Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Davies Questions 270-450 > Pulse-Echo Instrumentation > Flashcards

Pulse-Echo Instrumentation Flashcards

1
Q 
What system control should you adjust to compensate for sound attenuation with increasing depth?
A. Dynamic range 
B. TGC
C. Transmit power
D. Overall receiver gain
E. Focus position
A

B. TGC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
What system control determines the amount of amplification that occurs in the receiver?
A. Gain
B. Acoustic power output 
C. Rectification 
D. Pulse repetition frequency 
E. Dynamic range
A

A. Gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
When you adjust the output power control , you affect the following system component:
A. Pulser
B. Beam former
C. Scan converter
D. Memory
A

A. Pulser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
What system control do you adjust to equalize the differences in echo amplitudes received from similar structures situated at different depths?
A. Dynamic range of compression 
B. Rectification 
C. Time gain compensation 
D. Pulse repetition frequency
A

C. Time gain compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
Electronic noise is reduced in the ultrasound system by this method:
A. Demodulation 
B. Compensation 
C. Rectification 
D. Amplification 
E. Rejection
A

E. Rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
You have chosen to enlarge an ultrasound image with a read magnification. Which of the following is NOT related to read magnification?
A. Preprocessing 
B. Increased pixel size 
C. Performance on a frozen image
D. Resolution loss
E. B and D only
A

A. Preprocessing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
What term below describes the rate at which the transmitter applies electronic voltage pulses to the transducer?
A. Period
B. Pulse repetition frequency 
C. Depth gain compensation 
D. Demodulation
A

B. Pulse repetition frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pulsing of the transmitted sound wave is necessary for real -time imaging because :
A. The transducer becomes too hot to handle if continuous sound waves are emitted
B. The crystal in the transducer will break under the stress of continuous emissions
C. The depth of the interface from which the echo originated can be determined
D. Lateral resolution is improved by pulsed transmission

A

C. The depth of the interface from which the echo originated can be determined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
What receiver function is responsible for decreasing the difference between the smallest and the largest received signal and amplitudes?
A. Amplification 
B. Compensation 
C. Compression 
D. Demodulation 
E. Rejection
A

C. Compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
What receiver function listed below is NOT operated -adjustable ?
A. Amplification 
B. Compensation 
C. Demodulation 
D. Rejection 
E. A and D
A

C. Demodulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
While performing a sonographic exam, you have performed both preprocessing and post processing functions. Which of the following functions is post processing ?
A. Write-zoom magnification 
B. Frequency change
C. Gray-scale map assignment 
D. Scan line density
A

C. Gray-scale map assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following would be most helpful to enhance the contrast difference between tissues having subtle variations in echogenicity ?
A. Decreasing the acoustic power output
B. Decreasing the scan line density
C. Performing a read-zoom magnification over the area of interest
D. Changing the gray-scale map assignment

A

D. Changing the gray-scale map assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
What part of the sonographic instrument is responsible for apodization, beam steering , focusing, and aperture control?
A. Beam former 
B. Receiver 
C. Memory
D. Pulser
A

A. Beam former

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
What control should you adjust to better compensate for the attenuation of sound as it propagates through tissue?
A. Dynamic range 
B. Time gain compensation 
C. Acoustic power output 
D. Rejection
A

B. Time gain compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Which control would you adjust to increase the intensity of the transmitted pulse?
A. Receiver gain
B. Depth of scanning
C. Output power 
D. Time gain compensation
A

C. Output power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Which control would you adjust to alter the dynamic range of the displayed echoes?
A. Compensation 
B. Transmit power 
C. Scanning depth
D. Time gain compensation
A

A. Compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
The technique of frame averaging (persistence) during real-time acquisition is designed to :
A. Reduce random noise 
B. Decrease pixel size
C. Redistribute the gray scale
D. Enhance spatial resolution 
E. Increase frame rate
A

A. Reduce random noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
You are performing a sonographic exam and select the tissue harmonics operating mode. What advantage will you obtain over conventional imaging?
A. Improved contrast resolution 
B. Improved penetration 
C. Improved temporal resolution 
D. Improved signal-to-noise ratio
A

A. Improved contrast resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
You have decreased the scan line density. What technique will be employed to fill in the empty data between the scan lines?
A. Interpolation 
B. Rejection 
C. Compression 
D. Autocorrelation 
E. Demodulation
A

A. Interpolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
While performing an ultrasound examination, you decide to adjust the system settings to improve the image. Which of the following is NOT user-adjustable?
A. Frequency 
B. Power
C. Gain
D. Compensation 
E. Echo arrival time
A

E. Echo arrival time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
What control should you adjust to optimize the image of you are scanning a structure that produces very bright echoes on the display?
A. Rejection 
B. TGC
C. Edge enhancement 
D. Frame averaging
A

B. TGC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

To generate a sonographic image, what is the order in which the following system components are activated?
A. Pulser, receiver , display , beam former, memory
B. Pulser, beam former, receiver , memory , display
C. Beam former , pulser , memory , display , receiver
D. Memory , beam former, pulser , receiver, display

A

B. Pulser, beam former, receiver , memory , display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
What is a typical frame rate for B-mode real time imaging ?
A. 1-9 kHz
B. 10-50Hz
C. 100-200 MHz 
D. 200-300 Hz
A

B. 10-50Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
What control could you adjust to improve the signal -to -noise ratio on the image?
A. Dynamic range 
B. Frame averaging 
C. Gray-scale map
D. Edge enhancement
A

B. Frame averaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
The ratio of the largest  to the smallest signal that a system can handle is termed:
A. Apodization 
B. Compression 
C. Threshold 
D. Dynamic range
A

D. Dynamic range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The term duty factor is defined as:
A. The fraction of time the transducer is actively transmitting sound
B. The fraction of time the transducer is actively receiving sound
C. The fraction of time between the transmitted and received sound pulse
D. The fraction of time between transmitted sound pulses

A

A. The fraction of time the transducer is actively transmitting sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
If you increase the pulse repetition frequency and leave all other controls unchanged , what will happen ?
A. Lateral resolution will improve 
B. Frame rate will increase 
C. Frame rate will decrease 
D. Axial resolution will improve
A

B. Frame rate will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
If you increase pulse repetition frequency to a level too great for the depth of field, the result will be :
A. Increased side lobes 
B. Increased grating lobes 
C. Range ambiguity
D. Decreased frame rate
A

C. Range ambiguity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
You have the ability to adjust the following controls during an abdominal ultrasound study. Which control most closely affects patient exposure?
A. Receiver overall gain
B. TGC
C. Dynamic range 
D. Reject
E. Output power
A

E. Output power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
What effect will you see in the image if you increase the reject level?
A. Increased number of shades of gray
B. Decreased low-level echoes
C. Decreased frame rate
D. Decreased scanning depth
A

B. Decreased low-level echoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
If sound did not attenuate with increasing depth, what system control would you no longer need?
A. Dynamic range 
B. Reject 
C. Frame averaging 
D. TGC
A

D. TGC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The term signal -to- noise ratio denotes:
A. The ratio of the electronic noise to the radio frequency noise
B. The ratio of the system power to the weakest detectable signal
C. The relative amplitude of the signal compared to the amplitude of the noise
D. The ratio of the largest to smallest signal that the system can display

A

C. The relative amplitude of the signal compared to the amplitude of the noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
What receiver function converts the negative portion of the radio frequency signal to positive?
A. Compression 
B. Demodulation 
C. Rectification 
D. Enveloping
E. Amplification
A

C. Rectification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Preprocessing functions may be defined as :
A. Any function that can be performed on a frozen image
B. A function that takes place in the beam former and is nit controllable by the operator
C. A function that allows increased focusing of the sound beam
D. A function that is performed before the echo data are stored in memory

A

D. A function that is performed before the echo data are stored in memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Increasing the dynamic range setting affects the ultrasound image by:
A. Increasing image brightness
B. Decreasing image contrast
C. Improving spatial resolution
D. Increasing rejection of low level echoes

A

B. Decreasing image contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
When you adjust the TGC , what component of the ultrasound system implements the changes ? 
A. Pulser 
B. Receiver
C . Monitor 
D. Scan converter 
E. Clock
A

B. Receiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
A typical value for the duty factor in diagnostic sonographic imaging is :
A. 80-100%
B. 50-75%
C. 25-45%
D. 5-20%
E. .1-1%
A

E. .1-1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
Pulse repetition period is the inverse of:
A. Duty factor
B. Pulse repetition frequency 
C. Frame rate
D. Pulse duration 
E spatial pulse length
A

B. Pulse repetition frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
What system component determines the pulse repetition frequency?
A. Pulser 
B. Receiver 
C. Memory
D. Display
A

A. Pulser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q 
In ultrasound systems, the range equation is used to determine which of the following?
A. Reflector amplitude 
B. Reflector frequency 
C. Reflector direction 
D. Reflector depth
A

D. Reflector depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q 
You have increased the output power by 10 dB. The signal intensity has :
A. Doubled 
B. Tripled
C. Quadrupled
D. Increased by a factor of 10
A

D. Increased by a factor of 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the purpose of the preamplification of the incoming signal that occurs in the transducer assembly?
A. To decrease the dynamic range of the signal
B. To increase echo voltages before noise is induced through the cable
C. To reduce sensitivity to side lobes
D. To reduce acoustic impedance mismatch between the tissue and the transducer

A

B. To increase echo voltages before noise is induced through the cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
What function of the receiver converts electric signals from radio frequency to video form?
A. Amplification 
B. Compensation 
C. Compression 
D. Demodulation
A

D. Demodulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
What component of the ultrasound system converts the electric energy provided by the pulser into acoustic pulses transmitted into the patient?
A. Receiver 
B. Scan converter 
C. Memory
D. Display 
E. Transducer
A

E. Transducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The incoming raw echo signals must be compressed into a smaller dynamic range because:
A. A wide dynamic range results in increased display of electronic noise
B. A wide dynamic range does not allow differentiation between echoes arriving from different depths
C. The display cannot accommodate the wide dynamic range of the incoming signals
D. The existing wide dynamic range significantly slows the frame rate

A

C. The display cannot accommodate the wide dynamic range of the incoming signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a function of the receiver?
A. Amplification 
B. RF to video conversion 
C. Demodulation 
D. Dynamic aperture 
E. Compression
A

D. Dynamic aperture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q 
What control should you adjust to modify the image if the attenuation coefficient of the tissue is very high?
A. Dynamic range 
B. Rejection 
C. Threshold 
D. Compensation
A

D. Compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q 
What system function is limited by the speed of sound in tissue?
A. Demodulation 
B. Pulse repetition frequency 
C. Voltage amplitude 
D. Rectification 
E. Time gain compensation
A

B. Pulse repetition frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

You made changes to the following controls during an exam. Which adjustment increased the duty factor?
A. Increasing receiver gain
B. Increasing output power
C. Increasing pulse repetition frequency
D. Increasing scanning time

A

C. Increasing pulse repetition frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the advantage of using write-zoom instead of read-zoom magnification?
A. Write zoom always provides a higher frame rate than read zoom
B. Write zoom allows you to select a location in the image, whereas read zoom must be applied to only the center of the image
C. Write zoom reduces the display of electronic noise and side lobes because it is performed in the memory component of the instrument
D. Write zoom provides greater dynamic range than read zoom
E. Write zoom provides better spatial resolution than read zoom

A

E. Write zoom provides better spatial resolution than read zoom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q 
How is reflector depth determined with pulse echo ultrasound?
A. Echo amplitude 
B. Echo Dynamic range 
C. Echo frequency 
D. Echo arrival time
A

D. Echo arrival time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What effect will you detect in the image if you increase the threshold control ?
A. Increased image brightness
B. Decreased image brightness
C. Decreased appearance of weak echo signals
D. Increased appearance of strong echo signals

A

C. Decreased appearance of weak echo signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What can you do to improve the temporal resolution while scanning ?
A. Increase the number of focal zones
B. Increase the depth
C. Increase the sector width
D. Decrease the acoustic scan line density
E. Decrease the acoustic power output

A

D. Decrease the acoustic scan line density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q 
The number of images displayed per second in real-time imaging is termed the:
A. Pulse repetition frequency 
B. pulse repetition period 
C. Frame rate
D. Pulse duration
A

C. Frame rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q 
Which scanning mode does NOT rely on the principle of echo ranging to determine interface location?
A. M-mode
B. Pulsed-wave Doppler 
C. Static B-mode
D. Transmission
A

D. Transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q 
Which display mode may be used to calculate distance measurements 
A. A mode
B. B mode
C. M mode
D. B and C only
E. A,B and C
A

E. A,B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following best describes M-mode?
A. Presentation of reflector amplitudes along multiple lines of sight
B. Two -dimensional gray scale image
C. Movement of a single structure along multiple lines of sight
D. Depth of reflectors along a single line of sight vs. time

A

D. Depth of reflectors along a single line of sight vs. time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which is an assumption of sonographic imaging that determines how detected echoes are mapped in the image ?
A. Sound waves travel along curved paths
B. Velocity is a constant 333 m/s
C. Echoes originate from the most recently transmitted pulse
D. Large structures yield a high brightness level on the display

A

C. Echoes originate from the most recently transmitted pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q 
What physical concept allows us to determine the location of an interface by measuring the elapsed time between the transmitted pulsed ultrasound wave and the detected echo from that interface?
A. Huygens principle 
B. Echo ranging 
C. Snells law
D. Doppler effect
A

B. Echo ranging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q 
The elapsed time between the transmitted pulse and the detected echo is 26 microseconds. How far is the interface from the transducer?
A. 1cm
B. 2cm
C. 3cm
D. 4cm
A

B. 2cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q 
During a sonographic exam, you adjusted the following controls. Which one was most likely to have affected the frame rate?
A. Amplification 
B. Transmit power 
C. Scan depth
D. Time gain compensation 
E. Compression
A

C. Scan depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q 
Electronic steering is most commonly applied to which of the following real-time transducers?
A. Annular array 
B. Sequential linear array 
C. Mechanical sector 
D. Phased array
A

D. Phased array

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q 
How many lines of sight are sampled and displayed on the monitor in A-mode?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 10
D. 256
E. 525
A

A. 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

While performing an obstetric exam , you wish to increase the frame rate to evaluate the fetal heart. What should you do?
A. Increase scan line density
B. Increase the number of focal zones
C. Decrease the sector width
D. Decrease the system pulse repetition frequency

A

C. Decrease the sector width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why do blood vessels usually appear anechoic on B-mode imaging?
A. They are empty
B. The red blood cells cannot reflect the sound beam
C. The red blood cells absorb the sound
D. The reflection from the red blood cells is too weak to be displayed

A

D. The reflection from the red blood cells is too weak to be displayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q 
Which echo amplitude in the following illustration would produce the brightest dot on B-mode display?
Pg 73
A
B
C
D
E
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

All of the following are limitations of M-mode scanning except:
A. Information is obtained along only one line of sight
B. Motion lateral to the transducer is not displayed
C. Motion axial to the transducer is not displayed
D. The two dimensional shape of a structure is not shown

A

C. Motion axial to the transducer is not displayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q 
Which action would decrease frame rate?
A. Increasing pulse repetition frequency 
B. Increasing acoustic scan lines 
C. Decreasing sector width 
D. Decreasing the number of focal zones 
E. Decreasing image depth
A

B. Increasing acoustic scan lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q 
In order for distance measurements to be accurate in an ultrasound tissue phantom , the phantom sound propagation speed must be:
A. 13 us/cm
B. 1.54 m/s
C. 1540 m/s
D. Half the speed of sound in tissue
A

C. 1540 m/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

You have expanded the image sector width to improve visualization of a large mass. What can you do to maintain the same temporal resolution you had before your adjustment?
A. Increase the digitization bit depth
B. Increase the number of scan lines
C. Decrease the number of pixels in the image matrix
D. Decrease the number of focal zones

A

D. Decrease the number of focal zones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q 
What information is present in the M-mode display?
A. Time, motion pattern and amplitude 
B. Amplitude,frequency, and time
C. Motion , pattern and frequency 
D. Time , motion pattern and frequency
A

A. Time, motion pattern and amplitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q 
With A-mode , the strength of the echo signal is represented by:
A. The brightness of the dot 
B. The brightness of the spike
C. The distance between two spikes
D. The distance between two dots
E. The height of the spike
A

E. The height of the spike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What information is present in the A-mode display?
A. Frequency , bandwidth, amplitude, and reflector distance
B. Time, amplitude, and motion pattern
C. Amplitude and reflector distance
D. Time , motion pattern , reflector distance, and frequency bandwidth

A

C. Amplitude and reflector distance

72
Q 
An M-mode display is most commonly used for what type of ultrasound imaging ?
A. Small parts 
B. Abdominal 
C. Cardiac
D. Vascular
A

C. Cardiac

73
Q 
A-mode display is most commonly used for what type of ultrasound imaging?
A. Small parts
B. Abdominal 
C. Cardiac
D. Vascular 
E. Ophthalmologic
A

E. Ophthalmologic

74
Q

With an A-mode display, the internal contents of a simple cyst will appear as:
A. An area with very dark shades of grey
B. An area with rapidly moving spikes
C. An area with tall spikes surrounded on each end with areas absent of spikes
D. An area with no spikes

A

D. An area with no spikes

75
Q 
What is an advantage of a water-path scanner 
A. Near-field reverberations are reduced
B. Penetration is increased
C. Temporal resolution is improved
D. Axial resolution is improved
A

A. Near-field reverberations are reduced

76
Q

What is a disadvantage of a water-path scanner ?
A. It reduces axial resolution
B. The beam width perpendicular to the image plane is increased , resulting in poor elevational resolution
C. Bubbles in the fluid can inhibit sound transmission into the body
D. It is useful only with very low frequencies

A

C. Bubbles in the fluid can inhibit sound transmission into the body

77
Q 
You are manipulating a volume data set that was previously obtained on your patient. What is the maximum number of imaging planes that can be obtained from this data set?
A. One 
B. Ten
C. One hundred 
D. One thousand 
E. There is no limit
A

E. There is no limit

78
Q 
While performing a sonography exam , you increase both imaging depth and scan line density . These adjustments produce the following result:
A. Reduced contrast resolution 
B. Reduced temporal resolution 
C. Improved axial resolution 
D. Reduced lateral resolution
A

B. Reduced temporal resolution

79
Q 
What is an advantage of using a 3/4D transducer with an automated sweep compared to a traditional transducer with a freehand sweep
A. Measurement accuracy
B. Spatial resolution 
C. Contrast resolution 
D. Larger field of view
A

A. Measurement accuracy

80
Q 
Which of the following does NOT affect the time required to create one image frame ?
A. Number of transmit focal zones
B. Number of acoustic scan lines 
C. Image depth setting 
D. Speed of sound in tissue
E. Transducer aperture
A

E. Transducer aperture

81
Q 
Increasing the number of acoustic scan lines in one frame improves which of the following?
A. Temporal resolution 
B. Axial resolution 
C. Elevational resolution 
D. Lateral resolution
A

D. Lateral resolution

82
Q 
You have decreased the image sector width. Which of the following will most likely change as a result of this adjustment?
A. Frame rate 
B. Axial resolution 
C. Elevational resolution 
D. Dynamic range
A

A. Frame rate

83
Q 
Which of the following ultrasound examinations would require the highest frame rate?
A. Small parts 
B. Abdominal 
C. Pelvic 
D. Vascular
E. Cardiac
A

E. Cardiac

84
Q 
Which of the following adjustments would NOT decrease frame rate ?
A. Increasing the number of focal zones 
B. Increasing scanning depth
C. Increasing the receiver gain
D. Increasing scan line density
A

C. Increasing the receiver gain

85
Q 
When you increase the scanning depth , which of the following is automatically decreased by the system to avoid range ambiguity?
A. Number of focal zones
B. Sector width
C. Pulse repetition frequency 
D. Pulse repetition period
A

C. Pulse repetition frequency

86
Q 
You are scanning an interface with a high acoustic impedance mismatch. How will this be displayed on the B-mode image ?
A. A tall spike
B. A small spike 
C. A bright dot
D. A dark dot
A

C. A bright dot

87
Q 
The “A” in A-mode stands for:
A. Average
B. Attenuation 
C. Aperture 
D. Amplitude
A

D. Amplitude

88
Q 
The “M” in M-mode stands for:
A. Motion
B. Magnetic 
C. Megahertz 
D. Manual 
E. Maximum
89
Q 
What component is necessary for a real time B-mode scanner but is not present in an A-mode scanner?
A. Clock 
B. Transmitter
C. Transducer 
D. Scan converter
A

D. Scan converter

90
Q 
What system control converts the numbers stored in memory to proportional voltages that can control the brightness on a CRT (cathode Ray tube ) monitor?
A. Analog -to- digital converter
B. Digital-to-analog converter 
C. Cathode Ray tub
D. Receiver
A

B. Digital-to-analog converter

91
Q 
A digital scan converter is another name for what system component?
A. Pulser
B. Receiver 
C. Image memory
D. Analog to digital converter
A

C. Image memory

92
Q 
What control allows the user to freeze and then scroll back through the most recently acquired image frames?
A. Cineloop
B. Read zoom
C. Write zoom
D. Archive
A

A. Cineloop

93
Q 
A group of 8 bits is called
A. Binary
B. Kilobyte
C. Pixel
D. Byte
94
Q 
Where are images stored in the ultrasound system ?
A. Pulser
B. Receiver
C. Beam former
D. Display
E. Scan converter
A

E. Scan converter

95
Q 
What is the maximum number of shades of gray in an 8-but digital scan converter?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256
96
Q

The spatial resolution of the scan converter is determined by:
A. Number of pixels in the scan converter matrix
B. Number of bits per pixel
C. The postprocessing settings
D. Brightness and contrast settings of the monitor

A

A. Number of pixels in the scan converter matrix

97
Q 
What system component is most responsible for transmit focusing?
A. Receiver 
B. Monitor
C. Beam former
D. Preprocessing
A

C. Beam former

98
Q 
How many levels of information can a single bit represent?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Eight
99
Q 
The picture element in a scan converter matrix are termed:
A. Decimals
B. Binary numerals
C. Bits 
D. Pixels
100
Q

Digital-to-analog conversion of the ultrasound signal must occur at what part of the imaging process?
A. Between the transducer and the receiver
B. Between the beam former and the transducer
C. Between the receiver and the scan converter
D. Between the scan converter and the display

A

D. Between the scan converter and the display

101
Q

In the scan converter, interpolation is performed to:
A. Amplify the reflected signal in comparison to the background noise
B. Decrease the dynamic range to a level that can be handled by the monitor
C. Amplify weak echo signals from deep structures to compensate for beam attenuation
D. Fill in the empty pixels that occur between acoustic scan lines

A

D. Fill in the empty pixels that occur between acoustic scan lines

102
Q

Without interpolation, which of the following would best describe the resultant B-mode image?
A. Very weak echoes in the far field compared to the near field
B. Poor differentiation between the ultrasound signal and noise floor
C. Saturation of the white shades on the ultrasound monitor
D. A series of scan lines with blank data between the lines

A

D. A series of scan lines with blank data between the lines

103
Q 
What three colors are used on a color monitor to produce the range of available colors?
A. Red , purple, yellow
B. Yellow, green, blue
C. Blue, yellow, red
D. Red , green, blue
A

D. Red , green, blue

104
Q 
When you “freeze” the ultrasound image, where is the echo information stored?
A. Transducer 
B. Scan converter 
C. Cable
D. Beam former
A

B. Scan converter

105
Q 
What type of resolution is determined by the number of pixels in the scan converter?
A. Temporal
B. Contrast 
C. Spatial
D. Elevational
A

C. Spatial

106
Q

Which of the following is associated with improper adjustment of the brightness and contrast on the video monitor?
A. The spatial resolution of the restaurant image will be degraded
B. The operator will likely overgain or undergain the image
C. The temporal resolution will be reduced
D. The flicker rate of the video monitor will be increased

A

B. The operator will likely overgain or undergain the image

107
Q 
What can you improve by changing the gray-scale map?
A. Axial resolution 
B. Lateral resolution 
C. Contrast resolution 
D. Elevational resolution
A

C. Contrast resolution

108
Q

Which of the following describes an analog signal?
A. Values are discrete
B. There are fixed steps between values
C. Continuous variation of the signal is possible
D. Levels are determined by bits

A

C. Continuous variation of the signal is possible

109
Q

What is the order in which the signal travels in the ultrasound system?
A. Transducer, receiver,display, scan converter
B. Scan converter, transducer, receiver, display
C. Scan converter, receiver, transducer, display
D. Transducer, receiver, scan converter, display

A

D. Transducer, receiver, scan converter, display

110
Q 
Of the following, which is the best choice to help you demonstrate tissue boundaries that are not perpendicular to the sound beam?
A. Speckle-reducing algorithm
B. Spatial compounding
C. Persistence 
D. Panoramic imaging
A

B. Spatial compounding

111
Q

You want to use 3D imaging to display an anatomic structure because 3D has the following advantage over 2d imaging:
A. Higher frame rate
B. Better spatial resolution
C. Ability to display image planes impossible to obtain with 2D imaging
D. Ability to display orthogonal planes simultaneously
E.. C and D

A

E.. C and D

112
Q 
What is meant by the term 4D imaging in sonography?
A. 3D imaging with the addition of time
B. 3D imaging with rendering
C. 3D imaging with transparent views
D. 3D imaging with tomographic views
E. 3D imaging with a rotational movie
A

A. 3D imaging with the addition of time

113
Q

In this image of an artery there is a calcification with a dark vertical band extending beyond it(arrow). Which explanation best describes the etiology of the dark band? Pg82
A. Propagation speed error at the vessel wall interface
B. Reduction in signal amplitude in tissue distal to a highly attenuating or reflecting object
C. Refraction due to oblique incidence at the plaque interface
D. Range ambiguity due to high PRF setting
E. Comet-tail artifact due to calcification in plaque

A

B. Reduction in signal amplitude in tissue distal to a highly attenuating or reflecting object

114
Q

Which term below most correctly describes this Doppler waveform?pg 83
A. Aliasing
B. Spectral mirroring
C. Spectral broadening due to sample volume size
D. Reverberation

A

B. Spectral mirroring

115
Q 
What should be done to improve the Doppler waveform in the previous question (Spectral mirroring)
A. Change the Doppler angle
B. Decrease the Doppler gain
C. Increase the PRF
D. Reposition the sample volume
A

A. Change the Doppler angle

116
Q 
What is the source of the echoes depicted by the arrows in this image of the kidney? pg83
A. Side lobes
B. Grating lobes
C. Refraction
D. Reverberation
A

D. Reverberation

117
Q 
What is another name for the hyperechoic artifact seen in this image distal to a fluid-filled structure? pg 84
A. Refraction
B. Shadowing
C. Speckle
D. Grating lobes
E. Enhancement
A

E. Enhancement

118
Q

These B-mode images of the common carotid artery show a graphic overlay indicating the number of lines of sight used to acquire each frame of information. No other system parameter was adjusted. Which statement below is true comparing Image A to image B? Pg 84 question 389
A. Image A has a frame rate higher than that of image B
B. Image A has a better lateral resolution than image B
C. Image A has a better axial resolution than image B
D. The temporal resolution is better in image A than in image B

A

B. Image A has a better lateral resolution than image B

119
Q 
In the images in the previous question, what technique is used to fill in the empty data between the scan lines?pg 84
A. Apodization
B. Interpolation
C. Dynamic receive
D. Subdicing
A

B. Interpolation

120
Q

You are imaging a 3D data set that has antistrophic resolution. What does this mean?
A. Spatial resolution is better than temporal resolution
B. Spatial resolution is equal in all dimensions
C. Contrast resolution is superior to spatial resolution
D. Unequal resolution is present between imaging planes

A

D. Unequal resolution is present between imaging planes

121
Q 
The following two longitudinal images of an artery were obtained with different transducers emitting the same frequency. What type of resolution is limiting visualization of the arterial lumen in the image on the top? pg 86
A. Axial
B. Lateral
C. Temporal 
D. Slice-thickness
E. Contrast
A

D. Slice-thickness

122
Q 
You are imaging a fluid-filled structure that has equidistant horizontal bands appearing in the near field. the bands have decreasing brightness with depth. What artifact are you seeing?
A. Slice thickness
B. Side lobes
C. Reverberation
D. Comet-tail
A

C. Reverberation

123
Q 
The waveform you obtained from an arterial stenosis demonstrates aliasing. If you increase the pusle repetition frequency to eliminate the aliasing,what artifact could be introduced?
A. Multipath reflections
B. Spectrum mirror image
C. propagation speed error
D. Range ambiguity
A

D. Range ambiguity

124
Q

You have obtained an ultrasound image that demonstrates refraction of the sound beam. This artiface might be manifested as :
A. Axial displacement of a reflector
B. Enhancement distal to a reflector
C. Lateral displacement of the displayed position of a reflector
D. Multiple images of a single reflector

A

C. Lateral displacement of the displayed position of a reflector

125
Q 
Which of the following conditions will result in aliasing of the Doppler frequency shift using continuous wave-Doppler?
A. PRF 10kHz, frequency shift 4kHz
B. PRF 12kHz, frequency shift 8kHz
C. PRF 5kHz , frequency shift 2.3kHz
D. PRF 8kHz, frequency shift 5kHz
E. none of the above
A

E. none of the above

126
Q 
You obtained a 3D sweep in axial plane and are viewing it in a multiplanar display. What orthogonal planes will be displayed?
A. Coronal and sagittal
B. Transverse and coronal
C. Transverse and sagittal
D. Oblique planes at 90*
E. Oblique planes at 60*
A

A. Coronal and sagittal

127
Q

You are using a transducer that produces a beam with a very wide slice thickness. Which of the following problems are you most likely to encounter as a result?
A. Increased near-field reverberations in fluid-filled structures
B. Increased side lobes
C. Decreased penetration
D. Partial volume artifact

A

D. Partial volume artifact

128
Q 
Which technology would be most helpful to obtain accurate anatomic volume measurements?
A. 2D imaging
B. 3D imaging
C. Color Doppler imaging
D. Harmonic imaging
E. Compound imaging
A

B. 3D imaging

129
Q 
You may observe a mirror-image artifact with which imaging mode?
A. B-mode
B. Spectral Doppler
C. Color Doppler
D. Power Doppler
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

130
Q 
Which of the following artifacts may result in both axial and lateral displacement of a reflector on the ultrasound image?
A. Refraction
B. Side-lobe
C. Multipath reflections
D. Partial volume
A

C. Multipath reflections

131
Q 
Which imaging technique may increase visualization of the reflections from blood flow on the real-time ultrasound image?
A. Compound imaging
B. Tissue harmonic imaging
C. 3D imaging
D. Tomographic imaging
E. Speckle reduction imaging
A

B. Tissue harmonic imaging

132
Q

While scanning a curved structure, you notice shadowing at the lateral edges of the structute. What is required for this artifact to occur?
A. Different media propagation speeds
B. Perpendicular incidence
C. Transmit frequency exceeding 5 MHz
D. fluid-filled structure in the path of the beam

A

A. Different media propagation speeds

133
Q 
What artifact is being described in the previous question?
A. Grating lobes
B. Comet-tail
C. Acoustic speckle
D. Ring-down
E. Refraction
A

E. Refraction

134
Q

The range equation describes the relationship between:
A. Acoustic impedance of two media
B. Side-lobe intensity between two crystals
C. Round trip pulse travel time and distance to the reflector
D. Bandwidth and transducer frequency

A

C. Round trip pulse travel time and distance to the reflector

135
Q

Requirements for magnetic field tracking for 3D reconstruction include which of the following?
A. The electromagnetic interference must be minimized
B. The transmitter must be in close proximity to the receiver
C. Ferrous metals must not be within the electromagnetic field
D. A and B only
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

136
Q 
Which of the following artifacts is the result of reverberation?
A. Comet-tail
B. Acoustic speckle
C. Beam- width
D. Refraction
A

A. Comet-tail

137
Q 
Which of the following artifacts commonly results in echoes filling in the lumina of small vessels?
A. Refraction
B. Partial Volume
C. Mirror Image
D. Range ambiguity
A

B. Partial Volume

138
Q 
Propagation speed error results in which sonographic appearance ?
A. Improper lateral position of an echo
B. Improper axial position of an echo
C. Shadowing behind an echo
D. Enhancement behind an echo
E. None of the above
A

B. Improper axial position of an echo

139
Q 
When you select harmonic imaging, ehich artifact is less likely to be observed?
A. Refraction
B. Shadowing
C. Ring-down
D. Grating lobes
E. Speed of sound
A

D. Grating lobes

140
Q 
When you select spatial compounding, which artifact is less likely to be observed?
A. Refraction
B. Shadowing
C. Enhancement
D. Acoustic Speckle
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

141
Q 
The salt-and-pepper appearance you observe in this ultrasound image is a result of: pg 90
A. Acoustic speckle
B. Compound imaging
C. Harmonic Imaging
D. Electromagnetic interference
A

A. Acoustic speckle

142
Q

This image exhibits banding. This is a result of: pg 91
A. dead transducer element
B. Incorrect TGC
C. Incorrect master gain
D. Incorrect number of focal zone position

A

B. Incorrect TGC

143
Q 
What imaging artifact is much worse on the left phantom image compared to the right phantom image?
A Reverberation
B. Volume imaging
C. Range ambiguity
D. Multipath reflections
A

B. Volume imaging

144
Q 
What type of transducer will improve the artifact demonstrated in the previous question ?
A. Linear array 
B. 1.5 D or multirow array
C. Mechanical 3D
D. Phased array
A

B. 1.5 D or multirow array

145
Q 
This image was obtained with a linear array transducer that employs phasing to steer the beam. What artifact do the arrows point to? pg 92
A. Grating lobes
B. Reverberation
C. Mirror-image
D. Slice-thickness
A

A. Grating lobes

146
Q

What can be done to reduce the presence of the artifact seen in grating lobes (pg 92)
A. Reduce or eliminate beam steering
B. Change the angle of incidence
C. Use dynamic aperture
D. Increase the number of rows of elements in z-axis

A

A. Reduce or eliminate beam steering

147
Q 
Complete destructive interference of echo reflections will affect the display in the following way:
A. By creating bright white pixels
B. By creating black pixels
C. By creating dark gray pixels
D. By creating light gray pixels
E. None of the above
A

B. By creating black pixels

148
Q 
You are observing a sonographic artifact based on the interference patterns of scattered echoes. What artifact are you seeing?
A. Mirror
B. Grating-lobe
C. Acoustic speckle
D. Comet-tail
E. refraction
A

C. Acoustic speckle

149
Q 
Which of the following will decrease the presence of the artifact you are seeing in acoustic speckle?
A. using frame averaging (persistence)
B. Using compound imaging
C. Reducing output power
D. Increasing the overall gain
E. A and B
A

E. A and B

150
Q 
If you wish to improve border definition, what imaging enhancement should you use?
A. Lower line density
B. 2D array transducer
C. Spatial compound imaging
D. Speckle reduction algorithm
A

C. Spatial compound imaging

151
Q 
Selective reception of echoes generated within the body by nonlinear propagation describes:
A. Compound imaging
B. Tissue harmonic imaging
C. Speckle reduction imaging
D. 3D imaging
A

B. Tissue harmonic imaging

152
Q 
Which artifact is associated with resonance of a gas bubble?
A. Grating lobes
B. Comet-tail
C. Acoustic speckle
D. Ring-down
A

D. Ring-down

153
Q 
What can you do to improve visualization of distal acoustic shadowing from calcification?
A. Compound Imaging
B. Tissue Harmonic Imaging
C. Speckle reduction imaging
D. 3D imaging
A

B. Tissue Harmonic Imaging

154
Q

What artifact will you see in the color Doppler image if you cannot increase the PRF to a level greater than two times that of the Doppler frequency shift?
A. Range ambiguity
B. Overestimation of the flow velocity
C. Overestimation of the Doppler frequency shift
D. Aliasing

A

D. Aliasing

155
Q 
In this illustration , Letter A is demonstrating what type of resolutiuon? pg 94
A. axial
B. Lateral 
C. Elevational 
D. Contrast
E. Temporal
A

B. Lateral

156
Q 
In this illustration , Letter B is demonstrating what type of resolution? pg 94
A. axial
B. Lateral 
C. Elevational 
D. Contrast
E. Temporal
A

C. Elevational

157
Q 
In this illustration , Letter C is demonstrating what type of resolution? pg 94
A. axial
B. Lateral 
C. Elevational 
D. Contrast
E. Temporal
158
Q 
Which of the following helps to improve the axial resolution in a B-mode image?
A. Increased aperture
B. Increased bandwidth
C. Focusing with an acoustic lens
D. Increasing dynamic range
A

B. Increased bandwidth

159
Q 
Which of the following helps to improve the lateral resolution in a B-mode image?
A. Increased aperture
B. Increased bandwidth
C. Focusing with an acoustic lens
D. Increasing dynamic range
A

A. Increased aperture

160
Q 
Which of the following helps to improve the elevational resolution in a B-mode image?
A. Increased aperture
B. Increased bandwidth
C. Focusing with an acoustic lens
D. Increasing dynamic range
A

C. Focusing with an acoustic lens

161
Q 
What technique would be most helpful in reducing grating lobes in your image?
A. Beam steering
B. Compound imaging
C. 3D imaging
D. Speckle reduction imaging
E. Tissue harmonic imaging
A

E. Tissue harmonic imaging

162
Q 
What technique would be most likely to produce grating lobes in your image?
A. Beam steering
B. Tomographic ultrasound imaging
C. 3D imaging
D. Speckle reduction imaging
E. Tissue harmonic imaging
A

A. Beam steering

163
Q 
A standard for handling and transferring images and medical information between computers is:
A. Voxel
B. DICOM
C. HIPPA
D. VPN
E. Worklist
164
Q 
What feature would you use if you wish to recall a previous exam from the PACS system to your ultrasound machine?
A. Storage commitment
B. Worklist
C. DICOM store
D. Query/retreive
E. HIPPA
A

D. Query/retreive

165
Q 
A DICOM feature that allows you to select a pt name and automatically populate the pt information on the ultrasound system is:
A. VPN
B. PRN
C. Worklist
D. JAVA
E. HIPPA
A

C. Worklist

166
Q

You are performing 3D sonography and notice the volume rate is 8 Hz. What does this represent?
A. Number of transmitted sound pulses per second
B. Number of received pulses per minute
C. Number of volumes displayed per second
D. Number of frames per volume
E. Number of frames per second

A

C. Number of volumes displayed per second

167
Q

Sonographic images are usually compressed before sending to PACS in order to:
A. Reduce the time to transmit the image
B. Increase the spatial resolution of the image
C. Preserve measurements with the image data
D. Reduce costs by lowering image quality

A

A. Reduce the time to transmit the image

168
Q

Using the Modality Worklist has the advantage of:
A. Avoiding the need to type patient information
B. Reducing patient information error
C. Speeding up patient preparation time
D. Easily confirming the pt information
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

169
Q 
What term is used to describe a three-dimensional pixel element in3D sonography?
A. Volume point
B. Voxel
C. Quadrant
D. Channel
E. All of the above
170
Q 
A type of sonographic imaging that transmits two pulses of opposite phase in rapid succession so they can be canceled out upon reception is termed:
A. Pulse inversion harmonics
B. Compound imaging
C. Speckle reduction imaging
D. Tomographic imaging
E. Panoramic imaging
A

A. Pulse inversion harmonics

171
Q

What 2D limitation is addressed by 3D ultrasound imaging?
A. 3D provides higher frame rate
B. 3D provides improved spatial resolution
C. 3D provides visibility to the coronal plane
D. 3D transducers are typically smaller and lighter than standard 2D transducers

A

C. 3D provides visibility to the coronal plane

172
Q 
A system commonly used to handle the archiving and electronic distribution of sonographic images using a DICOM format is:
A. VHS
B. DVD
C. USB
D. MOD
E. PACS
173
Q 
You are using an ultrasound examination mode that is useful for measuring dimensions of structures. This mode produces a display more similar to a tracing than to an actual anatomic picture. Which of the following most closely matches this description?
A. Duplex mode
B. B-mode
C. C-mode
D. M-mode
174
Q 
Which artifact is related to the sound beam traveling through a structure with a low attenuation?
A. Comet-tail
B. Aliasing
C. Enhancement
D. Reverberation
A

C. Enhancement

175
Q 
What is the main advantage you will have by choosing a transducer that produces a thin slice over the image plane?
A. Improved frame rate
B. Decreased volume averaging
C. Better axial resolution
D. Larger field of view
A

B. Decreased volume averaging

176
Q 
What artifact might you see with an array transducer due to energy that propogates from the transducer in a direction different from that of the primary beam?
A. Grating lobe
B. Mirror -image
C. Reverberation
D. Range ambiguity
A

A. Grating lobe

177
Q 
What type of focusing is performed by delay circuitry upon reception?
A. Dynamic receive focusing
B. elevational focusing
C. Transmit focus
D. Multizone transmit
A

A. Dynamic receive focusing

178
Q 
What type of imaging results in selective reception of frequencies that are two times that of the transmitted frequency?
A. Color Doppler imaging
B. Pulsed Doppler imaging
C. Tissue Doppler imaging
D. M-mode imaging
E. Tissue harmonic imaging
A

E. Tissue harmonic imaging

179
Q 
When you select one focal zone, how many pulse/listen cycles are required for each acoustic scan line in one image frame?
a. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Eight
E. Sixteen

Davies Questions 270-450 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions