rd Edition Flashcards

1
Q

The main purpose of a fire department pumper is:

A

To provide water pressure for effective fire streams.

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2
Q

NFPA 1901 specifies a minimum of _____ gpm and a water tank of at least _____ gallons.

A

750 gpm; 300 gallons

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3
Q

Mobile water supply apparatus are equipped with a tank capacity of at least _____ gallons.

A

1000 gallons

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4
Q

Two main functions of a mobile water supply on the fireground:

A

1: dump water supply into foldable tank.
2: use as a nurse tender.

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5
Q

3 general categories of AARF apparatus:

A

Major firefighting vehicles; rapid intervention vehicles; combined agent vehicles.

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6
Q

Some fire boats have capacities as high as _____ gpm. Individual master stream devices on these vessels may discharge volumes of water sometimes in excess of _____ gpm.

A

50,000 gpm; 10,000 gpm

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7
Q

Aerial apparatus with pumping capabilities must always be positioned with consideration of the reach of _____.

A

The aerial device.

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8
Q

A quint is an apparatus equipped with:

A

Fire pump; water tank; hose; aerial device and ground ladders.

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9
Q

NFPA 1901: A quint must be equipped with a pump rated at a minimum _____ gpm and a tank of at least _____ gallons.

A

1,000 gpm; 300 gallons

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10
Q

Step up transformer that converts a vehicles 12-14 volt DC current into 110 or 220 volt AC current:

A

Inverter

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11
Q

_____ are the most common power source used for emergency services.

A

Generators

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12
Q

The most common power tools found on pumping apparatus include the following:

A

Extrication equipment (spreaders & shears); combination spread and shear tools; extension rams.

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13
Q

NFPA 1901:

A

Standard for automotive fire apparatus

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14
Q

Keeping equipment or apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness:

A

Maintenance

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15
Q

To restore or put together something that has come inoperable or out of place:

A

Repair

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16
Q

_____ is one of the most commonly performed maintenance functions of fire apparatus.

A

Washing the exterior of the apparatus

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17
Q

Do not use _____, _____, or _____ to remove deposits from the glass.

A

Putty knife, steel wool, or any other abrasive tool

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18
Q

Two types of inspections conducted during the walk around inspection:

A

Operational readiness; pretrip road worthiness

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19
Q

The driver begins the walk around inspection at the _____ and works around the apparatus _____.

A

Drivers door on the cab; in a clockwise pattern

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20
Q

An inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure it is functioning properly:

A

Functions test

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21
Q

A visual inspection of an apparatus to ensure the major components of the chassis are present and in proper working condition:

A

Pretrip road worthiness inspection

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22
Q

Inspecting an apparatus and equipment on the apparatus to ensure that all equipment is in its place, clean, and ready for service:

A

Operational readiness inspection

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23
Q

NFPA 1911 requires that all tires be replaced every ____ years.

A

7

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24
Q

In general, steering wheel play should be no more than approximately _____. On a 20 inch diameter steering wheel, the play may he about _____.

A

10 degrees either direction; 2 inches either direction

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25
Q

The component used to push on internal clutch fingers connected to the clutch pedal and when activated, disengages the clutch from the engine:

A

Throw out bearing

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26
Q

The weight of an empty fire apparatus fresh off the assembly line:

A

Curb weight

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27
Q

The maximum weight a vehicle can be safely operated on roadways in ideal conditions:

A

GVWR: Gross Vehicle Weight Rating

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28
Q

Per NFPA 1901 and 1911, a side to side variance in weight should not exceed _____%.

A

7%

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29
Q

Ensuring the vehicles _____ are in proper working order is an extremely important part of the inspection process.

A

Brakes

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30
Q

A braking system that uses a fluid in a closed system to pressurize wheel cylinders when activated:

A

Hydraulic Breaking System

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31
Q

An electronic system that monitors wheel spin.
When braking and a wheel are sensed to begin locking up the brake on that wheel is temporarily released to prevent skidding:

A

Antilock braking system

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32
Q

A braking system that uses compressed air to hold off a spring brake (parking brake) and applies air pressure a service brake for vehicle stopping:

A

Air actuated braking system

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33
Q

Apparatus with air brakes are to be
equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns from being operated when the air pressure in the air reservoir drops below:

A

80 psi

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34
Q

_____ reduce the possibility of an apparatus going into a slide, jackknife, or spin during heavy braking while also assisting the driver in keeping the apparatus in a straight trajectory during heavy braking.

A

Antilock braking system

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35
Q

Apparatus brakes should be thoroughly tested at least annually using the methods outlined in __________.

A

NFPA 1911 Standard for the Inspection, Maintenance, Testing and Retirement of In service Automotive Fire Apparatus

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36
Q

A series of test used to ensure the serviceability of an air braking system. Test include air loss, air compressor buildup, air warning and emergency parking brake activation:

A

Air Brake Test

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37
Q

Devices used in an air brake system that connect between the activation pads and the brake pads that compensate for brake pad wear:

A

Slack Adjusters

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38
Q

A truck that uses a cab that lowers over the power train:

A

Tilt Cab

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39
Q

The driver/operator should or should not rely on guages?

A

Should never rely on gauges. All fluids should be inspected.

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40
Q

___________ trap much of the particulate matter in exhaust emissions. These systems must periodically conduct a process of regeneration in which the exhaust temperature is raised in order to automatic regeneration mode, the vehicle may be operated normally.

A

Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF)

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41
Q

A device designed to remove diesel particulate matter or soot form the exhaust gas of a diesel engine:

A

Diesel Particulate Filter

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42
Q

Engines produced after January 1, 2010 may be equipped with an exhaust after treatment called Selective Catalyst Reductant (SCR). AN ________ system uses diesel exhaust fluid DEF and is injected into the gas in order to reduce the nitrogen oxide emissions form Diesel engines.

A

Selective Catalyst Reductant

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43
Q

The SAE only indicates _____ of the oil.

A

Viscosity

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44
Q

A specific inspection to an area of a chassis or apparatus to ensure that the unit is operating properly in accordance with the manufacturer’s initial design:

A

Post Maintenance/Repair Inspection

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45
Q

According to the United States Fire Administration ___ firefighters were killed responding to or from emergency incidents in 2010.

A

17

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46
Q

NFPA _______ has established minimum qualifications for apparatus driver operators.

A

1002 Standard for Fire apparatus Driver operator professional Qualifications.

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47
Q

NFPA 1001:

A

Standard for driver operators for aerial apparatus.

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48
Q

In order to meet the intent of NFPA 1002, candidates must have completed a _____ course or equivalent course.

A

Firefighter 1

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49
Q

Driver/Operators should possess the following abilities: (7)

A

Reading, Computer, Writing, Mathematical, Physical Fitness, Visual Acuity, Adequate Hearing

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50
Q

Driver/Operators must always exercise care for the safety of _____ and _____.

A

Firefighters and Civilians

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51
Q

An act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger, while ignoring any potential consequences of doing so. Reckless disregard while not necessarily suggesting intent to cause harm, is a harsher condition than ordinary negligence:

A

Reckless disregard

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52
Q

Breach of duty in which a person or organization fails to perform at the standard required by law, or that would be expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances:

A

Negligence

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53
Q

Willful and wanton disregard:

A

Gross Negligence

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54
Q

Driver/Operators drive with _____ for the safety of others using the highways.

A

Due Regard

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55
Q

The driver operator is not protected from the legal consequences of driving with _____ for the safety of others.

A

Reckless Disregard

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56
Q

The Driver/Operators most important responsibility is to _____.

A

Operate the apparatus safely during routine driving and while responding to emergency calls.

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57
Q

____ is usually found when the driver operator has been found guilty of gross violation of standing laws, polices, or ordinances.

A

Negligence

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58
Q

Perception of ones surrounding environment and the ability to anticipate future events:

A

Situational Awareness

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59
Q

Fire Apparatus collisions are grouped into seven basic causes, which reflect the lack of due regard and situational awareness:

A

Improper backing; Reckless driving; Excessive speed; Lack of driving skill and experience; Overloading and misuse; Mechanical failure; Diver operator personal readiness

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60
Q

_____ accidents generally account for a significant percentage of of all damage repair costs.

A

Backing

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61
Q

Driver operators must be aware of _____. Overheated brake components lose their ability to stop the vehicle.

A

Brake Fade

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62
Q

Loss of braking functions which occurs due to excessive use of the brakes:

A

Brake Fade

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63
Q

In a study conducted by the society of automotive engineers it was determined that in _____% of all collisions driver operators was not aware of the problem until it was too late to correct.

A

42%

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64
Q

A pumper with a 1,000 gallon tank, the difference in weight between a full and empty tank is over _____ pounds.

A

8,000

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65
Q

How to load 5” LDH while driving:

A

Drive the apparatus only in forward direction, straddling or to one side of hose, and at a speed no greater than 5 mph.

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66
Q

If a driver/operator fails to fill the DEF tank, the apparatus may be limited to _____ mph.

A

5 mph

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67
Q

Force that trends to create a rotational or twisting motion:
Measurement of engine shaft output:
Force that produces or tend to produce a twisting or rotational action:

A

Torque

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68
Q

Fire Apparatus collisions are grouped into seven basic causes, which reflect the lack of due regard and situational awareness:

A

Angle of Approach

Angle of Departure

Breakover Angle

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69
Q

Angle formed by level found and line form point where the front tires touch the trough to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus.

A

Angle of Approach

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70
Q

Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus.

A

Angle of departure

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71
Q

Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where there rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheelbase midpoint:

A

Breakover Angle

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72
Q

Weight transfer follows the law of inertia which states that?

A

Weight transfer follows the law of inertia which states that?

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73
Q

When _____ occurs with a diesel engine, more fuel is injected than can be burned.

A

Overthrottling

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74
Q

Process of injecting or supplying the Diesel engine with more fuel than can be burned:

A

Overthrottling

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75
Q

Drivers who cross the railroad tracks must ensure that there will be room between the track and the stop light to fit the apparatus while the light is still red. There are 19,824 locations in the U.S. where there is less than _____ feet following the railroad tracks. These sites account for an average of 122 accidents annually.

A

100 Feet

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76
Q

The safe following distance between vehicles increases dramatically when the apparatus is driven on slippery roads. It may take ___ to _____ greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than it does on dry pavement.

A

3 to 15 times

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77
Q

Anticipating that other drivers may not see, hear, or respond appropriately to approaching apparatus, the driver operator should use the following guidelines to help avoid potential collisions:

A

Aim high in steering

Get the big picture

Keep your eyes moving

Leave yourself an out

Maintain enough distance from the vehicle ahead to pull out of traffic safely if the need arises

Make sure that others can see and hear you

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78
Q

Audible warning devices may include electronic or mechanical sirens as well as air horns. Studies have shown that civilian drivers respond better to sounds that change pitch. ____________ and _____________ of an electronic or mechanical siren may be the best way to get the attention of motorists.

A

Short air horn burst and the constant up and down oscillation

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79
Q

At speeds above _______ an emergency vehicle may outrun the effective range of its audible warning device.

A

50 mph

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80
Q

Sirens mounted on emergency vehicles operating at slower speeds project out much farther. In some instances increasing the speed of an apparatus by 20 mph can decease the audible distance by _________ feet or more.

A

250

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81
Q

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel at least _____ to _______ feet part.

A

300 to 500

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82
Q

The time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at the current rate of speed is:

A

Visual lead time

83
Q

Distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until it comes to a complete stop:

A

Braking Distance

84
Q

Sum of the driver reaction distance and the vehicle braking distance:

A

Total Stopping Distance

85
Q

The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping:

A

Reaction Distance

86
Q

Proficiency in _____ control may be gained through practice at facilities equipped with skid pads.

A

Skid

87
Q

An uncontrolled slide across a surface in a wheeled vehicle:

A

Skid

88
Q

Two common types of skidding are:

A

acceleration skid

Locked wheel skid

89
Q

In a/an ________ the driver wheels lose traction on the road surface.

A

Acceleration Skid

90
Q

A/an _________ generally results from braking too hard at a high rate of speed.

A

Locked Wheel Skid

91
Q

NFPA 1901 requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of 36,000 lb or greater be equipped with an __________________.

A

Auxiliary braking system

92
Q

There are four types of auxiliary brakes to aid the foundation brakes in slowing the vehicle:

A

Exhaust brake

Engine compression brake

Transmission output retarder

Electromagnetic retarder

93
Q

A/an _____ is any device that uses the engine and transmission to impede the forward motion of the motor vehicle by compression of the engine.

A

Engine Compression Device

94
Q

The _______ is the least capable of the four auxiliary brake devices.

A

Exhaust Brake

95
Q

A/an _____is an electronically actuated mechanical system added to engine valve train.

A

Engine Compression Brake

96
Q

These chains may be ineffective in snow deeper than 3 to 6 inches depending on consistency of the snow or when the vehicle is moving at very slow speeds, or in reverse:

A

Tire chains

97
Q

_____ device is any device that uses the hinge and transmission to impede the forward motion of the motor vehicle by compression of the engine.

A

Engine Compression Brake

98
Q

IFSTA recommends that the driver operator use the following general rules when backing:

A

Preposition lights to illuminate the area where the spotter will stand approximately 8 to 10 feet behind the apparatus.

99
Q

_____ can be an effective way for spotter to communicate with the driver operator.

A

Hand Signals

100
Q

A fire department pumpers primarily function on the fire ground is to provide:

A

Water directly for fire streams or to support other pumpers or aerial apparatus.

101
Q

Incident scene ___________ determines the most advantageous position for the attack pumper.

A

Size up

102
Q

Ongoing evaluation of influential factors at a scene of an incident:

A

Size Up

103
Q

Establishing ________ is a primary concern of the driver operator and company officer in the placement of the pumper.

A

Water Supply

104
Q

Only after a proper size up confirms the location and extent of the fire can a _____ be considered for water supply.

A

Pumper’s onboard tank

105
Q

One exception of the uphill rule involves wild land fires. Apparatus and personnel should be _________ of the main body of fire as wild land fires move uphill faster than inflate terrine or downhill.

A

Downhill

106
Q

Apparatus and personnel should maintain a collapse zone of at least _____ times the height of any building determined likely to collapse.

A

One and a half

107
Q

Apparatus should be positioned _________ of an incident.

A

Uphill

108
Q

Incident commanders decision to withdraw firefighters and apparatus from an area or building include buildings with reinforcement rods which may be identified by _____or _____ with bulging walls, traveling exterior cracks and falling bricks.

A

Ornamental stars or bolts

109
Q

Depending on the incident, apparatus, equipment, and personnel operating within 200 feet of the base of a high rise fire may need to be protected from _____.

A

Falling glass and debris

110
Q

In certain instances the ________ method of apparatus placement may be used to position aerial and pumping apparatus at a fire scene.

A

Inside/outside

111
Q

In the “Inside/Outside” method, when is the aerial placed inside? And when is it placed outside?

A

Inside: When the building is more than 5 stories tall.
Outside: When the building is less than 5 stories tall.

112
Q

To shuttle water between a source and an emergency scene using mobile water supply apparatus:

A

Relay

113
Q

_____ operations are required when a pumper must be supplied from a static water supply source such as a dry hydrant, storage tank, lake or stream.

A

Drafting

114
Q

Process of acquiring water form a static source and transferring it into a pump that is above the sources level; atmospheric pressure on the water surface forces water into the pump where a partial vacuum was created:

A

Drafting

115
Q

Supply of water at rest that does not provide a pressure head for fire suppression but may be employed as a suction source for fire pumps. For example, water in a reservoir, pound, or cistern:

A

Static Water Supply

116
Q

Any personnel working near the edge of bodies of water are required to wear a _____.

A

PFD (personal flotation device)

117
Q

Permanently installed pipe that has pumper suction connections installed at static water sources o sped drafting operations:

A

Dry Hydrant

118
Q

Hose used to connect a fire department pumper or a portable pump to a nearby water source; my be soft sleeve or hard suction hose.

A

Intake Hose

119
Q

Operation where a strong hydrant is used to supply two pumpers by connecting the pumpers intake to intake. The second pumper receives the excess water not being pumped by the first pumper, which is directly connected to the water source.

A

Dual pumping

120
Q

Short relay operation in which the pumper taking water from the supply source pumps into the intake of the second pumper; the second pumper then boosts the pressure of water even higher. This method is used when pressure higher than the capability of a single pump are required:

A

Tandem pumping

121
Q

_____ operations are actually a form of relay pumping with the pumpers positioned closed together rather than evenly spaced in the supply hose layout.

A

Tandem Pumping

122
Q

In tandem pumping operations apparatus may be located up to _________ apart.

A

300 feet

123
Q

The boundary between wild land an structural development often referred to as _____ is a challenging environment for fire fighting operations.

A

Wildland urban interface

124
Q

Wildland Fire Attack

Any fire attack should begin with the apparatus positioned in a/an _____ a natural or man made barrier that will prevent the fire form encircling the vehicle and crew.

A

Anchor Point

125
Q

Point from which a fire line is begun; usually a natural or man made barrier the prevents fire spread and the possibility of the crew being flanked while constructing the fire line:

A

Anchor Point

126
Q

Ability of an apparatus to traverse a body of standing water. Apparatus specifications should list the specific water depths through which trucks must be able to drive:

A

Fording

127
Q

Standardized process or procedure by which available resources responding to a fire or other emergency incident are held in reserve at a location away form the incident while awaiting assignment:

A

Staging

128
Q

Used on all multiple company emergency responses. The first arriving vehicles of each type proceed directly to the scene, and the others stand by a block or two from the scene and await orders. units usually stage at the last intersection on their route of travel before reading the reported incident location:

A

Level I Staging

129
Q

Used on large scale incidents where a larger number of fire and emergency services companies are responding; these companies are sent to a specified remote location to await assignment:

A

Level II Staging

130
Q

Company officer of the first arriving company at the staging who takes command of the area and is responsible for communicating available resources and resource needs to the operations section chief:

A

Staging Area Manager

131
Q

Location at which the primary Incident Management Logistics functions are coordinated and administered; the incident command post may be co located here:

A

Base

132
Q

Systems of barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scenes, intend to limit the number of person exposed to a hazard and to facilitate its mitigation. A major incident has three zones; restricted (hot) Limited access (warm) and Support (cold) zone:

A

Hazard Control Zone

133
Q

Fire department personnel must consider all railroad tracks ________ Because it is not always possible to stop the flow of trains on a track during emergency operations and it may require one to two miles for a fully loaded train to make a complete stop.

A

Live

134
Q

Apparatus should maintain a clear zone of at least _______ from railroad track to prevent contact with objects on the railroad cars.

A

30 Feet

135
Q

_________ is considered to be virtually incompressible, and its weight varies at different temperatures.

A

Water

136
Q

One cubic foot of water weighs:

A

62.4 pounds per cubic foot

137
Q

One gallon of water weighs:

A

8.3 pounds

138
Q

3 Physical states of water:

A

Solid, Liquid, Gas

139
Q

At 212 degrees, water expands _____ times its original volume.

A

1700

140
Q

_____ is defined as force per unit area.

A

Pressure

141
Q

Pressure may be expressed as:

A

Pounds per square foot
Pounds per square inch
Kilopascals

142
Q

______ is a simple measure of weight and is expressed in pounds or kilograms.

A

Force

143
Q

____ is an influence that causes a change in the speed, direction, or shape of a substance.

A

Force

144
Q

A 1 inch square column of water 1 foot high therefore exerts a pressure at its base of _____.

A

0.434 PSI

145
Q

The height required for a 1 square inch column of water to produce 1 psi at its base equals 1 foot divided by 0.434 psi/ft or ___________.

A

2.304 feet

146
Q

The height required for a 1 square inch column of water to produce 1 psi at its base equals 1 foot divided by 0.434 psi/ft or ___________.

A

1 PSI

147
Q

The speed at which a fluid travels through a hose or pipe:

A

Velocity

148
Q

First principle of Pressure:

A

Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts

149
Q

Second Principle of Pressure

A

Fluid pressure at a point in a fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions.

150
Q

Third principle of Pressure

A

Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions.

151
Q

Fourth Principle of Pressure

A

The pressure in a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth.

152
Q

Fifth principle of Pressure

A

The pressure of a liquid in an pen vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid.

153
Q

Sixth Principle of Pressure

A

The pressure of a liquid at the bottom of the vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel.

154
Q

One inch of mercury creates the same pressure at the bottom of a container as _____ inches of water.

A

13.55

155
Q

Atmospheric pressure at sea level is _____.

A

14.7 PSI

156
Q

A common method of measuring atmospheric pressure is by comparing the weight of the atmosphere with the weight of _____.

A

Mercury

157
Q

Any pressure less than atmosphere is called:

A

Vacuum

158
Q

_____ refers to the height of a water supply above the discharge orifice.

A

Head

159
Q

To convert head in feet to head pressure, you divide the number of feet by _____.

A

2.304

160
Q

Stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, hose and adapters.

A

Static pressure

161
Q

The pressure found in water distribution system during normal consumption demand is considered:

A

Normal Operating Pressure

162
Q

The difference between static pressure and normal operating pressure is the _____ caused by water flowing through the pipes, valves and fittings of the system.

A

Friction

163
Q

_____ is the portion of the total available pressure not. Used to overcome friction loss, or gravity while forcing water through pipes, fittings, hose or adapters.

A

Residual Pressure

164
Q

While water is flowing from a discharge opening, the forward velocity pressure is considered:

A

Flow Pressure

165
Q

Height of a point above sea level or some other reference point:

A

Elevation

166
Q

Geographic position of a location or object in relation to sea level, the location may be either above or below or at level:

A

Altitude

167
Q

Pressure losses or gains due to gravity are called:

A

Elevation Pressure

168
Q

Above sea level atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____ psi for every 1,000 feet.

A

0.5 PSI

169
Q

_____ is that part of the total pressure lost while forcing water through pipe, fittings, fire hose and adapters.

A

Friction Loss

170
Q

Loss of pressure created by the turbulence of water moving against the interior walls of the hose or pipe:

A

Friction Loss

171
Q

The friction loss in older hose may be as much as _____% more than that of new hose.

A

50%

172
Q

First Principle of Friction Loss

A

If all other conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe.

173
Q

Second Principle of Friction Loss

A

When hose are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increase in the velocity of the flow.

174
Q

Third Principle of Friction Loss

A

For the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose.

175
Q

Fourth Principle of Friction Loss

A

For a given velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the pressure on water.

176
Q

Using 4 inch hose vs 3 inch hose, it equates to a _____ reduction in friction loss.

A

76%

177
Q

Since water is considered incompressible, it requires _____ psi to reduce water’s volume by 1%.

A

30,000

178
Q

There are practical limits to the velocity at which a stream can travel. If the velocity is increased beyond this point, the friction will become so great that the entire system is agitated by resistance. This agitation causes a degree of turbulence known as _____.

A

Critical Velocity

179
Q

Force created by the rapid deceleration of water causes a violent increase in pressure that can be powerful enough to rupture piping or damage fixtures. Generally results from closing a valve or nozzle too quickly.

A

Water Hammer

180
Q

_____ uses one or more pumps that take water from the primary source and discharges it through the filtration and treatment processes.

A

Direct pumping system

181
Q

_____ uses a primary water source located at a higher elevation than the distribution system.

A

Gravity System

182
Q

The _____ of the overall water supply system receives the water from the pumping station and delivers it throughout the area served.

A

Distribution System

183
Q

A fire hydrant that receives water from only one direction is known as _____.

A

Dead End Hydrant

184
Q

A distribution system that provides circulating feed from several mains constitutes a _____.

A

Grid system

185
Q

Water supply system that utilizes lateral feeders for improved distribution:

A

Grid System

186
Q

Grid systems should consist of the following components:

A

Primary Feeders
Secondary Feeders
Distributors

187
Q

Large pipes with relatively widespread spacing, that convey large quantities of water to various points of the system for local distribution to the smaller mains:

A

Primary Feeders

188
Q

A network of intermediate sized pipes that reinforce the grid within the various loops of the primary feeder system and aid the concentration of the required fire flow at any point:

A

Secondary Feeders

189
Q

Grid arrangement of smaller mains serving individual fire hydrants and blocks of consumers:

A

Distributors

190
Q

Grid arrangement of smaller mains serving individual fire hydrants and blocks of consumers:

A

Distributors

191
Q

Valves for water systems are broadly divided into what two types?

A

Indicating and Nonindicating

192
Q

_____: the average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year.

A

Average daily consumption

193
Q

_____: The maximum total amount of water that was used during any 24 hour interval with a 3 year period.

A

Maximum Daily Consumption

194
Q

_____: The maximum amount of water used in any 1 hour interval over the course of a day.

A

Peak Hourly Consumption

195
Q

A _____ is produced with a fixed orifice and smooth bore nozzle.

A

Solid stream

196
Q

The nozzle pressure and size of the discharge orifice determine the _____ and _____ of a solid stream.

A

Flow and reach

197
Q

Solid stream nozzle on hand lines should generally be operated at a maximum of ___ psi.

A

50 psi

198
Q

Master stream appliances should be operated at a maximum ___ psi.

A

80 psi

199
Q

_____: A water stream of finely divided particles used for fire control.

A

Fog Stream

200
Q

A ____ is designed to flow a specific volume of water on all stream patterns at a specific nozzle discharge pressure.

A

Constant Flow Nozzle

201
Q

_____ are a type of variable flow nozzle with the ability to change patterns while maintaining the same nozzle pressure.

A

Automatic Nozzles

202
Q

_____ GPM is the maximum flow for a handline.

A

350 GPM

203
Q

Smooth bore master streams are generally operated at _____ nozzle pressure.

A

80 psi

Pumping And Aerial Apparatus Driver/Operator Handbook 3rd Edition (1 decks)

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