Pulmonary Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
0
Q

What is the criteria for hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

New infection occurring 48 or more hours after hospital admission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is the criteria for community acquired pneumonia?

A

Acute pulmonary infection in the patient who was not hospitalized residing in a long-term care facility 14 or more days before presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the criteria for ventilator acquired pneumonia?

A

New infection occurring 48 or more hours after endotracheal intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the criteria for healthcare associated pneumonia? (7)

A
  • patients hospitalized for two or more days within the past 90 days.
  • Nursing home or long-term-care residents.
  • Patients receiving home IV antibiotic therapy.
  • Dialysis patients.
  • patients receiving chronic wound care.
  • patients receiving chemotherapy.
  • Immunocompromised patients.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some of the classic bacterial etiology for pneumonia?

A

The most classic bacterial etiology is strep pneumonia. Other prevalent bacterial pneumonia include staph aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Haemophilus influenza.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What agents can cause the bulk of atypical pneumonia?

A

Legionella pneumophila, M. pneumonia, C. pneumoniae, respiratory viruses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some of the risk factors for aspiration pneumonia?

A

Patients with seizures, stroke, other neuromuscular diseases.

Patients who use intoxicants including alcohol.

Individuals with G.I. issues including NG tube peg tubes and orogastric tube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does pneumococcal pneumonia classically present as?

A

Abrupt fever, rigor, rusty brown sputum. Pleural effusions can occur in 25% of patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What pathogen is worrisome for pregnant woman with pneumonia and what medication should you start in the ER?

A

Varicella pneumonia is worrisome for pregnant individuals. IV acyclovir maybe started in the ER.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 8 variables that are significant independent predictors of pneumonia in nursing home patients?

A

Increased pulse rate, respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths per minute, temperature greater than 30°C, somnolence or decreased alertness, presence of acute confusion, lung crackles on auscultation, the absence of wheezes, and increased leukocyte count.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What agents should you worry about in HIV patients with pneumonia?

A

The most common cause is strep pneumonia. Pseudomonas is also a common cause.

opportunistic infections are more likely to occur with lower CD4 counts. Think of M. tuberculosis, C. neoformans, Histoplasma capsulatum for individuals with CD4 count of 250 to 500. PCP is more likely when the CD4 count is below 200.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or false: bacterial pneumonia is less common after renal transplantation.

A

True.

However it is more common in patients receiving liver, heart, or lung transplants during the first three months after surgery.

After six months post transplant, bacteria more typical of CAP are the most likely pathogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an outpatient treatment option for uncomplicated patients?

A

Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What treatment option can be offered for outpatient management of patients with significant comorbidities?

A

Floroquinolones can be used including levo and Moxi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What may lead you to consider an admission for a patient with pneumonia?

A

CURB – 65

Confusion, uremia greater than seven, resp rate greater than 30, diastolic blood pressure less than 60, greater than 65 years old.

Patients with a score of less than to have a low mortality rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What antibiotic would you use for inpatient therapy for non-ICU patients with CAP?

A

One can use floroquinolones including levo and Moxi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What empiric therapy would you start for patients with suspected healthcare associated pneumonia?

A

Cipro and Vanco (for anti mrsa). And either pip-tazo, imipenem, meropenem, cefepime, or crftazidime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What antibiotic would you start for inpatient therapy for ICU patients with pneumonia?

A

One can consider ceftriaxone plus the fluoroquinolone including Moxi and levo. Also consider Vanco for Anti-mrsa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the difference between aspiration pneumonia and aspiration pneumonitis?

A

Aspiration pneumonia is alveolar space infection resulting from the inhalation of pathogenic material from the oropharynx; whereas aspiration pneumonitis is an inflammatory chemical injury of the tracheobronchial tree and pulmonary parenchyma produce from the inhalation of regurgitated sterile gastric contents.

Aspiration pneumonia can lead to aspiration pneumonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are risk factors for aspiration pneumonia?

A

They include conditions that promote oropharyngeal colonization with pathogenic bacteria or conditions that impair the swallowing or gag mechanisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is required to develop aspiration pneumonitis?

A

It requires aspiration of gastric contents with pH less than 2.5 and aspirated volume of 0.3 to 0.4 mL per kilogram ( 20 to 30 mL an adult ).

21
Q

What are the typical bacterial species involved in aspiration pneumonia?

A

They include strep pneumonia,ph aureus, H influenza, Enterobacteriaceae in community acquired aspiration pneumonia. In hospital acquired aspiration pneumonia Pseudomonas aeruginosa and gram-negative organisms are involved. Antibiotic coverage for typical aspiration syndrome should include coverage for anaerobic organisms

22
Q

What is the treatment options for aspiration pneumonitis?

A

For stable reliable patients who are healthy, they can be observed for a short time approximately one hour and then discharged with instructions to return for worsening symptoms. Antibiotic treatment is not necessary. However if the symptoms of aspiration when I was failed to resolve in 24 to 48 hours it should be treated with antibiotics.

If it is a patient from a nursing home or is chronically ill and stable they can be observed for 12 to 24 hours then discharged if they remain stable. If they remain symptomatic or have a new radiographic infiltrate they can be considered for admission or continued observation.

Otherwise if symptomatic I can receive antibiotics.

23
Q

What antibiotics can you consider for aspiration pneumonitis if required?

A

Levo, Moxi, Clinda.

24
Q

What antibiotics would you consider for community acquired aspiration pneumonia?

A

Can consider Moxi, Clinda

25
Q

What antibiotics can you consider for aspiration pneumonia in healthcare associated or severe periodontol disease or alcoholism?

A

PIP tazo, levo +clinda

26
Q

What are some of the causes of noninfectious pulmonary infiltrates?

A

They include CHF PE, aspiration pneumonitis, allergy bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, ARDS, sarcoidosis, Wegner granulomatosis, Goodpasture syndrome, radiation pneumonitis, fat emboli, neoplasm.

27
Q

What is the difference between empyema and lung abscess?

A

Empyema is pus in the plural space; lung abscess is a localized superlative necrotizing process occurring within the pulmonary parenchyma

28
Q

When should you suspect empyema?

A

It should be suspected if symptoms of pneumonia do not resolve.

29
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for empyema?

A

It is aspiration of grossly. Went material on thoracentesis and at least one of the following: thoracentesis fluid with a positive Gram stain our culture, plural fluid glucose less than 40 mg/dL, pH less than 7.1, or LDH over 1000 international units per liter.

30
Q

What are the three stages of an empyema?

A

Stage one: exudative; less than 48 hours, free-flowing pleural effusion that is present is amenable to chest tube drainage

Stage 2: fibrinopurulent; causes loculation’s

Stage III: organizational, take several weeks more extensive fibrosis

31
Q

What is the treatment for an empyema?

A

Patients can use NSAIDs or opioids for pleuritic pain. There is centesis may need to be done to stabilize a patient with respiratory or cardiac distress.

Recommended antibiotics includes pip/tazo or imipenem. They go should be considered if mrsa is possible

In the Fibropurulent stage can consider intrapleural fibrinolytic agent. For the organizational stage, may require a consultation surgical intervention or pulmonologist.

32
Q

What are some of the causes of a lung abscess

A

Most common cause is aspiration pneumonia, other causes include non-pulmonary source of infection, pulmonary infarction, penetrating chest trauma, fungal and parasitic infection, primary and metastatic neoplasm, and inflammatory conditions.

33
Q

What is the antibiotic choice for the treatment of lung abscesses?

A

Combination of Clinda and Metro are effective against anaerobes.
Can also consider Moxi.

May need to consider surgical treatment for a non-draining lung abscess.

34
Q

What should the disposition of follow-up look like for an individual with newly diagnosed lung abscess?

A

Patient should be admitted to the hospital and treated with IV antibiotics and one symptoms resolved they should continue on oral antibiotics for 48 weeks.

35
Q

How infectious is TB?

A

Only 30% of patients actually become infected after significant exposure.

36
Q

What are risk factors for TB?

A

Risk factors include immigrants from high prevalence countries, patients with HIV, residents and staff of prisons are shelters for the homeless, alcoholics and illicit drug users, elderly and nursing home patients.

37
Q

Where does TB tend to survive in the body?

A

It has a tendency for survival and areas of high oxygen content or bloodflow such as apical and posterior segment of the upper lobe and superior segment of the lower lobe of the long, renal cortex, the meninges, the epiphyses of long bones, and the vertebrae.

38
Q

When does the skin test generally become positive after initial exposure to TB?

A

1 to 2 months.

39
Q

How does primary tuberculosis tend to present?

A

It is usually asymptomatic.

40
Q

Other than the lungs which other sites can TB Present?

A

Frequent sites include adrenal glands bones, joints, G.I. tract, GU tract, lymph nodes, and meninges, pericardium, peritoneum, and pleura.

41
Q

What is considered a positive TB test?

A

It is considered positive if greater than or equal to 5 mm induration in high-risk patients, greater than or equal to 10 mm induration and an increased risk patients, and greater than or equal to 15 mm induration for all others.

42
Q

What can cause a false positive PPD test?

A

Individuals who have received the BCG vaccine, exposure to non-tuberculosis mycobacteria.

43
Q

What can cause false negative PPD test?

A

Incorrect administration, individuals with abnormal immune system such as HIV. It can also be unreliable and in acute stages of the disease.

44
Q

What are some findings on chest x-ray for primary TB infection?

A

It can present as parenchymal infiltrates in any area of the long. Isolated ipsilateral hilar or mediastinal adenopathy can sometimes be the only finding. Pleural effusions are usually unilateral and occur alone or in association with parenchymal disease.

45
Q

What are some of the radiographic findings for latent tuberculosis?

A

Nonspecific findings include upper lobe or hilar nodules and fibrotic lesions which may or may not be calcified. Other findings are bronchiectasis, volume loss, plural scarring. Some will have areas of infection that appear as ghon foci.

46
Q

What is the treatment for active tuberculosis?

A

First line include INH, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, for eight weeks followed by two drug continuation treatment for 18 to 31 weeks based on culture results.

For example daily for drug therapy for eight weeks followed by INH and rifampin treatment for 18 weeks.

47
Q

What is paradoxical reaction or immune reconstitution disease in TB?

A

It is when patients that are being treated for TB are clinically worse after the initiation of the medications.

This is typically seen in HIV patients. Systemic steroids are often added to standard TB therapy.

48
Q

What is the treatment for latent infection or for patients who have been in close contact with an individual with active TB, or for anergic individuals with known TB contact.

A

INH for a minimum of nine months if at risk for TB.

49
Q

True or false: miliary disease during primary TB is generally more rapid and severe than miliary disease during reactivation.

A

True: during primary TB it can present with multi organ failure, shock, acute respiratory distress syndrome. However during reactivation, it can present as chronic, nonspecific clinical course affecting any number of organ systems.