Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Pulmonary Drugs > Flashcards

Pulmonary Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Albuterol is a

A

short acting beta 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

inhalation of this product leads to relaxation of bronchial and tracheal smooth muscles in management of acute bronchospasm in asthma and other Chronic obstructive airway diseases

A

albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Albuterol indications

A

management of acute bronchospasm in asthma and other chronic obstructive airway diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what part of the anatomic structures of the respiratory system do these drugs target

A

the bronchial tree - the conducting zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The conducting zone of the bronchial tree contain

A

sympathetic innervation
parasympathetic innervation
mucus secreting goblet and ciliated cells that remove inhaled products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MOA albuterol

A

activates adenylate cyclase – increasing cAMP –
less intracellular Ca2+ – leading to dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Relaxation of the bronchial and tracheal smooth muscle leads to

A

relieves bronchospasm
reduces airway resistance
facilitates mucous drainage
increases vital capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SE of albuterol

A

tachycardia (most common)
hyperglycemia (not a contraindication in DM)
hypokalemia (low potassium)
tremor (common)
paradoxical bronchospasm (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alternatives to albuterol

A

metaproterenol (inhaled and tablet)
levalbuterol (deemed inferior to albuterol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Leukotriene modifiers are

A

montelukast
zafirlukast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Leukotriene modifiers job is to

A

reduces edema, decrease mucous production, bronchoconstriction, allergic rxns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Indications for Leukotriene modifiers

A

asthma
allergic rhinitis
exercise-induced bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contraindications for Leukotriene modifiers

A

phenylketonuria
hepatic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

daily drug to prevent sx of acute asthma

A

Leukotriene modifiers (montelukast, zafirlukast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

chronic urticaria can also be used by this acute asthma daily preventative

A

montelukast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Leukotriene modifiers are thought to be _______ effective than inhaled glucocorticoids for management of persistent asthma

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5-lipoxygenase inhibits

A

formation of leukotrienes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Example of a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor

A

Zileuton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Common adverse affect of 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor

A

elevated of liver enzymes and interferes with CYP metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Methylxanthines indications

A

oral and IV treatment of asthma, bronchospasm and COPD (rarely)
also infant apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MOA of Methylxanthines

A

structurally similar to caffeine
relaxes smooth muscle and anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Methylxanthines name

A

Theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Theophylline MOA

A

is a competitive nonselective phosphodiesterase inhibitor which raises intracellular cAMP – activates PKA – inhibits TNF-alpha – inhibits leukotriene synthesis – reducing intracellular Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Aminophylline is _____ and _____ acting than Theophylline

A

less potent
shorter acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Theophylline has a _______

A

narrow therapeutic window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Theophylline can increase risk of _____ if over that therapeutic window

A

seizures and arrhythmias
other GI upset
many drug-drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Theophylline monitoring with

A

PFTs
LFTs
serum theophylline concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids indications

A

acute and/or persistent asthma (mild-severe), COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MOA inhaled corticosteroids

A

suppress inflammation and immune responses and reduce edema and secretions by:
controls rate of protein synthesis
depresses the migration of polymorphonuclear leukocytes and fibroblasts
reverse capillary permeability and lysosomal stabilization at the cellular level to prevent or control inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

SE of inhaled corticosteriods

A

cough
thrush, hoarseness, cataracts
growth suppression
reduction in bone density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids include

A

budesonide
beclomethasone
fluticasone
mometasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

intranasal forms are not a treatment for

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

oral corticosteroids include

A

methylprednisolone
prednisone
prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Long-acting beta agonists (LABA) are used in

A

maintenance of asthma and prevention of asthma attacks, exercise-induced bronchoconstriction prevention and COPD maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

LABA’s are not used in

A

acute asthma attacks or acute COPD attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

LABA can not be used as monotherapy in

A

asthma treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

LABA can be used in monotherapy in

A

COPD management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

difference of LABA and SABA

A

LABA lasts approximately 12 hours
SABA lasts 4-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

LABA names

A

salmeterol
formoterol (in combination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Formoterol is ______ than Salmeterol

A

more potent and faster acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Combination inhalers LABA/ICS include

A

salmeterol/ fluticasone (ADVAIR)
formoterol/budesonide (SYMBICORT)
formoterol/mometasone (DULERA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Combination inhalers SABA/anticholinergic include

A

Combivent (albuterol/ipratropium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mast cell stabilizers/ Modulators are medications that

A

are used to prevent or control certain allergic disorders
block mast cell degranulation, stabilizing the cell and thereby preventing the release of histamines and related mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mast cell stabilizers/ Modulators include

A

Cromolyn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cromolyn is

A

a mast cell stabilizer

46
Q

Omalizumab is used

A

to control severe allergic forms of asthma that are steroid resistant

47
Q

SE of Omalizumab is

A

anaphylaxis, inscrease stroke and MI risks by 60%

48
Q

MOA of Omalizumab

A

monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to free IgE in the blood and interstitial fluid and membrane bound form of IgE on the surface of mlgE-expressing B lymphocytes

49
Q

COPD is a _____ disease

A

progressive, irreversible

50
Q

Ipratropium indication

A

management of COPD, specifically to block cholinergic mediated bronchospasm and mucus production

51
Q

COPD is associated with a decrease in ____

A

FEV1

52
Q

MOA ipratropium

A

antimuscarinic activity on the bronchial smooth muscle that results in decreased contractility of smooth muscle

53
Q

Toxic effects of ipratropium

A

local and systemic anticholinergic effects
xerostomia
urinary retention
(overall well tolerated)

54
Q

A ‘long acting’ antimuscarinic medication is

A

Tiotropium

55
Q

Tiotropium is a ______ alternative to ______ with the same indications

A

costly
ipratropium

56
Q

Gold 1 - mild COPD = FEV1 of

A

greater than or equal to 80%

57
Q

Gold 2 - moderate COPD = FEV1 of

A

50% - 79%

58
Q

Gold 3 - severe COPD = FEV1 of

A

30% - 49%

59
Q

Gold 4 - very severe COPD = FEV1

A

less than 30%

60
Q

During COPD exacerbation we usually give (name of SAMA)

A

Ipratropium (inhaled, neb)

61
Q

Daily LAMA for COPD management

A

Tiotropium

62
Q

SAMA and LAMA can be used in

A

COPD and severe persistent asthma

63
Q

Antitussives (suppress cough)

A

Centrally acting - dextromethorphan and opiates (codeine, hydrocodone)
Locally acting - benzonatate

64
Q

MOA dextromethorphan (DM)

A

crosses the BBB and activates the sigma opioid receptors on the cough center in the medulla – suppressing the cough reflex

65
Q

Dextromethorphan indications

A

short term relief of cough

66
Q

Dextromethorphan does not affect

A

ciliary activity (Bronchial tree)

67
Q

Dextromethorphan adverse reactions

A

mild and infrequent dizziness and drowsiness
high doses can cause hallucinogenic states

68
Q

Dextromethorphan contraindications

A

avoid in chronic cough, hepatic disease, operating machinery

69
Q

Codeine MOA

A

suppress the cough reflex centrally, dries bronchial secretions
often co-administered with guaifenesin

70
Q

Codeine indications

A

short term relief of cough

71
Q

Codeine interactions

A

converts to morphine in the liver via CYP450
other use of opiates with this can lead to sedation and resp depression

72
Q

Codeine contraindications

A

resp depression, head injury, seizures, hepatic failure

73
Q

Codeine adverse reactions

A

tolerance
resp depression
sedation
N/V
potential for abuse
pruritus

74
Q

Benzonatate MOA

A

anesthetizes the stretch receptors of vagal afferent fibers in the lungs, reducing the urge to cough after deep inhalation

75
Q

Benzonatate interactions

A

can be additive to other local anestetics

76
Q

Benzonatate indications

A

mostly for relief of chronic cough
sometimes used for acute cough

77
Q

Benzonatate adverse reactions

A

well tolerated - GI upset, local anesthesia from chewing
overdose - cardiac arrhythmia, seizure, bronchospasm

78
Q

Benzonatate contraindications

A

avoid in allergy to ester anesthetics

79
Q

Guaifenesin (expectorant) MOA

A

Loosens secretions to allow for more productive cough
increases volume and reduces viscosity of phlegm in trachea/ bronchi - cilia can then more easily propel/ mobilize secretions upwards

80
Q

Guaifenesin indications

A

Treatment of acute cough

81
Q

Guaifenesin contraindications

A

should not be used for chronic cough
avoid in pediatrics - can lead to seizures

82
Q

Guaifenesin adverse reactions

A

excessive can result in nephrolithiasis

83
Q

Histamine MOA

A

Produced by mast cells and basophils
Released by an immunologic trigger or following a mechanical or chemical stimulus

84
Q

Histamine 4 different receptors

A

H1 - smooth muscle cells, endothelium and brain
H2 - gastric mucosa mast cells, immune cells and brain

85
Q

Histamine general effects

A

local vasodilation
transudation of fluid through endothelial cells
stimulates nerve endings, producing pain and itching

86
Q

Histamine organ specific effects

A

lung - bronchoconstriction
GI tract - contraction of smooth muscle, potent secretagogue for gastric acid secretion, pepsin, and intrinsic factor
brain - neurotransmitter

87
Q

Antihistamines first generation includes

A

Diphenhydramine and hydroxyzine

88
Q

Avoid first generation antihistamines in

A

elderly; may cause delirium, dizziness, urinary retention

89
Q

first generation antihistamines act ______ and are ______

A

quick
sedating

90
Q

Hydroxyzine can be used as an

A

anxiolytic agent

91
Q

Second generation antihistamines include

A

Cetirizine, loratadine, fexofenadine

92
Q

Second generation are _____ hour _____ formulation

A

24hr
non-drowsy

93
Q

Second generation antihistamine - certrizine

A

crosses the BBB a little
little drowsiness but better for itching, hives

94
Q

Decongestants include

A

pseudoephedrine
phenylephrine

95
Q

Pseudoephedrine MOA

A

decongestant - a and b2 adrenergic receptor agonist - reduces tissue hyperemia and edema
reduces nasal congestion and opens blocked eustachian tubes

96
Q

pseudoephedrine indications

A

acute nasal congestion, sinusitis, otitis media

97
Q

pseudoephedrine adverse reactions

A

increases HR and contractility

98
Q

pseudoephedrine contraindications

A

pts with heart disease, severe HTN, uncontrolled DM

99
Q

Phenylephrine MOA

A

binds primarily to a1 receptors causing vasoconstriction - used as a nasal decongestant

100
Q

Phenylephrine is ______ effective than ___________ for treatment of rhinitis sx

A

less
pseudoephedrine

101
Q

Phenylephrine adverse reactions

A

increases systolic and diastolic pressure - reflex bradycardia

102
Q

ACE inhibitors can increase clearance of _______ making less effective

A

Phenylephrine

103
Q

Topical decongestants include

A

Oxymetazoline
Fluticasone

104
Q

Oxymetazoline indications

A

treating acute rhinitis (from the common cold)

105
Q

Long duration of Oxymetazoline can lead to

A

rebound congestion

106
Q

Fluticasone MOA

A

glucocorticoid receptor agonist - causes vasoconstriction and inhibitory effects of cells and mediators of inflammation
(mometasone and budesonide also)

107
Q

Fluticasone indications

A

treatment and prevention of allergic rhinitis, treatment of chronic nasal polyps

108
Q

Fluticasone is not indicated for

A

treatment of acute upper respiratory infections

109
Q

Inhaled antihistamines include

A

azelastine and olopatadine

110
Q

Inhaled antihistamines indications

A

allergic rhinitis in adults and children

111
Q

Inhaled antihistamines side effects

A

nosebleeds, HA, somnolence, poor taste

Pharmacology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions