Pulmonology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the difference between obstructive and restrictive pulmonary disease on pulmonary function testing.

A

In COPD, the functional expiratory volume in one second divided by the total forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) is less than normal (normal is 0.75-0.80). In restrictive lung disease, FEV1/FVC is often normal. FEV1 may be equal in both conditions, but the ratio of FEV1/FVC is always different.

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2
Q

What causes emphysema?

A

Almost always due to smoking (even second-hand smoke). If you have a young person with minimal smoke exposure (fewer than 5 years), then think of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency.

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3
Q

How do you recognize and treat asthma?

A

Watch for chronic wheezing in โ€œallergicโ€ children with a family history of asthma or allergies. In the acute setting, treat with beta2-agonists. Use steroids if the attack is severe or does not respond. Inhaled glucocorticoids, long-acting beta-agonists, leukotriene modifiers (zafirlukast, zileuton), and cromolyn are prophylactic agents and are not used for acute attacks. Phosphdiesterase inhibitors (theophylline, aminophylline) are older agents that are now infrequently used. Do NOT prescribe beta blockers for asthmatics or patients with COPD; they block beta2 receptors needed to open the airways.

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4
Q

What is a common cause of wheezing in children under age 2 years?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus infection, which classically occurs in the winter and causes a fever. Asthma also may be the cause but usually is associated with a chronic history.

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5
Q

What should you think if a patient with acute asthma stops hyperventilating or has a normal CO2 level?

A

Beware the asthmatic who is no longer hyperventilating or whose CO2 is normal or rising. The patient should be hyperventilating, which causes low CO2. If the patient seems calm or sleepy, do NOT assume that he or she is ok. Such patients are probably crashing; they need an immediate ABG analysis and possible intubation. Fatigue alone is sufficient reason to intubate. Remember also that any patient with COPD may normally live with a higher CO2 and lower O2 level. Treat the patient, not the lab value. If the patient is asymptomatic and talking to you, the lab value should not cause panic.

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6
Q

When should you intubate?

A

As a rough rule of thumb, think about intubation in any patient whose CO2 is more than 50 mmHg or whose O2 is less than 50 mmHg, especially if the pH in either situation is less than 7.30 while the patient is breathing room air. Usually, unless the patient is crashing rapidly, a trial of oxygen by nasal cannula or face mask is given first. If it does not work or if the patient becomes too tired (use of accessory muscles is a good clue), intubate.

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7
Q

What should you do if a patient has a solitary pulmonary nodule on chest radiograph?

A

Compare the current film with old films (if available). If the lesion has not changes in more than 2-3 years, it is very likely to be benign. A nodule that increased in size on serial imaging should be biopsied or excised. CT scans are used to evaluate and follow a solitary nodule. PET scan can be used to evaluate nodules with intermediate probability of being malignant.

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8
Q

Solitary pulmonary nodule. What should this classic clue make you think of: immigrant?

A

TB, do a skin test.

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9
Q

Solitary pulmonary nodule. What should this classic clue make you think of: SW United States exposure?

A

Coccidioides immitis

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10
Q

Solitary pulmonary nodule. What should this classic clue make you think of: cave explorer, exposure to bird droppings, or Ohio/Mississippi River valleys (Midwest)?

A

Histoplasmosis

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11
Q

Solitary pulmonary nodule. What should this classic clue make you think of: smoker over the age of 50?

A

Lung cancer, order bronchoscopy and biopsy

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12
Q

Solitary pulmonary nodule. What should this classic clue make you think of: under age 40 with no other risk factors?

A

Hamartoma

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13
Q

What should you know about pulmonary function in the setting of surgery?

A

Best indicator of possible postoperative pulmonary complications is preoperative pulmonary function. Best way to reduce pulmonary complications postoperatively is to stop smoking, especially if it is stopped at least 8 weeks prior to surgery. Aggressive pulmonary toilet, incentive spirometry, minimal narcotics, and early ambulation help to prevent or minimize postoperative pulmonary complications. Lastly, remember that the most common cause of a postoperative fever in the first 24 hrs is atelectasis.

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14
Q

How do you recognize and treat adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

A

Results from acute lung injury and causes noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, respiratory distress, and hypoxemia. Common causes are sepsis, major trauma, pancreatitis, shock, near-drowning, and drug overdose. Look for it to develop within 24-48 hrs of the initial insult. Class patient has mottled/cyanotic skin, intercostal retractions, rales or rhonchi, and no improvement of hypoxia with O2 administration. Radiographs show pulmonary edema with normal cardiac silhouette. Treat with intubation, mechanical ventilation with high percentage oxygen, and positive end-expiratory pressure, while addressing the underlying cause.

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15
Q

How is pneumonia diagnosed?

A

Usually based on clinical findings (rales or rhonchi, fever) plus elevated WBC and abnormal CXR consistent with pneumonia. Sputum and/or blood cultures usually are obtained before empiric antibiotics therapy is begun.

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16
Q

What is the difference between typical and atypical pneumonia?

A

Typical pneumonia is usually caused by bacteria such as Strep. pneumo or Staph. aureus, the most common causes. Atypical pneumonia may be caused by influenza virus, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia spp., Legionella, Haemophilus, or adenovirus.

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17
Q

Describe the classic findings, bugs, and treatment for typical pneumonia.

A

Short prodrome (102 F), age >40 years old
CXR with one distinct love involved
Usually 2/2 Strep. pneumoniae
Treat with ceftriaxone, broad-spectrum

18
Q

Describe the classic findings, bugs, and treatment for atypical pneumonia.

A

Long prodrome (>3 days with HA, malaise, body aches), low fever (<40 years old
CXR with diffuse or multilobe involvement
Many different causes including Haemophilus, Mycoplasma, and Chlamydia spp.
Treat with macrolides (e.g. azithromycin), doxycycline, or fluoroquinolone (e.g. levofloxacin)

19
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: college student?

A

Mycoplasma spp. (look for cold agglutinins) or Chlamydia spp.

20
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: alcoholic?

A

Klebsiella (โ€œcurrant jellyโ€ sputum), Staph. aureus, other enteric bugs (aspiration)

21
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: cystic fibrosis?

A

Pseudomonas spp. or Staph. aureus

22
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: immigrant?

A

TB

23
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: COPD?

A

Haemophilus influenzae or Moraxella spp.

24
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: known TB with pulmonary cavitation?

A

Aspergillus spp.

25
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: silicosis (metal, granite, pottery workers)?

A

TB

26
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: exposure to air conditioner or aerosolized water?

A

Legionella spp.

27
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: HIV/AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis carinii or CMV (if you are shown koilocytosis)

28
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: exposure to bird droppings?

A

Chlamydia psittaci or histoplasmosis

29
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: child less than 1 year old?

A

RSV

30
Q

Pneumonia. What is the causative bug based on the following classic clue: child 2 to 5 years old?

A

Parainfluenza (croup)

31
Q

What should you suspect if a child has recurrent pneumonias?

A

If always in the same spot (esp. R middle or R lower lobe), most likely 2/2 foreign body aspiration. Should be considered esp. if no other signs of immunodeficiency (e.g. other infections, symptoms of CF) are present.

32
Q

What is โ€œroundโ€ pneumonia?

A

Appears round, causing it to simulate a mass. In such cases involving children, assume pneumonia and treat appropriately. Follow-up CXR can be obtained to confirm resolution. In an adult, round pneumonia should be viewed with suspicion and further work-up with CT is typically needed.

33
Q

Why should you get a follow-up CXR in all people over age 40 who develop pneumonia?

A

To make sure it clears after appropriate antibiotic treatment. If it does not clear by 4-6 weeks, suspect something other than bacterial pneumonia. The classic culprit is malignancy, specifically bronchoalveolar CA, which is a subtype of adenocarinoma. In addition, recurrent pneumonias in the same location in an adult may be 2/2 an endobronchial mass, whether benign or malignant.

34
Q

What should you know about infant respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Due to atelectasis from a deficiency of surfactant; it is seen almost exclusively in premature infants and infants of diabetic mothers. Look for rapid, labored respirations, substernal retractions, cyanosis, grunting, and/or nasal flaring. ABG shows hypoxemia and hypercarbia; CXR shows diffuse atelectasis (diffuse, granular infiltrates). Treat with oxygen, give surfactant, and intubate if necessary. Complications include intraventricular hemorrhage and pneumothorax or bronchopulmonary dysplasia (2/2 acute or chronic mechanical ventilation).

35
Q

What prenatal tests help to determine whether respiratory distress syndrome will occur?

A

Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio greater than 2:1 or the presence of phosphatidylglycerol in the amniotic fluid indicates fetal lung maturity and a low likelihood of infant respiratory distress syndrome. The fluorescence polarization test reflects the ratio of surfactant to albumin in amniotic fluid, and is a direct measurement of surfactant concentration. An elevated ratio indicates fetal lung maturity.

36
Q

Define diaphragmatic hernia. How is it recognized clinically?

A

Defect in diaphragm allows bowel to herniate into the chest. Herniated bowel pushed on the developing lung and causes lung hypoplasia on the affected side. Look for scaphoid abdomen and bowel sounds in the chest. Herniated bowel can be seen on CXR. 90% are left-sided.

37
Q

How do you recognize and diagnosed a tracheoesophageal fistula? How is it treated?

A

Most common type (85%) is an esophagus with a blind pouch proximally and a fistula between a bronchus/carina and the distal esophagus. Look for a neonate with excessive oral secretions, coughing or cyanosis with attempted feedings, abdominal distention, and aspiration pneumonia. Diagnosis is made by inability to pass NG tube. Treatment is surgical correction.

38
Q

What is the most common lethal genetic disease in Caucasians? How do you recognize it?

A

Cystic fibrosis (AR disease). Always suspect this in pediatric patients with rectal prolapse, meconium ileus, esophageal varices, or recurrent pulmonary infections or failure to thrive. Classic complaint from the mother is a โ€œsalty-tastingโ€ baby. Patients also commonly have pancreatic insufficiency and infertility (98% of affected males and 50% of females); may also develop cor pulmonale (R-sided heart failure).

39
Q

How is cystic fibrosis diagnosed and treated?

A

Abnormal increase in electrolytes of sweat (Na and Cl) and/or DNA testing. Treat with chest physical therapy, annual influenza vaccine, fat-soluble vitamin supplements, pancreatic enzyme replacement, bronchodilators, dornase alfa, and agressive tx of infections with antibiotics that cover Staph., H. influenzae, and Pseudomonas spp.

40
Q

What should you do if a patient has a pleural effusion?

A

Consider thoracocentesis to examine the fluid in an attempt to determine its etiology. Common tests ordered on pleural fluid include Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity testing (including TB culture), cell count with differential, glucose (low with infection), protein (high in infection), cytology (to look for malignancy), amylase (if pancreatitis is suspected as the cause), triglycerides (if chylous effusion is suspected), albumin, and lactate dehydrogenase.