Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Family Medicine > Pulmonary > Flashcards

Pulmonary Flashcards

1
Q

Rapid, deep labored breathing

A

Kussmaul breathing - DKA, Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Deep breathing alternating c apnea

A

Cheyne-Strokes breathing - HF, Brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cavitations on CXR

A

Infection - lung abscess, TB (Gohn focus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Apical infiltrates, Fever, Chills, Dry cough

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pleural thickening on CXR

A

Mesothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hilar mass on CXR

A

Lung CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Eggshell pattern on CXR

A

Silicosis (sandblasters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Diffuse ground glass appearance c/o pulmonary nodules on CXR

A

Infiltrative Lung Disease = Diffuse Pulmonary Lung Diseases

  1. Rheumatic = SLE, RA, SS
  2. Idiopathic = acute (<6 wks), chronic (> 6 mos)
  3. Drug induced = Bleomycin (macrolides), amiodoron, radiation
  4. Primary = sarcoidosis
  5. Exposure
    1. Asbestosis
    2. Hypersensitive pneumonitis
    3. Pneumocossis = Beryliosis, Silicosis, Black lung
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Diffuse ground glass appearance c pulmonary nodules on CXR

A

Lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reticular to nodular pattern on CXR

A

Black lung (Coal Miners)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pleural based plaques on CXR

A

Asbestosis (ship Builders, building demolition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Patchy fibrosis on CXR

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (Farmer’s lung via biologic dusts from hay dust or mold spores or other agricultural products)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Granulomas & inflammation of alveoli, small bronchi, and sm bvs

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dyspnea after surgery, travel (airplane), LE Fx. May have c/o calf pain also.

A

DVT/PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lung scan with perfusion defects

A

PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Venous stasis, vessel wall injury, hypercoagulability

A

DVT/PE (Virchow’s triad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pediatric with barking cough, stridor

A

Viral croup (laryngotracheobronchitis); Tx w/ racemic epi & glucocorticosteroids if stridor at rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pediatric wheezing

A

lower respiratory foreign body, Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drooling, sniffing position, tripod, toxic

A

Epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Thumbprint sign

A

Epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Steeple sign

A

Foreign Body, viral croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inspiratory stridor

A

Foreign Body, viral croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Premature infant with respiratory distress

A

Hyaline Mb Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Preemie CXR w/ hypoexpansion (ATX), air bronchograms

A

Hyaline Mb Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Smoker, chronic productive cough. NO hemoptysis, wt. loss.

A

Brochitis (COPD) - Blue Bloater (decrease O2 = CYANOSIS, Pulm HTN, R CHF, EDEMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Smoker, DOE (dyspnea on exertion), cough

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hyperinflation on CXR, tear drop heart

A

Emphysema (COPD) - Pink Puffer (NORMAL O2, high CO2, increase AP diameter, PURSED LIPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Wheezing, prolonged expiration

A

Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Airway edema with eosinophils, neutrophils, lymphocytes

A

Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fever, cough, sputum. Crackles, decreased breath sounds, dullness to percussion, +egophony, pectoriloquy. CXR - infiltrates or consolidation

A

Pneumonia (PNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

>35yo with PNA. Rusty colored or yellow-green sputum. Acute onset F/C

A

Strep. Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

<35 yo, college students. Fever, cough, +/- sputum, chills, muscle aches

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia “walking pneumonia”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bullous myringitis

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia; Bullous myringitis = middle ear infection “TM”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

PNA c Smokers, COPD

A

H. influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

PNA c DM, immunocomp, EtOH. Currant color sputum.

A

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

PNA c water, late summer (AC), construction site. Diarrhea. Toxic looking

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PNA from Nursing homes, chronic care facility. Purulent sputum

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

PNA in HIV+, AIDS, Immunocompromised. Sx out of proportion to exam, elevated LDH and Hyper-hypoxia. Diffuse interstitial & alveolar infiltrates

A

Pneumocystis jerovecii (PJC); Tx = TMP-SMX Drug of choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

PNA & decreased mental status, poor dental hygiene, dentures, foul smelling sputum, bronchiectasis. Patchy infiltrates in dependant lung zones

A

Aspiration PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pediatric with Hx recurrent lung infections, pancreatitis, reproductive problems, Failure to thrive (FTT)

A

Cystic fibrosis (Staph & Pseudomonal infections usually cause of death) (CF = autosomal recessive => thick & sticky fluids of mucus, sweat, and digestive juices => plug up tubes, ducts, and passageways => fatty stool, clubbing, etc…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sweat chloride test

A

Cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cystic fibrosis c PNA

A

Pseudomonas aueroginosa causative agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

< 2 days post-op c fever

A

Atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Stab wound, hyperresonance to percussion, decreased breath sounds, tympany

A

Pneumothorax (PTX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Stab wound, dullness to percussion, decreased breath sounds.

A

Hemothorax (pleural effusion of blood accumulates in pleural cavity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Tall, skinny, male, band student, acute onset one-sided chest pain, dyspnea

A

Spontaneous PTX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Stab wound to chest. Hypotension, tracheal shift

A

Tension PTX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Poor sleeping, obese, daytime fatigue & drowsy, snoring, HTN, PM wakening

A

Obstructive sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

s/p thoracic trauma. Multiple rib fractures. Chest wall moves in with inspiration, out c expiration.

A

Flail chest. Tx = pain control, incentive spirometry, pulmonary toilet, intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Asthma

A

Wheezing, reversible airway disorder. Samter’s triad: Asthma, ASA allergy, nasal polyp. Reduced FEV1 to FVC ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Acute Bronchitis

A

Viral, cough, negative CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bronchiolitis

A

RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Epiglottitis

A

HIB (Haemophilus influenzae type B). Hot potato voice, sniffing position, drooling. X-ray: Thumb sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Croup

A

Barking cough. X-ray: Steeple sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pertussis

A

Inspiratory whoop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Pneumonia

A

Productive cough, pleuritic chest pain, fever. lobar consolidation = bacteria. bilateral interstitial infiltrates = viral/pneumocystis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Tuberculosis

A

Fever, night sweats, hemoptysis. AFB/culture x 3 days. RIPE therapy. Screen with TNF inhibitors, immigration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Carcinoid Syndrome

A

Carcinoid tumor (rare) secretes chemicals into your bloodstream => Diarrhea, flushing, bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Cystic fibrosis. Tram lines. Obstructive pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Obstructive lung dz

A

Obstructive pattern = inflamed + easily collapsible airways, obstruction to airflow, problems exhaling. Types = asthma, bronchiectasis, bronchitis and COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Emphysema

A

Smoking, alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, barrel chest, decreased DLCO and FEV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Chronic Bronchitis

A

Smoking, decreased FEV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive, infertility, sweat chloride test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pulmonary embolism (PE)

A

Virchow’s triad (Venous stasis, vessel wall injury, hypercoagulability), sinus tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, S1Q3T3, Westermark sign, Hampton hump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Asbestosis

  1. E
  2. CXR
    3.
A
  1. E: Insulation, ship building
  2. CXR: thickened pleura and basilar lesions c DPLD
  3. Cause mesothelioma (lung ca)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Silicosis

  1. E
  2. CXR
  3. Tx
A

Silicosis pneumoconiosis

  1. E: Sandblasting, mines
  2. CXR: egg shell calcification c DPLD/pulmonary fibrosis
  3. Tx: steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Coal

  1. E
  2. CXR
  3. Tx
A

Black lung Pneumoconiosis

  1. E: Coal miners
  2. CXR: nodular opacities in the upper lung fields c DPLD
  3. Tx: steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Beryllium

  1. E
  2. CXR
  3. Tx
A

Berylliosis Pnemoconiosis

  1. E: Aerospace, electrical/nuclear plants
  2. CXR: diffuse infiltrates (DPLD) & hilar LAD
  3. Tx: steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Sarcoidosis

A
  1. CXR: Non caseating granulomas, erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar adenopathy
  2. Labs: elevated ACE (4x), elevated ESR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Smoking, family history, males tall/skinny, pleuritic chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Rust-colored sputum - common in patients with splenectomy

A

S. Pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Salmon colored sputum - MRSA treat with vancomycin

A

S. Aureus (think you can catch salmon with a “staph”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Ventilator associated pneumonia patients become sick fast, treat c 2 abx

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

low Na+ (hyponatremia), GI sxs (diarrhea) and high fever

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Young people living in dorms, (+) cold agglutinins, bullous myringitis

A

Mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Currant jelly sputum, drinkers, aspiration

A

Klebsiella (Clubbing - jello shots)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

bird or bat droppings (caves, zoo, bird), Mississippi or Ohio river valley, mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy (looks like sarcoid)

A

Histoplasma capsulatum Chronic cavitary histoplasmosis is characterized by pulmonary lesions that are often apical and resemble cavitary TB. Manifestations are worsening cough and dyspnea, progressing eventually to disabling respiratory dysfunction. Dissemination does not occur. Treat: Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

found in soil can disseminate and can cause meningitis

A

Cryptococcus Immunocompromised patients usually symptomatic Lumbar puncture for meningitis Treatment: Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Common in HIV-infected patients with a low CD4 count of less than 200, treat (and prophylax) with Bactrim

A

(PJP) Pneumocystis jiroveci - Formerly PCP Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

majority of cases in people c underlying illnesses such as tuberculosis or COPD, but c otherwise healthy immune systems

A

Pulmonary aspergillosis Treat: fluconazole or itraconazole

81
Q

Look for this in a patient with non-remitting cough/bronchitis non-responsive to conventional treatments. Caused by fungal inhalation in western states.

A

Coccidioides (Valley Fever) Treat: fluconazole or itraconazole

82
Q

Causes mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy (looks like sarcoidosis)

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

83
Q

Transmission of vocal sounds through consolidation leads to the changes heard with

A

egophony Patients c pneumonia = (+) egophony

84
Q

Consolidation would increase the transmission of vocal vibrations and manifest as

A

(+) tactile fremitus

85
Q

Upper (apical) cavitary lesions

A

Active Tuberculosis

86
Q

(+) cold agglutinins

A

Mycoplasma Pneumonia or Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

87
Q

1st episode of cough and wheezing in a 4 month old

A

Bronchiolitis

88
Q

+ PPD in a patient 1) HIV, 2)Rural mexico, 3)Nurse, 4)Traveler, 5)Homeless, 6)Soccer Mom

A

>5 mm (HIV) >10 mm (Rural Mexico, Nurse, Traveler, Homeless) >15 mm (Soccer mom)

89
Q

Tuberculosis to spine

A

Potts disease

90
Q

1) optic neuritis (red-green vision loss) “Eyes” 2) orange discoloration of body fluids

A

1) Ethambutol. 2)Rifampin

91
Q

Patients on Isoniazid (INH) should take what supplement

A

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) daily to prevent neuropathy

92
Q

CXR => low grade CA seen as pedunculated sessile growth in central bronchi - Cutaneous flushing, diarrhea, wheezing and low BP

A

Carcinoid syndrome = Cutaneous flushing, diarrhea, wheezing and low blood pressure. This is the hallmark sign of carcinoid tumors which are GI tract cancers that have metastasized to the lungs

93
Q

Patient will present with → cough and dyspnea for 6 days

A

Acute bronchitis

94
Q

Patient will present as → first episode of wheezing in a child 12-24 months with findings of viral respiratory infection

A

Acute bronchiolitis

95
Q

Patient will present with → sudden onset of high fever, respiratory distress, severe dysphagia, drooling and a muffled voice in an unvaccinated child. Thumbprint sign on lateral neck film

A

Acute epiglottitis

96
Q

Patient will present as → a 2-year-old with barking cough and stridor. “Steeple sign” on PA neck X-Ray

97
Q

Patient will present with → sudden onset of fever, chills, malaise, sore throat, headache coryza and myalgia (especially in the back and legs)

98
Q

Patient will present with → severe paroxysmal cough followed by an inspiratory high-pitched whoop, if untreated will develop a chronic cough lasting for weeks

99
Q

Patient will present with → fever, dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea, cough +/- sputum

A

Bacterial Pneumonia

100
Q

Patient will present with → 1 week history of hacking non-productive cough, low grade fever, malaise and myalgias. The chest x-ray reveals bilateral interstitial infiltrates and a cold agglutinin titer that is negative

A

Viral Pneumonia

101
Q

Patient will present with → non-remitting cough/ bronchitis non-responsive to conventional treatments

A

Fungal Pneumonia

102
Q

Patient will present as → a young person who you don’t know has HIV, bc of the pneumonia they have you become suspect. The radiograph shows diffuse interstitial or bilateral perihilar infiltrates

A

HIV-related Pneumonia

103
Q

Patient will present with → 4-month-old with wheezing, cough and dyspnea

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection

104
Q

Patient will present with → FEVER, hemoptysis, recent travel, NIGHT SWEATS, weight loss, shortness of breath, social contact with same symptoms

A

Tuberculosis

105
Q

Patient will present with → haemoptysis, cough, focal wheezing or recurrent pneumonia. Carcinoid syndrome (the hallmark sign of cutaneous flushing, diarrhea, wheezing and low blood pressure) is actually quite rare.

A

Carcinoid tumors

106
Q

Patient will present as → a previous smoker with a new or changing cough, weight loss, hemoptysis and hoarseness

A

Lung cancer

107
Q

Patient will present → after having had a radiograph for something else and found to have a small < 3 cm pulmonary lesion, they are likely asymptomatic.

A

Pulmonary nodules

108
Q

Patient will present with → foul breath, purulent sputum and hemoptysis along with a CXR demonstrating dilated and thickened airways with “plate-like” atelectasis (scarring)

A

Bronchiectasis

109
Q

18/30 Patient will present with → foul breath, purulent sputum and hemoptysis along with a CXR demonstrating dilated and thickened airways with “plate-like” atelectasis (scarring) Bronchiectasis Patient will present with → a chronic cough that is productive of phlegm occurring on most days for 3 months of the year for 2 or more consecutive years without an otherwise-defined acute cause

A

Chronic bronchitis

110
Q

Patient will present as → a young patient with a history of chronic lung disease, pancreatitis or infertility. May have clubbing of fingers CXR may reveal hyperinflation, mucus plugging and focal atelectasis. Labs will reveal an elevated quantitative sweat chloride test

A

Cystic fibrosis

111
Q

Patient will present with → exertional dyspnea, minimal cough, quite lungs, thin, barrel chest. Chest X-ray will reveal flattened diaphragm, hyperinflation and small, thin appearing heart

112
Q

Patient presents with → dyspnea, and a vague discomfort or sharp pain that worsens during inspiration. Physical exam reveals decreased tactile fremitus, dullness to percussion and diminished breath sounds over the effusion

A

Pleural effusion

113
Q

Patient will present with → acute onset of ipsilateral chest pain and dyspnea. Physical findings will include decreased tactile fremitus, deviated trachea, hyperresonance, and diminished breath sounds.

A

Pneumothorax

114
Q

Patient will present with → left parasternal systolic lift, a loud pulmonic component of S2 , functional tricuspid and pulmonic insufficiency murmurs, and later, distended jugular veins, hepatomegaly, and lower-extremity edema.

A

Cor pulmonale

115
Q

Patient will present with → risk factors such as COCP use or recent surgery with a sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, apprehension, cough, hemoptysis, and diaphoresis. Signs include tachycardia, tachypnea and crackles.

A

Pulmonary embolism

116
Q

Patient will present with → dyspnea, chest pain, weakness, fatigue, edema, and ascites along with a narrow splitting of the second heart sound and a systolic ejection click.

A

Pulmonary hypertension

117
Q

Patient will present with → insidious dry cough, dyspnea, fatigue, malaise, clubbing, inspiratory crackles

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

118
Q

Patient will present with → dyspnea, inspiratory crackles, clubbing of fingers, cyanosis and a work or exposure history that will provide you with the diagnosis

A

Pneumoconiosis

119
Q

Patient will present as → a 30-year-old African American female with a cough, fever and generalized body aches. You order a CXR which shows bilateral hilar adenopathy

A

Sarcoidosis

120
Q

Patient will present with → rapid onset of profound dyspnea occurring 12-24 hours after the precipitating event. Physical exam will show tachypnea, frothy pink or red sputum and diffuse crackles.

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

121
Q

Patient will present as → a preterm infant with typical signs of respiratory distress shortly after birth

A

Foreign body aspiration

122
Q

Who is the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine recommended for?

A

Young and old, sick, sickle cell, smokers, no spleen and liver disease

123
Q

What bug is most likely to cause pneumonia in a patient

  1. c ETOH abuse
  2. c COPD
  3. c Cystic Fibrosis
  4. c Exposure to aerosolized water
  5. in Young adults
  6. in children < 1 yo
  7. in children < 2 yo
  8. mc CAP
  9. mc HCAP/ICU
  10. mc HCAI (infection)
  11. mc opportunistic infection in HIV pts
A
  1. c ETOH abuse = Klebsiella (Klub jello shots)
  2. c COPD = Haemophilus (Phyllis husband has COPD)
  3. c Cystic Fibrosis = Pseudomonas (Mona Lisa in chlorine tub)
  4. c Exposure to aerosolized water = Legionella
  5. in Young adults = Mycoplasma/ Chlamydia
  6. in children < 1 yo = RSV
  7. in children < 2 yo = Parainfluenza
  8. mc CAP = S. pneumoniiae > H. flu > Klebsiella, S. aureus, Legionella, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma
  9. mc HCAP = Pseudomonas > MRSA
  10. mc HCAI = UTI
  11. mc opportunistic infection in HIV pts = Pneumocystis jiroveci (formerly P. carinii)
124
Q

What are the classic symptoms of TB?

A

Fever, night sweats, weight loss

125
Q

What are Ghon complexes?

A

Represent healed infection = Calcified primary focus in the lungs

126
Q

What is the historical landmark of TB?

A

Caseating granuloma that is AKA necrotizing granuloma

127
Q

Side effects

  1. Rifampin
  2. Isoniazid
  3. Pyrazinamide
  4. Ethambutol
A

RIPE = all 4 for active TB

INH + B6 for 9 mo for latent TB

  1. Rifampin = red/orange discoloration and hepatitis
  2. Isoniazid = B6 deficiency, hepatitis, neuropathy
  3. Pyrazinamide = hyperuricemia => gout
  4. Ethambutol = optic neuritis
128
Q

What radiographic finding is diagnostic for

  1. epiglottitis?
  2. croup?
A
  1. Thumbprint sign
  2. Steeple Sign
129
Q
  1. What is the leading cause of cancer death?
  2. What is the most common cause of bronchogenic CA?
  3. What is the treatment of choice for Non-small cell CA?
A
  1. What is the leading cause of cancer death?
    1. Bronchogenic CA
  2. What is the most common cause of bronchogenic CA?
    1. Adenocarcinoma
  3. What is the treatment of choice for Non-small cell CA?
    1. Surgical resection
130
Q
  1. What are the three components of asthma?
  2. What change in FEV1 after bronchodilation is supportive of the diagnosis of asthma?
  3. What is the most effective anti-inflammatory for chronic asthma?
  4. What medication must all asthma patients have regardless of the severity of their disease?
A
  1. What are the three components of asthma?
    1. Obstructive Airflow (Decrease FEV1 and Increase FVC), Hyperreactivity, Inflammation
  2. What change in FEV1 after bronchodilation is supportive of the diagnosis of asthma?
    1. 0.1
  3. What is the most effective anti-inflammatory for chronic asthma?
    1. Inhaled steroids
  4. ​​What medication must all asthma patients have regardless of the severity of their disease?
    1. short acting beta agonist (albuterol) as a rescue medication
131
Q
  1. What is the most contributing cause of COPD?
  2. What deficiency leads to COPD?
  3. What is the single most important intervention in COPD
  4. What is superior to B agonists in achieving bronchodilation?
  5. What therapy is the only therapy that may alter the course of COPD?
  6. What are the main symptoms of cystic fibrosis?
A
  1. What is the most contributing cause of COPD?
    1. Smoking
  2. What deficiency leads to COPD?
    1. Alpha 1 antitrypsin
  3. What is the single most important intervention in COPD
    1. Smoking cessation
  4. What is superior to B agonists in achieving bronchodilation?
    1. Anticholinergics (ipratropium or tiotropium)
  5. What therapy is the only therapy that may alter the course of COPD?
    1. Supplemental oxygen
  6. What are the main symptoms of cystic fibrosis?
    1. Cough, excessive sputum, sinusitis, steatorrhea and ABD pain
132
Q

What is the gold standard for identifying a pleural effusion?

A

Thoracentesis

133
Q

What are the most common irritants used for pleurodesis?

A

Doxycycline and talc

A pleurodesis is a surgical procedure used to treat pleural effusion in mesothelioma patients. It is not a curative treatment, but rather an approach that is recommended when symptoms like chest pain and shortness of breath are causing discomfort.

134
Q

What type of image reveals the presence of pneumothorax?

A

Expiratory CXR

135
Q
  1. What are the risk factors for DVT/PE?
  2. What are the most common hypercoaguable states?
  3. What is the initial method for the diagnosis of PE?
  4. When is a negative D.Dimer helpful in ruling out PE?
A
  1. What are the risk factors for DVT/PE?
    1. Virchowís Triad: Damage, Stasis and hypercoaguable state
  2. What are the most common hypercoaguable states?
    1. High estrogen, cancer and genetics
  3. What is the initial method for the diagnosis of PE?
    1. Spiral CT
  4. When is a negative D.Dimer helpful in ruling out PE?
    1. With low pre-test probability
  5. What is the definitive test for PE?
    1. Pulmonary angiogram (V/Q study can be helpful too)
136
Q

What physical findings are suggestive of pulmonary HTN?

A

Systolic ejection click and splitting/accentuation S2

137
Q

What causes pneumoconoises?

A

Coal dust, silicate or other inert dusts

138
Q

What is used to relieve chronic alveolitis in silicosis?

139
Q
  1. What CXR findings are seen in asbestosis?
  2. What is the number one complication of asbestosis?
A
  1. What CXR findings are seen in asbestosis?
    1. Pleural based plaques c ground glass (DPLD)
  2. What is the number one complication of asbestosis?
    1. Mesothelioma
140
Q

What disease is a multiorgan disease of idiopathic cause characterized by noncaseating granulomatous inflammation in affected organs?

A

Sarcoidosis

141
Q

What is the main presentation of an aspirated foreign body?

A

Choking, coughing or unexplained wheezing or hemoptysis

142
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of respiratory disease in a preterm infant?
  2. What can be used as prophylaxis or rescue in a patient with the established dz?
A
  1. What is the most common cause of respiratory disease in a preterm infant?
    1. Hyaline membrane disease
  2. What can be used as prophylaxis or rescue in a patient with the established Hyaline membrane disease?
    1. Exogenous surfactant
143
Q

Pneumonia tx

  1. Fungal pneumonia
  2. Pneumocystis jiroveci (PJC)
  3. Histoplasma pneumonia
  4. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  5. Legionella pneumonia
  6. Pseudomonas pneumonia
  7. MRSA
  8. Mycoplasma
  9. Strep.pneumonia or non MRSA staph
    1. inpateitn ICU
    2. inpatient
    3. outpatient c comorbidities
    4. outpatient
A
  1. Fungal (immunocomp)
    1. Itraconazole or fluconazole
  2. PJC (HIV pts c low CD4 counts, or AIDS <200 CD4)
    1. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole or pentamidine
  3. Histoplasma (inhlaled bat or bird droppings)
    1. Amphotericin B
  4. Klebsiella (ETOH, aspirations) => RUL abscess & currant jelly colored sputum
    1. Cephalosporins, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones
  5. Legionella (diarhea, water contamination, spa)
    1. Macrolides & Fluoroquinolones
  6. Pseudomonas - always 2 abx combo (post intubation, ventilator or hospital)
    1. Anti pseudomonal beta-lactam + antipseudomonal quinolone/aminoglycoside
    2. Antipseudomonal quinolone + aminoglycoside
  7. MRSA (salmon sputum)
    1. Vancomycin/linezolid + Levofloxacin/ciprofloxacin
  8. Mycoplasma (young, + cold agglutinins)
    1. Same as Strep ??
  9. Strep.pneumonia (lobar pneumonia, URI + rust colored sputum) or non MRSA staph (URI + salmon colored sputum)
    1. inpateitn ICU
      1. Beta-lactam + macrolide/fluoroquinolone
    2. inpatient
      1. Beta-lactam + macrolide
    3. outpatient c comorbidities
      1. Beta-lactam + macrolide/fluroquinolone/doxycyline
    4. outpatient
      1. macrolide/fluroquinolone/doxycyline
144
Q

What must be considered with a young patient who has been exposed to rodent feces and has a “CHF like” presentation?

A

Hanta virus

145
Q
  1. What type of Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) occurs in a near or full term infant?
  2. What type of Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) occurs in a preterm infant? (usually born before 30 weeks)
  3. What situations predispose an infant to developing type 2 IRDS?
  4. What situations predispose an infant to developing type 1 IRDS?
A
  1. What type of Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) occurs in a near or full term infant?
    1. Type 2 IRDS
  2. What type of Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) occurs in a preterm infant? (usually born before 30 weeks)
    1. Type 1 IRDS
  3. What situations predispose an infant to developing type 2 IRDS?
    1. C-section or diabetic mother
  4. What situations predispose an infant to developing type 1 IRDS?
    1. Incomplete lung development due to congenital malformation = pulmonary hypoplasia
146
Q

Long term inflammation and eventual scarring after episodes of severe respiratory distress and mechanical ventilation?

A

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

147
Q

What antibiotic is most strongly associated with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

Clarithromycin (Note all macrolides can cause hypertrophic pyloric stenosis)

148
Q

What is laryngotracheo-bronchitis also known as?

149
Q

Where does the cancer associated with asbestosis tend to locate in the lung?

A

Mesothelioma locates to the pleural lining at the base of the lung

150
Q

What is the Dx? Looks like CHF on chest X-ray but pulmonary wedge pressure in normal.

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

151
Q

Pulmonary HTN Classes *list 5”

A
  1. Class 1 = Ventricular septal defect, Atrial septal defect, -Patent ductus arteriosus
  2. Class 2 = Mitral/Aortic stenosis, LV hypertrophy/falure
  3. Class 3 = COPD
  4. Class 4 = PE
  5. Class 5 = Sarcoidosis
152
Q

Right heart failure caused by long term COPD history?

A

Cor pulmonale

153
Q

Is chronic bronchitis or emphysema associated with an elevated hemoglobin?

A

chronic bronchitis

154
Q

Pink Puffer?

Blue bloater?

A
  1. Pink Puffer? = Emphysema
  2. Blue bloater? = Chronic Bronchitis
155
Q
  1. Only medication that improves morbidity and mortality in COPD?
  2. Agent of choice for COPD exacerbation?
A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Ipratropium
156
Q

What is the likely Dx? Solitary pulmonary nodule of 2 cm in size found on chest X-ray incidentally.

157
Q

What is a bloody pleural effusion concerning for?

A

malignancy

158
Q

What criteria determine transudate from exudate?

A

Light’s criteria

159
Q
  1. What is the most common type of lung cancer in smokers?
  2. Most aggressive lung cancer?
  3. What is the most common type of lung cancer in nonsmokers?
  4. What cancer is a patient with asbestos exposure at increased risk for.
A
  1. What is the most common type of lung cancer in smokers?
    1. Squamous cell
  2. Most aggressive lung cancer?
    1. Small cell
  3. What is the most common type of lung cancer in nonsmokers?
    1. Adenocarcinoma
  4. What cancer is a patient with asbestos exposure at increased risk for.
    1. Mesothelioma
160
Q

What does a positive whisper pectoriloquy represent?

A

pulmonary consolidation

161
Q

What is the most likely Dx? Smoker with hemoptysis weight loss and new DVT?

162
Q

A “cinnamon breath smell” is associated with what pulmonary infection?”

A

Tuberculosis

163
Q
  1. Where will older pulmonary lesions from tuberculosis be found?
  2. Where will newer pulmonary lesions from tuberculosis be found?
  3. What is the recommended treatment for a healthcare worker with a first time positive PPD?
  4. What is the sputum test for tuberculosis?
A
  1. Older = lower & middle lobe
  2. Newer = upper lobe
  3. Isoniazid (INH) for 6 months
  4. AFB smear and cultures
164
Q
  1. What lab is elevated in PJP pneumonia?
  2. Tx PJP pna?
A
  1. LDH
  2. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole or pentamidine
165
Q
  1. What pneumonia is associated with air conditioning vents and spas?
  2. Most common ventilator associated bacterial infection?
  3. Young IV drug user with fever severe hypoxia and diffuse infiltrates on X-ray?
  4. Young patient after flu will get what infection?
A
  1. Legionella PNA
  2. Pseudomonas PNA
  3. PJP PNA
  4. S. aureus PNA
166
Q

What pneumonia associated with diarrhea and low sodium levels?

A

Legionella

167
Q

Flu + aspirin in children can cause what condition?

A

Reye syndrome

168
Q

Flu can be treated with oseltamivir within how many hours of onset of symptoms?

169
Q

Wet cough and foul smelling sputum in a child?

A

Bronchiectasis

170
Q

Chronic aspiration in kids leads to plate like atelectasis on X-ray and what condition?

A

Bronchiectasis

171
Q

How high does pulmonary pressure need to be to diagnose pulmonary HTN?

A

25 mmHg at rest

172
Q
  1. What is the Dx? Patient worked with insulation. Chest X-ray shows thickened pleura and basilar lesions.
  2. What is the Dx? Pulmonary fibrosis in a patient who was a sandblaster. Chest X-ray shows egg shell calcifications.
  3. What is the Dx? Chronic dry cough dyspnea fatigue and clubbing. Chest X-ray shows fibrosis and CT chest shows honeycombing.
  4. What is the Dx? Chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and non caseating granulomas?
A
  1. What is the Dx? Patient worked with insulation. Chest X-ray shows thickened pleura and basilar lesions.
    1. Asbestosis
  2. What is the Dx? Pulmonary fibrosis in a patient who was a sandblaster. Chest X-ray shows egg shell calcifications.
    1. Silicosis
  3. What is the Dx? Chronic dry cough dyspnea fatigue and clubbing. Chest X-ray shows fibrosis and CT chest shows honeycombing.
    1. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
  4. What is the Dx? Chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and non caseating granulomas?
    1. Sarcoidosis
174
Q

Does patient with sarcoidosis tend to have high or low serum calcium levels?

A

High (hypercalcemia)

175
Q

Gold standard test used to diagnose Pulmonary HTN?

A

Right heart cardiac catheterization

176
Q

Treatment for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

A

Supportive care/ventilatory support - Find and treat underlying cause

177
Q

Right sided heart failure due to pulmonary HTN?

A

Cor Pulmonale

178
Q

Initial Treatment for pulmonary embolism?

179
Q
  1. What is the Dx? Young healthy female smoker on oral contraception with acute chest pain and SOB?
  2. What is the Dx? Thin young healthy male runner who develops acute onset of chest pain and dyspnea?
A
  1. Pulmonary embolus
  2. Spontaneous PTX
180
Q

Initial treatment for all pneumothorax patients?

A

100% oxygen

181
Q

What are the chest X-ray findings with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

A

Bilateral infiltrates/white out (may look like CHF)

182
Q
  1. What type of COPD is associated with hyperventilation flat diaphragm on CXR and a normal Hgb/HCT?
  2. What are the two types of COPD?
A
  1. Emphysema
  2. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema
183
Q

Most common cause of acute bronchitis?

184
Q
  1. Types of asthma classifications?
  2. In a patients with asthma the FEV1 to FVC will be <______ ?
A
  1. Classes
    1. Intermittent => Mild persistent => Moderate persistent => Severe persistent
  2. FEV1 to FVC < 75% = diagnosis of asthma in pt with chronic wheezing/cough
185
Q
  1. In a patient with malignancy is the pleural effusion transudative or exudative?
  2. In a patient with CHF is the pleural effusion transudative or exudative
  3. What conditions is a right sided pleural effusion often associated with?
  4. What is the main treatment for a pleural effusion?
A
  1. exudative
  2. transudative
  3. CHF or cirrhosis
  4. Thoracentesis
186
Q

Name 3 types of non small cell (bronchogenic) cancers.

A

Squamous cell - Adenocarcinoma - Large cell

187
Q

What is a Hallmark sign seen with carcinoid tumors?

A

Cutaneous Flushing

190
Q
  1. Which virus can lead to pneumonia after URI and also often causes diarrheal illness/GI symptoms?
  2. Virus causing pneumonia after exposure to rodent feces (Western states)?
  3. Most common cause of viral pneumonia in adults?
  4. Organisms responsible for typical pneumonia?
  5. Organisms responsible for atypical pneumonia?
A
  1. Which virus can lead to pneumonia after URI and also often causes diarrheal illness/GI symptoms?
    1. Adenovirus
  2. Virus causing pneumonia after exposure to rodent feces (Western states)?
    1. Hantavirus
  3. Most common cause of viral pneumonia in adults?
    1. Influenza
  4. Name the organisms that cause typical pneumonia?
    1. S. pneumonia > H. flu > S. aureus > S. pyogenes (GAS)
  5. Organisms responsible for atypical pneumonia?
    1. Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella
191
Q
  1. Should normal percussion over the lung fields sound dull or resonant?
  2. What does positive egophony on auscultation in a patient with pneumonia mean?
A
  1. Resonant
  2. When listening over the area of consolidation, patient will say “eee” and it sounds like “aaa”
192
Q

What is the Dx? Previously healthy patient with abrupt onset of fever headache malaise occurring in the winter months.

193
Q

What condition is bronchiectasis often associated with?

A

What is the Dx? Previously healthy patient with abrupt onset of fever headache malaise occurring in the winter months.

Influenza

What condition is bronchiectasis often associated with?

194
Q

Child with chronic persistent productive cough foul smelling sputum?

A

Bronchiectasis

195
Q
  1. What is the cause of hyaline membrane disease in infants?
  2. Treatment for infant with Hyaline membrane disease (AKA: infant respiratory distress syndrome - IRDS)?
  3. Treatment to prevent Hyaline membrane disease in the newborn?
A
  1. Surfactant deficiency
  2. Respiratory support, Ventilatory support, Exogenous surfactant
  3. Give antenatal corticosteroids
196
Q
  1. Organism that causes whooping cough?
  2. Childhood vaccine?
  3. Preferred treatment?
A
  1. Bordetella pertussis
  2. DTaP
  3. Clarithromycin or azithromycin (Macrolides)
197
Q
  1. Steeple sign on a frontal chest X-ray showing tracheal narrowing & ​barking cough and stridor?
  2. Cause
A
  1. Croup
  2. Parainfluenza virus type 1
198
Q
  1. Most common cause of acute bronchiolitis in an infant?
  2. How is it diagnosed?
A
  1. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
  2. Analysis/culture of Respiratory secretions

Family Medicine (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions