Pulmonary/cancer Flashcards

0
Q

What does exercise do to AVO2?

A

Exercise increases arteriovenous oxygen (AVO2) Difference by increasing oxygen extraction from arterial circulation

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1
Q

What are the goals of pulmonary rehabilitation?

A
  1. Improvement cardio pulmonary function
  2. Prevention treatment complication
  3. Increased understanding Of the disease
  4. Increased patient responsibility for self-care and compliance with medical treatment
  5. Improvement in quality of life, capacity for activities of daily living, and return to work
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2
Q

Who benefit the most from pulmonary rehabilitation?

A

Patient to benefit the most from Pulmonary rehabilitation program have one of the following:

  1. respiratory limitation of exercise at 75% of predicted maximum O2 Consumption
  2. Obstructive airway disease with forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) < 2000 mL or FEV1/FVC Ratio of less than 60%, restrictive lung disease, or pulmonary vascular disease with carbon monoxide diffusion capacity <80% of predicted value.
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4
Q
51. How do you produce vibration to talk after a laryngectomy with tracheoesophageal fistula?
A)	prosthetic reed
B)	esophagus
C)	trachea
D)	pharynx
A

Answer: B
A voice disorder can be one of the first symptoms of laryngeal cancer. These patients may need to undergo partial or total laryngectomy. A partial laryngectomy may or may not affect vocal quality, however a total laryngectomy results in sudden and complete loss of voice. The post laryngectomy patient has several speaking and nonspeaking options.

Speaking Options
Tracheoesophageal shunt (invasive)
• one way valve permits air to pass from trachea into esophagus
• esophageal sound produced by aerodyanmics in the esophagus
Esophageal voice
• oral injection of air followed by vibrating expulsion
Electrolarynx prosthesis

Nonspeaking Options
Writing
Gestures
Communication board
Portable computer
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5
Q
  1. Which of the following are positive pressure ventilators?
A

Answer- Pneumobelts
When motor weakness or deformity sufficiently limits the pts. Ability to ventilate, mechanical ventilatory assistive devices are needed to allow for adequate ventilation. Early signs and symptoms of hypoxia include difficulty with sleping, nighttime dypnea, nightmares, and somnolence during the day. As these signs appear, appropriately prescribed ventilatory aids such as a cuirass or plastic wrap enhance gas exchange in the recumbent position. In the later stages of motor neuron disease, oral positive pressure ventilation, a pnemobelt or cuirass ventilators can be used throughout the day. Reference- Braddom, 2nd ed., pg 1017.

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6
Q
  1. When would you use non-continuous oxygen supplementation in a COPD patient?
A

Answer- when PO2 is less than 55 while exercising
Medicare will reimburse for oxygen use during exercise if SaO2 £ 88% or PaO2 £ 55 mm Hg with exercise or activity or if there is demonstration of increased exercise tolerance or endurance with oxygen in conjunction with a rehabilitation program.
See chart below for criteria regarding other non-continuous (i.e. noctural, stand-by) and continuous oxygen supplementation.
Medicare Guidelines for Home Oxygen Reimbursement
Type of Use Criteria
-Exercise / Activity-
(non-continuous)-
-SaO2 £ 88% with exercise or activity
-PaO2 £ 55 mm Hg with exercise or activity
-Demonstration of ¬exercise tolerance with oxygen use
-Nocturnal-
(non-continuous)
-Cor pulmonale or erythrocytosis with
• SaO2 £ 88% during sleep
• PaO2 £ 55 mm Hg during sleep
-Sleep-related hypoxemia is improved with oxygen use
-Intermittent / Stand-by
(non-continuous)-
- Bronchospasm, CHF, or other cardiopulmonary disease with
• SaO2 £ 88%
• PaO2 £ 55 mm Hg
-Long-Term
(continuous)-
- SaO2 £ 88% on room air
-PaO2 £ 55 mm Hg on room air
(document with 2 ABGs on RA at rest as an outpatient)

Reference- Practical Manual of PM&R (Tan): p 679-680

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7
Q
  1. Best treatment for mets. To the spine?
A

Answer- Radiation

Radiotherapy remains the mainstay of treatment for spinal metastatic disease. Most of the lymphoreticular tumors and prostate carcinoma are radiosensitive; lung and breast are less sensitive. Tumors of the gastrointestinal system and kidney are resistant to radiotherapy, as are melanomas. Nevertheless, radiotherapy has been offered to the latter group of patients and has demonstrated some response. The radiation port normally includes 2
vertebral bodies above and below the diseased segment. About 80% of patients with pretreatment pain have symptomatic relief; 48% of patients with motor or
sphincter dysfunction respond to treatment Reference, E-medicine- Metastsasis to the Spine.

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8
Q
  1. Which type of cancer most commonly metastasizes to the brain?
A

Answer- Skin melanoma

Primary Tumor Site Percent Lung 21% Breast 9% Melanoma, 40% Lymphoma, mainly non-Hodgkin 1% GI tract 3%, Genitourinary tract 11% Osteosarcoma 10% Head and

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9
Q

What organ has the highest rate of oxygen extraction?

A

Oxygen extraction can be assessed by ratio consumption in any organ in the body. The heart has the highest percentage of oxygen extraction.

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10
Q

How do you define cardiac output?

A

Heart rate times stroke volume. Evidence shows that cardiac rehabilitation increases maximum cardiac output overtime.

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11
Q

Describe total lung capacity

A

Volume at maximal inspiration to expand the lungs.

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12
Q

Describe functional residual capacity

A

Volume of air remaining at the end of normal exhalation

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13
Q

Residual volume

A

Well you were meeting in the lungs after maximal exhalation

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14
Q

Vital capacity

A

Volume of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration.

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15
Q

Expiratory residual volume

A

The amount of air that can be exhaled after normal expiration

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16
Q

Title volume

A

Volume of air moved in and out of the lungs during normal respiration.

17
Q

What part of PFT is most useful in diagnosing obstructive lung disease?

A

Fvc=fev1/fvc

18
Q

Describe stridor

A

It is a high-pitched sound usually caused by a partial obstruction in the upper airways.

Striders the symptoms may occur at various phases of respiration (inspiration, expiration, or biphasic). When strider occurs during inspiration it’s usually signifies a laryngeal obstruction. I

f strider occurs and expiratory phase it implies tracheobronchial obstruction

19
Q

What is MIC?

A

Maximal insufilation capacity is the Max volume of air that can be held by a patient against a closed glottis.

Achieved by “air stacking”

Often followed in the case of a neuromuscular disease/therapy.

If the patient can maintain an MIC greater then their VC through air stacking, they may be able to forgo the need for tracheostomy and invasive ventilatory support provided there is no bulbar weakness.

20
Q

What is the best predictor of survival in cystic fibrosis?

A

Patients with an FEV one of less than 30% predictive value will have a 50% incidence of two-year mortality.

21
Q

What is the rate of normal respiratory decline per year starting at age 25 years?

A

30 mL per year in non-smokers. In smokers the rate of decline can be as high as 60 mL per year or more

22
Q

How are you going to decrease the drop in vital capacity in a quad who’s seated?

A

Abdominal binder

Saggy abdominal contents decrease excursion of diaphragm. Of coarse!

23
Q

Describe stages zero through four of the GOLD criteria

A

Stage zero: at risk with normal PFTs
Stage one mild COPD: is FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% of predicted with FEV1 greater than or equal to 80%
Stage two (moderate COPD): FEV1/FVC < 70% predicted and FEV1 50% to 79% predictive

Stage III (severe COPD): FEV1/FVC less than 70% and FEV1 30% to 49% predicted

Stage four (very severe COPD): FEV1/FVC less than 70% and FEV1 less than 30% predicted

24
Q

How does SIMV work?

A

SIMV allows the ventilator to become sensitized to the patient’s respiratory pattern and deliver ventilator- assisted breaths in synchronicity with the patient.

25
Q

How does ACV work?

A

Usually the first mode of ventilation for patient.

-it has a set back up rate and is able to deliver breaths for every patient initiated effort as well as when the respiratory rate falls below the back up rate.

26
Q

Describe PSV.

A

PSV provide augmentation a patient spontaneous respiratory effort and can be used during weaning trials.

27
Q

What is the leading cause of mortality among SCI patients?

A

Pneumonia is leading cause of mortality, followed by heart disease 2nd, and sepsis from skin ulcers, urinary tract infections or respiratory infections is third

28
Q

Where is the central respiratory center located?

A

And the Doula specifically in the dorsal respiratory group. Other areas are in other parts of the mid Dula as well as pons.

29
Q

What are central chemoreceptors in the medulla sensitive to?

A

Central chemoreceptors in the medulla are sensitive to both changes in pH and rising CO2 levels within the cerebrospinal fluid of the fourth ventricle.

There are peripheral chemoreceptors as well which are sensitive to pH, PCO2, and P02 level. they are located in the aortic arch as well as carotid bodies

30
Q

Describe air shifting

A

The patient takes a deep breath and hold it against a closed glottis for five seconds. During this breath the air shifts to less ventilated distal air spaces. Exhale is through pursed lips which helps prolonged expiration and keep distal airways patent.

31
Q

What is the main problem in emphysema?

A

Emphysema is an abnormal permanent enlargement of the airspace distal to the terminal bronchioles. Airflow limitation is the result of loss of elastic recoil and decreased airway tethering. Airflow limitation are due to narrowed airway caliber and increased airway resistance.

32
Q

When is the flutter valve useful?

A

A flutter valve a.k.a. a cappella help clear airway secretions by vibrating the airways to dislodge mucus, facilitating positive airway pressure in the air ways to promote their patency, and ultimately allowing for secretions to be coughed up for Expectoration.

33
Q

What are the recommended steps for prevention of bone loss in chronic steroid use?

A

Calcium 1500
vitamin D 800
Bisphosphonate
weight bearing exercise

34
Q

What is first-line treatment for pain from bony metastases?

A

NSAIDs are good first-line treatment due to prostaglandin inhibition as prostaglandin release is one of the mechanisms of bone pain in bony metastases.

35
Q

What kind of neuropathy can be seen with lymphoma?

A

Subacute motor neuropathy

36
Q

What are side effects of Vincristine?

A

Axonal degeneration and neuropathic pain

37
Q

Peripheral nerve damage secondary to radiation is due to direct nerve damage as well as connective tissue damage as well as vascular supply to the nerve

A

What is the mechanism for nerve damage in radiation neuropathy?

38
Q

What kind of bony met is prostate cancer responsible for?

A

Blastic