Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Emergency Medicine > Pulmonary Emergencies 2 > Flashcards

Pulmonary Emergencies 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Acute pulmonary edema: presentation

10

A
  1. Dyspnea
  2. Frothy pink sputum
  3. Pedal edema
  4. Ascites
  5. Rales
  6. Wheezing
  7. Hypertension
  8. Hypoxemia
  9. Restlessness
  10. Tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acute pulmonary edema

etiology? 3

A
  1. From cardiogenic and noncardiogenic sources
  2. From sudden increase in left sided intracardiac filling pressures
  3. OR increased alveolar capillary membrane permeability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Acute cases? 5

A
  1. Ischemia
  2. Acute severe mitral regurgitation
  3. Acute aortic regurgitation
  4. Hypertensive crisis secondary to bilateral renal artery stenosis
  5. Stress induced cardiomyopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Chronic causes? 4

A
  1. Decompensated systolic CHF
  2. Decompensated diastolic CHF
  3. LVOT (left ventricular outflow tract) obstruction
  4. Valvular heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

  1. MAJOR CAUSE?
  2. Other causes? 7
A
  1. Major cause is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
    • Altitude
    • Neurogenic
    • Narcotic overdose
    • Pulmonary embolism
    • Eclampsia
    • Transfusion related injury
    • Salicylate overdose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Etiology of ARDS

10

A
  1. Sepsis
  2. Acute pulmonary infection
  3. Trauma
  4. Inhaled toxins
  5. DIC
  6. Shock lung
  7. Freebase cocaine smoking
  8. Post CABG
  9. Inhalation of high concentrations of O2
  10. Acute radiation pneumonitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Acute pulmonary edema: treatment
Cardiogenic
O2 plus:? 4

Noncardiogenic
O2 plus:? 3

A
  1. Treat underlying cause
  2. Ischemia – Rx: nitrates, morphine, diuretics
  3. Valvular disease – diuretics
  4. Treat arrhythmias – ACLS protocol and diuretics
  5. Treat underlying cause
  6. If ARDS likely will need intubation and mechanical ventilation with PEEP (positive end expiratory pressure)
  7. Diuretics may be somewhat helpful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acute pulmonary edema: treatment

4

A
  1. Assess the airway and the stability of the patient
    Do they need to be intubated right away or can they be watched closely while diuretics are given?
  2. Furosemide (Lasix) 40-80 mg IV….only if hemodynamically stable
  3. Supplemental O2
  4. Then target treatment tailored to the underlying cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aspiration:
1. Massive aspiration requires immediate what?

  1. Once intubated can then do what?
  2. Treat underlying cause such as? 2
A
  1. protection of the airway from further injury by intubation
  2. lavage and suction the lower airway
    • Prolonged BVM during CPR
    • Neurologic compromise secondary to stroke, SAH, head injuries etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Asthma: pathophysiology?

A

INFLAMMATION of the airways with an abnormal accumulation of eosinophils, lymphocytes, mast cells, macrophages, dendritic cells and myofibroblasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Asthma: pathophysiology:

Reduction in airway diameter caused by what? 4

A
  1. smooth muscle contraction,
  2. vascular congestion,
  3. bronchial wall edema, and
  4. thick secretions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Acute asthma: assessment

  1. Beware of? 7
  2. Impending respiratory failure? 4
A
  1. Beware of :
    - use of accessory muscles of respiration,
    - fragmented speech,
    - orthopnea,
    - diaphoresis,
    - agitation,
    - low blood pressure (consider anaphylaxis),
    - severe symptoms that fail to improve with initial treatment
  2. Impending respiratory failure:
    - inability to maintain respiratory effort and rate,
    - cyanosis,
    - depressed mental status,
    - severe hypoxemia (SpO2 ≤ 95% despite high flow O2 by nonrebreather)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acute asthma: assessment

6

A
  1. Measure peak flow if able
  2. Supplemental O2
  3. ABGs are generally not useful initially
  4. CXR generally not useful initially
  5. Establish IV access
  6. Frequent reassessment to determine if intubation and mechanical ventilation is needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acute asthma: peak flow

  1. Helps give an objective measurement as to the what?
  2. Peak flow less then ____ % of predicted = severe
  3. Measure before and after each what?
A
  1. severity of airflow obstruction
  2. 40
  3. nebulizer or MDI treatment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acute asthma: medical therapy

A
  1. Albuterol (inhaled beta 2 agonist)
  2. Ipratropium bromide (atrovent) (anticholinergic)
    - Give with the albuterol (Duoneb)
  3. Methylprednisolone (Solu Medrol)
  4. Magnesium sulfate
  5. Epinephrine
  6. Terbutaline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What do the following do for acute asthma:

  1. Albuterol (inhaled beta 2 agonist)?
  2. Ipratropium bromide (atrovent) (anticholinergic)?
    - Give with the albuterol (Duoneb)
  3. Methylprednisolone (Solu Medrol)?
  4. Magnesium sulfate?
  5. Epinephrine?
  6. Terbutaline?
A
  1. Bronchodilator
  2. Bronchodilator
  3. Glucocorticoid. Decreases airway inflammation
  4. For life threatening exacerbations that remain severe after 1 h of intense bronchodilator therapy
  5. For suspected anaphylactic reaction or unable to use inhaled bronchodilators
  6. For severe asthma unresponsive to standard therapies
17
Q

COPD exacerbation
1. Most often precipitated by what?

  1. Increase or change in character of usual symptoms of what? 2
  2. DDx? 4
A
  1. a viral or bacterial infection
    • dyspnea,
    • cough or sputum production.
    • CHF,
    • PE,
    • pneumonia,
    • pneumothorax
18
Q

COPD exacerbation: work up

5

A
  1. O2 sats
  2. ABG in severe exacerbations
  3. CXR to assess for signs of pneumonia, acute heart failure, pneumothorax
  4. Labs
  5. EKG
19
Q

COPD exacerbation: work up

LABS? 3

A
  1. CBC,
  2. BMP,
  3. BNP (B-type Natriuretic Peptide) +/-
20
Q

COPD exacerbation: Pharmacotherapy

4

A
  1. Supplemental O2 to maintain sats ≥ 90%.
  2. Solumedrol (methylprednisolone) 60mg IV
  3. Antibiotics to treat a respiratory source of infection and to include pseudomonas coverage
    - Ex: Levaquin 750mg IV
  4. Inhaled bronchodilators
    - Albuterol 2.5mg AND Atrovent 0.05 mg via nebulizer (Duoneb)
21
Q

COPD exacerbation: Treatment
1. Consider hospital admission if? 4

  1. If impending respiratory failure?
A
  1. Consider hospital admission if
    - Symptoms are severe enough to prevent the patient from doing basic functions like sleeping, preparing meals or walking to the bathroom
    - Failure to respond to initial therapy
    - High risk comorbidities like pneumonia, CHF, arrhythmia, liver failure, kidney failure or DM
    - Worsening hypoxemia
  2. If impending respiratory failure:
    - Intubation vs. NIPPV
22
Q

Pulmonary embolism

  1. What is it?
  2. Severity?
  3. Forms? 2
A
  1. Obstruction of the pulmonary artery or branches with clot, tumor, air or fat
  2. Common and often fatal disease
  3. Can be acute or chronic
23
Q

Pulmonary embolism: Signs and Symptoms

11

A
  1. Dyspnea
  2. Tachypnea
  3. Cough
  4. Hemoptysis
  5. Syncope
  6. Lower extremity edema
  7. Cyanosis
  8. Diaphoresis
  9. Hypotension
  10. May have rales on exam
  11. Lower extremity pain or erythema
24
Q

Pulmonary embolism: Risk factors

12

A
  1. Pregnancy
  2. Obesity
  3. Prolonged immobilization
  4. Hormones: BCP’s, HRT, SERMs
  5. Cancer
  6. Trauma
  7. Recent joint replacement surgery
  8. History of DVT
  9. Autoimmune disease
  10. HTN
  11. Smoking
  12. CHF
25
Q

Pulmonary embolism: work up

8

A
  1. CTA of the chest with PE protocol
  2. CXR
  3. EKG
  4. Echo +/-
  5. V/Q scan?
  6. D-Dimer?
  7. Doppler US of the LE
  8. Pulmonary angiogram is the OLD “gold standard”
26
Q

Pulmonary embolism: Radiographic findings

3

A
  1. Hampton’s Hump
  2. CT with pulmonary infarction
  3. PE: Saddle embolism
27
Q

EKG findings: PE? 3

A
  1. S waves in lead II
  2. Q waves in lead III
  3. Inverted T waves in lead III
28
Q

Acute PE: Treatment/stabilize? 3

A
  1. Supplemental O2
    If hypotension
  2. Fluid bolus of 500 to 1000 ml NS
  3. Vasopressors
29
Q

Vasopressors used to stabilize Acute PE? 4

A
  1. Norepinephrine,
  2. Dopamine,
  3. epinephrine,
  4. dobutamine + norepinephrine
30
Q

Acute PE: treatment for anticoagulation
1. Unfractionated Heparin (UFH) use in who?

  1. Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) Prefered over UFH. Which drugs are these? 2
  2. Fondaparinux? Which drug? Give to which pts?
A
  1. use in unstable patients in case you need to stop anticoagulation and trial thrombolytics
    • Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
    • Dalteparin (Fragmin)
  3. Arixtra
    - Give if patient has a history of allergy to Heparin or history of heparin induced thrombocytopenia…HITT
31
Q

Acute PE: treatment
1. A vitamin K agonist such as warfarin should be started when?

  1. Continue with Lovenox until INR is ___?
  2. When to use thrombolytics?
A
  1. on the same day as anticoagulant therapy
  2. 2.0
    • Patients with acute PE associated with hypotension needing vasopressor support or o/w hemodynamically unstable (“massive PE”) who do not have a high bleeding risk
32
Q

Pneumonia: signs & symptoms

12

A
  1. Cough
  2. Fever
  3. Chills
  4. Pleuritic chest pain
  5. Dyspnea
  6. Sputum production
  7. Mental status changes
  8. GI symptoms (N/V/D)
  9. Tachypnea
  10. Tachycardia
  11. Hypoxia
  12. Rales, rhonchi or decreased in area of consolidation
33
Q

Pneumonia: work up

5

A
  1. PA and lateral CXR
  2. CBC, CMP
  3. Blood cultures*
  4. Sputum for gram stain and culture*
  5. Pneumococcal and Legionella urine antibody tests*
34
Q

Pneumonia:

Indications for admission can be based on a wide variety of objective data? 5

A
  1. SpO2 less than 92%,
  2. Febrile less than 35 C or > 40C
  3. RR >/= 30,
  4. tachycardia >/= 125,
  5. low SBP less than 90 mmHg
35
Q

Pneumonia: treatment

7

A
  1. Supplemental O2
  2. Intubation or NiPPV if impending respiratory failure
  3. Antibiotics to target the most likely pathogen
  4. Fluids for dehydration or hypotension
  5. Antipyretics
  6. Albuterol nebulizer treatments +/-
  7. Incentive spirometry
36
Q

Pneumonia: pathogens
1. Most likely pathogen is ?

  1. Patients requiring hospital admission (non-ICU)… Common pathogens besides S. pneumoniae? 5
A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. Patients requiring hospital
    admission (non-ICU)… Common pathogens besides S. pneumoniae:
    - respiratory viruses (influenza, respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza)
    - M. pneumoniae
    - H. influenza
    - C. pneumoniae
    - Legionella
37
Q

Pneumonia: Abx (non-ICU)

3

A
  1. Respiratory fluroroquinolone (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin) ex: Levaquin (levoflaxacin) 750mg IV or PO qd
    OR
  2. Antipneumococcal beta-lactam (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, or ampicillin-sulbactam) ex: Rocephin (ceftriaxone) 1g IV qd
    PLUS
  3. Macrolide (azithromycin, clarithromycin, or erythromycin) ex: Zithromax (azithromycin) 500mg PO or IV qd
38
Q

Pneumonia: Pathogens
Hospitalized patients requiring ICU?
5

A
  1. S. pneumoniae,
  2. Legionella,
  3. gram-negative bacilli,
  4. Staphylococcus aureus and
  5. consider MRSA
39
Q

Pneumonia: Abx (ICU)

Last slide! 3

A
  1. Antipneumococcal beta-lactam (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, or ampicillin-sulbactam) PLUS azithromycin
    OR
  2. Antipneumococcal beta-lactam (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, or ampicillin-sulbactam) PLUS a respiratory fluoroquinolone (moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin, or levofloxacin)
    OR
  3. For penicillin allergy: Respiratory fluoroquinolone PLUS aztreonam

Emergency Medicine (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions