Pulmonology Flashcards

1
Q

Acute asthma exacerbation basics

A

Initial home management with short-acting bronchodilators followed by addition of systemic steroids (oral) if symptoms persist. Patients with mild to moderate symptoms can be treated outpatient. Severe (hypoxemia, difficulty speaking, use of accessory muscles, reduced peak flow more than 50 percent of baseline) get emergent care. Example is person with 3 day hx of cough, wheezing and SOB with 20% drop in peak flow from baseline (20 is diagnostic). Viral URIs are common triggers. Antibiotics are only indicated in certain patients with COPD too. Inhaled steroids are not indicated in asthma exacerbation acutely. They are for chronic management of persistent asthma. Long acting beta agonists (salmeterol) is only for chronic management, but only in combo with inhaled steroids.

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2
Q

Step up for asthma management

A

Step up if necessary. Step down if possible

Step 1 (intermittent asthma)

  • SABA PRN

Step 2 (now we’re starting with the persistent asthmas)

  • Low dose ICS

Step 3

  • Low dose ICS and LABA
  • OR medium dose ICS

Step 4

  • High dose ICS and LABA

Step 5

  • High dose ICS and LABA
  • AND consider adding omalizumab for patients with allergies

Step 6

  • High dose ICS plus LABA plus oral steroids
  • AND consider adding omalizumab for patients with allergies
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3
Q

Screen for lung cancer

A

Recommended test: CT low dose

Interval: yearly

Age: 55-80

Eligibility

  • Patient has at least 30 pack yr smoking history
  • AND patient is current smoker or quit in last 15 years

Termination of screening

  • age over 80
  • patient quit smoking for at least 15 years
  • patient has other medical conditions that significantly limit life expectancy or ability/willingness to undergo lung cancer surgery

Positive screening test is noncalcified nodule of at least 4mm on CT or any noncalcified nodule on XR. CT does reduce mortality by more than 20%, but there is a 96% false positive rate.

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4
Q

2 most important predictors of survival in severe COPD

A

FEV1 less than 40 (number one)

Age

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5
Q

Astham exacerbation during pregnancy

A

Supplemental O2 - maintain SpO2 over 95 (remember this requirement is only 90 in nonpregnant patients)

Bronchodilators

  • nebulized or inhaled albuterol
  • inhaled ipratropium

Systemic corticosteroids

  • if incomplete response to bronchodilators
  • oral preferred (prednisone)

Additional therapy

  • MgSO4 or terbutaline if severe
  • epinephrine contraindicated
  • intubate for respiratory failure
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6
Q

Blood gas during asthma exacerbation

A

Hyperventilation during asthma exacerbation leads to acute respiratory alkalosis. If you see a respiratory ACIDOSIS in asthma exacerbation (PaCO2 greater than 35 in pregnant peeps and 40 for everyone else) this suggests impending respiratory failure and is an indication for intubation

Note that pregnant patients have chronic respiratory alkalosis (PaCo2 27-32)

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7
Q

ABG shows 7.2pH, paO2 52, paCO2 70 perioperatively in an obese patient with respiratory deterioration

A

Perioperative hypercapnic hypoxic respiratory failure likely due to underlying OSA.

Elevated baseline serum bicarb (more than 27) would indicate compensation for chronic respiratory acidosis which should lead you to think OHS.

Patients with OSA are at increased risk of perioperative respiratory failure from procedures that involve sedation, NM blocker, opioids or anesthesia. When respiratory failure occurs, it is from hypoventilation and typically presents with hypercapnia and hypoxia.

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8
Q

Features of classic Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis

A

History of asthma, CF

XR with infiltrates (often fleeting)

CT with central bronchiectasis

Diagnostic testing shows

  • skin test positive for aspergillus fumigatus
  • eosinophilia more than 500
  • IgE more than 417
  • Specific IgG and IgE for A fumigatus

Clinically, youll see recurrent asthma, fever, lethargy, cough with production of brown mucus plugs (may contain eosinophils and grow aspergillus), occasional hemotpysis, and fleeting infiltrates (transient infiltrates in different parts of the lungs).

Once ABPA dx is confirmed, treat with glucocorticoids and itraconazole

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9
Q

Eosinophilc granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Churrgg-strauss. It’s an autoimmune vasculitis.

Difficult to control asthma. Plus, allergic rhinitis with nasal polyps, chronic sinusitis, mononeuropathy multiplex, and skin stuff (granulomas, palpable purpura)

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10
Q

qSOFA

A

Screening tool in ED for sepsis performed at bedside. 1 point each for:

  • RR above 22
  • AMS
  • SBP at or below 100

Score of 2 and up indicates sepsis.

2 goals of tx for sepsis are IVFs and early antibioitcs. Often broad coverage (Vanc/Cefepime). need to cover for gram positive and negative. Ideally send blood cultures first, but initiation of antibiotics should begin within 1 hr of presentation.

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11
Q

Reccurent pneumonia in an elderly smoker

A

May be the first manifestation of bronchogenic carcinoma.

  • Next best step is CT
  • Best dx tool is bronch with bx

Multiple episodes of bacterial pneumonia that respond to antibiotics, often in the same area of the lung. Think bronchial obstruction. Which could be from a mass. Other ddx:

  • Carcinoid tumor (younger, nonsmoking)
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12
Q

Causes of nonresolving pneumonia or pulm infiltrates

A
  • Broncogenic carcinoma (old, smoker)
  • Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma
  • lymphoma
  • eosinophilc PNA
  • bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP)
  • systemic vasculitis
  • pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
  • drugs (amiodarone)
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13
Q

ARDS cause

A

Its a noncardiogenic pulmonary edema that arises from a systemic disease process like sepsis or pancreatitis or from lung injury like inhalation. It’s diffuse pulmonary edema bilaterally.

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14
Q

Fat emobolism syndrome

A

Potential complication of long bone fracture that can lead to hypoxemia and respiratory distress. Patients will also have altered mental status (neuro stuff) and a petechial rash. CXR with no airspace disease.

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15
Q

Management of pulmonary contusion

A

First off in the case of contusion vs PE (CXR usually shows an irregular focal opacity for contusion, and patient has pain at the site corresponding to specific site of injury/trauma). Also, hypoxemia/respiratory symptoms may be delayed by 24-48h

Management is supportive care (pulm toilet, supplemental O2 as needed) and pain control. Should be monitored in hospital for 24-48h. Most patients have resolution of symptoms in 3-5d

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16
Q

Pediatric OSA

A

Usually from adenotonsillar hypertrophy

  • Night symptoms
    • loud snoring, pauses in breathing, gasping
    • enuresis, parasomnias (sleepwalking, night terrors)
  • Day symptoms
    • inappropriate naps or falling asleep during school
    • irritability, inattention, learning problems, behavior problems
    • Mouth breathing, nasal sleep
  • Complications include
    • poor growth (FTT)
    • poor school performance
    • cardiopulmonary (HTN, structural heart changes)

Management is tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy

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17
Q

Indications for IVC filter placement

A

Complications of anticoagulation

Contraindication to anticoagulation

Failure of anticoagulation in setting of known DVT/PE

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18
Q

What lab should be checked prior to initiating TPN?

A

Serum phosphate

TPN puts patients at high risk for hypophosphatemia and is a prominent manifestation of refeeding syndrome (these patients are at risk of seizure, rhabdo, cardiovascular ocmpromise like arrhythmia and HF).

TPN (specifically the dextrose within it) drives phosphate into cells (via increased insulin) to make ATP. This depletes serum phosphate

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19
Q

Causes of hemoptysis

A

Pulmonary (bronchitis, cancer, bronchiectasis). Acute bronchitis is number 1 cause.

Cardiac (Mitral stenosis/acute pulm edema)

Infection (TB, lung abscess, bacterial PNA, aspergillosis)

Heme (coagulopathy)

Vascular (PE, AVM)

Systemic (granulomatosis with polyangitis, goodpasture)

Other (trauma, cocaine)

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20
Q

When are ABx indicated in a COPD patient?

A

COPD exacerbation with any of the 2 following:

  • Increased sputum purulence
  • increased sputum volume
  • increased dyspnea
  • mechanical ventilation (alone is enough here)
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21
Q

When is inpatient admission needed for COPD?

A

Failed outpatient therapy or have severe symptoms (rapidly worsening dyspnea, worsening hypoxia/hypoxeima, AMS, FEV1 less than 50% predicted)

22
Q

Acute bronchitis

A

Eiology is from preceeding respiratory illness (90% viral)

Presentation

  • cough for more than 5 days to 3 weeks with or without sputum
  • absent systemic findings (fever/chills)
  • wheezing or rhonchi, chest wall tenderness

Dx and tx

  • clinical diagnosis
  • CXR only when PNA suspected
  • Symptomatic treatment (NSAIDs and or bronchodilators)
  • Antibiotics NOT recommended

For chronic brochitis (defined as cough for at least 3 months in 2 consecutive years) is an indication for PFTs

23
Q

postoperative pulmonary complications

A

These include atelectasis, infection, hypoxia, respiratory failure

More likely from thoracic/upper abdominal procedures due to messing with diaphragm

Most at risk are:

  • COPD
  • smoking
  • sleep apnea
  • HF

These must be optimized prior to nonemergent procedures. So treat a COPD/CHF exacerbatin. Make sure there are 4 weeks of smoking cessation too.

24
Q

STOP-Bang survery for OSA

A

1 point each. 0-2 is low risk. 5 or more high.

  • Snoring
  • Tiredness (daytime)
  • Observed apnea or choking/gasping
  • HBP
  • BMI over 35
  • Age over 50
  • Neck size (17 in for men, 16 for women)
  • Gender (male)
25
Q

Pulmonary cachexia syndrome

A

Loss of lean muscl mass associated with chronic lung disease, namely COPD.

BMI less than 20 or weight loss greater than 5% is often used to suggest disorder.

PCS occurs in 20-40% of patients with COPD and leads to impaired balance, increased susceptibility to lung infections, and increased mortality. Usually seen in severe COPD

Increased WOB leads to increased caloric expenditure. Systemic inflammation may lead to catalyzing of muscle. Skeletal muscle hypixia and sometimes steroid use also contribute.

Tx is optimization of lung function, exercise, and nutritional supplementation

26
Q

PFTs for asthma

A

Active symptoms: obstructive pattern with reduced FEV1 and reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Total lung capacity and diffusing capacity for CO should be normal or minimally elevated. Bronchodilator should be administered and should result in significant improvement in FEV1 (more than 15% from baseline)

No active symptoms: Likely normal, but methycholine administration should cause at least 20% reduction in FEV1 (diagnostic of airway hyperresponsiveness)

27
Q

PFTs for COPD

A

obstructive pattern with reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. DLCO is also reduced (dif from asthma) due to emphysematous destruction of the alveolar-pulm capillary membrane

28
Q

Excerise induced bronchoconstriction

A

Can happen with or without existing asthma

Dx is made with bronchoprovocation testing (greater than 10% reduction in FEV1 is positive, 15 is diagnostic). tx is with pre-exercise warmup.

May require SABA 10-20mins prior to exercise. Mast cell stabilizers (cromolyn or nedocromil) can be used if cannot tolerate SABA

If an athlete exercises frequently then daily ICS with SABA as needed.

29
Q

Solidary pulmonary nodules (factors increasing malignant probability)

A
  • large size (below 0.6cm is unlikely to be malignant, anything above .8cm needs additional management/biopsy (5% risk), above 2cm independently correlates with over 50% chance and should be removed). So for intermediate and high risk size get biopsy or excision.
  • advanced patient age
  • female
  • active or previous smoking
  • FHx or personal history of lung cancer
  • upper lobe location
  • spiculared radiographic appearance
30
Q

Rapid sequence intubation

A

Rapidly acting sedative (etomidate, propofol, midazolam) and a paralytic agent (succinylcholine, rocuronium) to facilitate emergent intubation while preventing aspiration.

31
Q

PE on echo

A

RV dysfunction from pHTN. This can lead to tricuspid annulus dilation and functional triscuspid valve regurgitation.

32
Q

ED management of asthma exacerbation

A

Mild to moderate (PeakExpFlow or FEV1 at or greater than 40% of baseline)

  • Inhaled SABA (up to 3 doses in 1 hour)
  • PO steroids (if no response to SABA or history of recent steroid treatment)
  • O2 if SpO2 less than 90

Moderate to severe (PEF or FEV1 less than 40%)

  • Inhaled SABA plus ipratropitum for 1h
  • PO or IV steroids
  • Oxygen if less than 90

Impending or acute respiratory arrest

  • Inhaled SABA and ipratropium
  • IV steroids and MgSO4
  • Oxygen if less than 90
  • intubation/mechanical ventilation (last resort)
  • Then admit to ICU
33
Q

Admission vs discharge in asthma exacerbation

A

Initial management of asthma in ED with periodically assessing treatment response.

Good response: PEF at or above 70% of baseline for over an hour. No distress.

  • Discharge home with SABA, oral steroids, consider inhaled steroids

Incompete response: PEF 40-69% and persistent symptoms.

  • Admit to medicine

Poor response: PEF les than 40 or PCO2 42 or higher. Severe signs/symptoms

  • ICU
34
Q

Postoperative hypoxemia

A

Airway obstruction/edema

  • immediate
  • stridor is common
  • often due to intubation or pharyngeal muscle laxity

Residual anesthetic effect

  • immediate
  • diminished respiratory drive (low RR or TV)

Bronchospasm

  • immediate
  • wheezing

PNA

  • 1-5d
  • fever, leuko,purulent secretions
  • infiltrate on cxr

atelecastis

  • 2-5d
  • thoracoabdominal surgery
  • splinting, reduced cough, retained secretions
35
Q

A-a gradient

A

[(FiO2 x (760-47) - (PaCO2/0.8)] - PaO2

Normal is less than 15 or less than (patient age/4) + 4.

36
Q

Bronciolitis

A

Age less than 2 years. RSV most ocmmon cause

Presents with antecedent nasal congestion/ discharge and cough. Wheezing/crackles and respiratory distress (tachypnea, retractions, nasal flaring)

Tx is supportive care

Complications include apnea and respiratory failure

Prevention: Palivizumab for select infants

  • less than 29w gestation
  • chronic lung disease of prematurity
  • hemodynamically significant congenital heart disease
37
Q

What does parainfluenza cause in kids?

A

Croup (hoarseness, barky cough, inspiratory stridor)

38
Q

Wells Score

A

above 4 is PE likely. Below 4 is PE unlikely.

3 points

  • Clinical signs of DVT
  • Alternate diagnosis less likely than PE

1.5 points

  • Previous PE or DVT
  • HR above 100
  • Recent surgery or immobilization

1 point

  • hemoptysis
  • cancer
39
Q

test of choice for diagnosis of PTX

A

Bedside sono in ICU/ED. Look for inability to detect lung sliding (2 pleural layers moving against each other during respiration)

In nonacute setting test of choice is upright PA CXR

40
Q

chronic cough in a child. next test

A

Chronic cough (more than 4 weeks in kids) without specific historical or exam findings needs spirometry first to identify underlying asthma

41
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

Recessive mutation in CFTR gene (F508)

Clinical

  • recurrent sinopulmonary infections
  • intestinal obstruction (meconium ileus)
  • pancreatic Insufficiency and diabetes
  • male infertility

Dx

  • elevated sweat Cl.
  • CFTR mutation on genetic testing
  • abnormal nasal potential difference

Management

  • nutritional support
  • airway clearance
  • antibiotic coverage (staph aureus, pseudomonas)
42
Q

most reliable indicator for proper ETT placement

A

Capnography (quantitative waveform or colorimetric analysis). used to measure CO2 in exhaled breath

43
Q

common complication of RSV bronchiolitis

A

chronic wheezing (30% of cases). Avoid triggers, esp cigarette smoke

44
Q

periodic breathing vs apnea of prematurity

A

Periodic breathing: benign. Recurrent central apnea due to immaturity of CNS in infants up to 6 months of age. Look for pauses of 5-10s followed by rapid, shallow breaths. Regular breathing rhythm resumes without intervention

Apnea of prematurity: True apnea and pauses in breathing lasting at least 20s. Typically resolves by a corrected gestational age of 37 weeks (so if baby born at 36 weeks, it will be at 1 w old.

Note, seizure will come with abnormal limb/eye movement, altered consciousness, and cyanosis

45
Q

Treatment of PEA or asystole

A

Prompt uninterrupted CPR with epinephrine every 3-5 minutes and early identification and treatment of reversible causes (5Hs and 5Ts).

Do not use atropine or pacing for PEA/asystole

46
Q

Extubation failure

A

Symptoms of impending respiratory failure

  • pH less than 7.35 and PaCO2 greater than 45
  • clinical signs of respiratory failure
  • RR greater than 25 for 2 hours
  • Hypoxemia

Risk factors for extubation failure

  • weak cough
  • frequent suctioning
  • poor mental status
  • positive fluid balance 24h prior to attempt
  • PNA as initial cause of respiratory failure
  • age over 65
  • comorbid conditions
47
Q

laryngeal edema

A

common after extubation. Presents with post-extubation stridor and respiratory failure. Approx 5% need re-intubation

Risk factors are female, small trachea, large ETT, prolonged intubation

Administration of steroid regimen prior to extubation may help prevent.

48
Q

Transient tachypnea of the newborn

A

Related to retained fetal lung fluid

Risk factors: C-section, prematurity, maternal DM

Clinical: tachypnea, increased WOB, clear breath sounds, CXR with hyperinflation and fluid in fissures. Can see cyanosis.

Management: supportive care (o2, nutrition). It’s self limted and resolves in 1-3 days without long term effects.

49
Q

Recurrent pneumonia

A

Aspiration (seizures, dysphagia, alcohol intox): Look for RML/RLL, dysphagia/dysarthria, and AMS

  • anaerobes
  • polymicrobial

Chronic lung disease (bronchitis, emphysema, asthma, bronchiectasis). Look for smoking history, chronic cough, chronic dyspnea

  • strep pneumo
  • h flu
  • moraxella
  • pseudomonas (esp bronchiectasis)
  • viral

Immunodeficiency (HIV, Primary immune def, hypogammaglobulinemia, hematologic malignancy).

  • strep pneumo
  • h flu
  • pneumocystis
  • atypical organisms

Post-obstructive: look for hemoptysis, weight loss/cachexia, pneumonia in same location each time

  • polymicrobial

TB: Look for upper lobes/apical, recent immigrant, institutionalized patient, homeless/lower socioeconomic status

50
Q

Managing brain dead organ donor

A

Euvolemia

Normotension

Normothermia

Patients often receive desmopressin (central DI), IV fluids, and pressor support.

51
Q

TB pleural effusion

A

lymphocyte-predominant exudative effusion. Although malignancy may give a similar finding, elevated adenosine deaminase level strongly suggests TB.

Pleural bx is needed for dx (effusion is due to hypersensitivyt to TB or its antigens and smear is usually negative). For empyema smear would be positive, but for an effusion. You need the biopsy.

52
Q

what is the major cause of hypoxemia in COPD?

A

V/Q mismatch. Worsened during exacerbation. O2 improves oxygen exchange in lung regions with low V/Q ratio.