Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

STEP1-FirstAid > PULMONARY > Flashcards

PULMONARY Flashcards

1
Q

Cell Types in the following structures?

  • Clara Cells
  • Type I pneumocytes
  • Type II pneumocytes
  • Conducting Zone
  • Respiratory Zone
A
  • Clara Cells: non-ciliated columan with secretory granules
  • Type I pneumocytes: simple squamous
  • Type II pneumocytes: Cuboidal and clustered
  • Conducting Zone: pseudostratified ciliaed columnar
  • Respiratory Zone: cuboidal, which then switch to simple squamous in alveoli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Structures extending into the end of the bronchi?

A

Cartilage and Goblet Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Structures extending into the end of terminal bronchioles?

A
  • pseudostratified ciliated columna cells

- smooth muscle of the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Muscles of Inspiration and Expiration during quiet breathing?

A

INSPIRATION: diaphragm

EXPIRATION: passive!! ….no muscles here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Muscles of Inspiration and Expiration during exercise?

A

INSPIRATION: -external intercostals

                   - sternocleidomastoid
                    - scalene

EXPIRATION: -internal intercostals

                 - rectus abdominis
                 - transverse abdominis
                 - internal and external obliques
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Processes that increase lung compliance?

-Name at least 2

A
  • empysema

- normal aging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Processes that decrease lung compliance?

Name at least 4

A
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • scoliosis
  • pulmonary edema
  • pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Factors that cause a right-ward shift of the Oxygen dissociation curve?
“Favoring the T-state” = TAUT
i.e decreasing oxygen binding affinity
-name 5

A

“C-BEAT” = mnemonic

  • CO2
  • 2,3 BPG
  • Exercise (produce acid)
  • Altitude
  • Temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gases/Process that are diffusion-limited?

-name 4

A

CO (carbon monoxide)

  • Oxygen under strenous exercise
  • Fibrosis
  • Emphysema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gases/Process that are perfusion-limited?

-name 3

A
  • CO2 (carbon dioxide)
  • N2O (nitrous oxide)
  • O2 (oxygen under normal conditions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Factors that cause a left-ward shift of the Oxygen dissociation curve?
“Favoring the R-state”=RELAXED i.e increasing oxygen binding affinity

A

pH increase (usually happens in the lungs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pulmonary artery vascular alterations in pulmonary hypertension?
-name 3

A
  • arteriosclerosis
  • medial hypertrophy
  • intimal fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

prognosis for the two types of Pulmonary Hypertension?

A

PRIMARY: poor!

SECONDARY:
severe respiratory distress——–>cyanosis and RVH—->death from decompensated cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cause of primary Pulmonary Hypertension?

A

loss of function mutation in the BMPR2 gene (gene usually inhibits vascular smooth muscle proliferation)
–BMPR2 is a surface receptor that binds to many ligands in the TGF-Beta pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cause of secondary Pulmonary Hypertension?

-name 7

A

i. e. secondary to some other underlying condition:
- COPD
- Mitral Stenosis
- Recurrent Thromboemboli
- Autoimmune Disease
- L-to-Right shunt:
- sleep apnea
- living at high altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal pulmonary artery pressures?

-systole and diastole?

A

10-14mmHg= diastole

25mmHg=systole …if greater = pulm HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does each of the causes of pulmonary hypertension lead to Pulm HTN?..i.e. what is the pathogenesis?

A
  • COPD: destroys lung parenchyma—->increased resistance–increased pressure
  • MITRAL STEOSIS: increase resistance and higher left-atrial pressure, then increases pressure
  • RECURRENT THROMBOEMBOLI: decrease cross-sect area of pulm vascular bed—>increased resistance
  • AUTOIMMUNE DISEASE: inflammation–intimal fibrosis—>medial hypertrophy
  • L-to-RIGHT SHUNT: increased shear stress, then endothelial injury
  • SLEEP APNEA: Hypoxic Vasoconstriction
  • LIVING AT HIGH ALTITUDE: Hypoxic Vasoconstriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Causes of hypoxemia that have an elevated Aa gradient?

A
  • V/Q mismatch
  • R-to-L shunt
  • Diffusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes of hypoxemia that have a normal Aa gradient?

-why is it normal?

A
  • Increased altitude

- HyPOventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Early onset physical exam findings in chronic bronchitis?

A

EARLY: -wheezing

         - crackles
         - cyanosis (hypoxemia due to shunting)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Late onset physical exam findings in chronic bronchitis?

A

Dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Potential triggers of asthma?

-name 3

A
  • viral URI
  • allergens
  • stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Test used to diagnose asthma?

A

methacholine challenge (or alternatively: histamne challenge)

—in people with asthma, a very low dose of drug triggers exuberant bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Unique Histologic Findings on Asthma?

-name 2 and describes the composition of each

A

1) Curschmann’s Spirals: made up of shed epithelium that forms mucus plugs. They represent mucus casts of small airways.
2) Charcot-Leyden Crystals: formed from breakdown of eosinophils in sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Causes of broncoectasis?

-name the major categories (3) and give corresponding examples

A

Bronchoectasis is chronic/recurrent infection of airways resulting in permanent dilation of the airways.

INFECTION:

   - TB
   - Pertussis
  - allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

OBSTRUCTION:
-tumor (usually)

Secondary to OTHER CONDITIONS:

      - CF
      - Kartagener's syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Kartagener’s syndrome

A

Can lead to Bronchoectasis.

  • It is a defect in dynein, which results in cilia dysfunction, thereby preventing mucuous clearance
  • –recurrent infections damage to walls of airways-> bronchoectasis
  • **Other associated conditions:
  • male infertiligy due to immotile sperm
  • decreased female fertility
  • recurrent sinusitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the A-a gradient in Restrictive Lung Disease?

A

normal if extrapumonary

increased if interstial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Examples of interstitial restrictive lung disease?

A
  • idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
  • sarcoidosis
  • pulmonary hypertension
  • Goodpasture’s Sydrome
  • Wegener’s Vasculitis (GPA)
  • ARDS
  • NRDS
  • Drug toxicity
  • pneumoconioses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Examples of extrapulmonary restrictive lung disease?

A

CHEST WALL:

  • obesity–> can result in Pickwickian Syndrome
  • kyphoscoliosis

MUSCULAR:

  • Guillaine Barre
  • M.Gravis
  • ALS
  • Diaphragmatic disease
  • Polyomyelitis
  • MS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Classic histological findings in Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome?

A

Hyaline membrane: which is composed of eosinophils and acellular material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Risk factors for Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome? [NRDS]
-name 3

A
  • premature delivery
  • maternal diabetes (due to elevated fetal insulin)
  • Cesarean delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment for Neonatal R.D.S.?

-name 2

A
  1. maternal glucocorticoids

2. artificial surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Classic/Hallmark histologic findings in Sarcoidosis

A

Non-caseating granulomas in multiple organs

Hypercalcemia (due to high levels of Vit. D, which result from increased alpha-hydroxylase activity of the granulomas…produced by macrophages )….manifest as
***Schaumann and Asteroid Bodies

NB: any non-caseating granuloma (e.g. Churg-Strauss, Berylliosis, or Silicsis) will akso have HYPERCALCEMIA because the granulomas activate Vit.D via alpha-1-hydroxylase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Drug toxicities leading to Restrictive Lung Disease

-name 4 drugs

A
  • Bleomycin
  • Busulfan
  • Amiodarone
  • Methotrexate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Three main examples of pneumoconioses

A
  • Silicosis
  • Anthrcosis (coal-miner’s lung)
  • Asbestosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the histologic/gross findings in each of the 3 examples of pneumoconioses?

A
  • SILICOSIS:
    - egg-shell calcifications of hilar lymph nodes
    - concentric silicotic nodules…risk of TB

-ANTHRACOSIS:
-Dust cells with anthracotic pigment (black
macules)

  • ASBESTOSIS:
    - golden-brown fusiform rods resembling dumbbells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Virchow’s Triad?

A
  • Hypercoagulability
  • Endothelial Dysfunction
  • Stasis of Blood Flow

All three predispose to thrombus formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Prophylaxis and acute treatment of DVT?

A

heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Long-term management/prevention of DVT?

A

Warfarin (Coumadin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sites of metastases of lung cancer?

-name 4

A
  • brain
  • adrenals
  • liver
  • bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Common causes of lung cancer? i.e. from other metastasis that lodge to the lung?

A
  • breast
  • colon
  • prostate
  • bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

6 complications of Lunch Cancer?

Hint: mnemonic = “SPHERE of complications”

A 
S= Superior Vena Cava syndrome
H= Horner's Syndrome
P= Pancoast Tumor
E=Endocrine (paraneoplastic)
R=Recurrent Laryngeal symptoms (hoarseness)
E=Effusions (pleural or pericardial)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

6 types of lung cancer?

A
  • Squamous cell carcinorma
  • Adenocarcinoma
  • Mesothelioma
  • Small Cell Carcinoma
  • Large Cell Carcinoma
  • Bronchial Carcinoid Tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lung cancers that localize to the periphery?

A
  • Adenocarcinoma

- Large Cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Lung cancers that localize centrally (airways)

A
  • Small Cell cancer (oat cell)

- Squamous Cell Carcinoma

46
Q

Lung cancers with a more diffuse pattern?

A

Bronchial Carcinoid tumor
**Has ground glass opacity similar to pneumonia

NB: Mesothelioma affects the pleura and prefers the lung bases usually

47
Q

Unique Histological Findings for each of the 6 different types of lung cancers?

A
  • Squamous cell carcinorma: Keratin Pearls and Intercellualr bridges
  • Adenocarcinoma: the bronchialveolar subtype grows along alveolar septa—>gives apparent thickening of alveolar walls
  • Mesothelioma: psammoma bodies (calcified pleural plaques are pathognomonic)
  • Small Cell Carcinoma: Neoplasm of Kulchitsky cells whoch appear as small blue cells
  • Large Cell Carcinoma: Pleomorphic Giant Cells
  • Bronchial Carcinoid Tumor: Nests of Neuroendocrine cells, which are chromogranin positive
48
Q

Homan’s Sign?

A

Characteristic pf DVT:

Happens when patirnt dorsiflects foot and there is calf pain

49
Q

Imaging test of choice for a PE?

A

CT pulmonary Angiography

50
Q

What is the Reid Index?

A

Thickness of gland layer/total thickness of bronchial wall.

In bronchitis, this Index is greater than 50%

51
Q

Which disease is characterized by apical cavitary lesions?

A

Cavitary Tuberculosis
-This is very typical in secondary TB which may be caused either by a) reinfection or b) reactivation

Primary TB is usually in the mid-zone of the lungs

52
Q

Characteristic X-ray/histologic/serum findings in Sarcoidosis
-name 3 that are virtually pathognomonic

A
  • Bilateral hilar adenopathy
  • non-caseating granulomas
  • elevated serum ACE levels
53
Q

Gene mutation associated with Lung Adenocarcinoma?

A

K-RAS mutations are common

54
Q

Gene mutation associated with Lung Small Cell Carcinoma?

A

L-myc (aplification of this oncogene is common)

NB: N-myc is amplified in neuroblastoma!!!!

55
Q

What are the 5 adaptions to chronically living in high altitude areas?
–e.g. people who live in the Himalayan mountains?

A
  1. Increased erythropoietin (EPO): which increases hematocrit and HgB…to carry more O2
  2. Increased 2,3 BPG: favors the T-form of HgB by shifting the curve to the right and allowing more O2 to be offloaded
  3. Increased Mitochondria???

4 Increased Renal Excretion of HCO3- to compensate for the respiratory alkalosis

5.Increased respiratory alkalosis (due to increase in hyperventilation)

56
Q

Which drug is used to augment adaption to high altitude, and why?

A

Acetozolamide
-At high altitude, people hyperventilate due to low FIO2..but this results in respiratory alkalosis

–Normally, the kidney compensates for R.Alkalosis by eliminating more HCO3-…so by taking acetazolamide, you are augmenting this adaptation

57
Q

What are the 5 adaptions/things that happen during exercise?

A
  1. increased CO2 production
  2. increased O2 consumption
  3. increased alveolar ventilation ( to meet O2 usage)
  4. Metabolic acidosis (from lactic acid)
  5. increased pulmonary blood flow (due to increased CO)

NB: arterial PaO2 and PaCO2 are unchanged but venous PaO2 falls and PaCO2 increases

58
Q

Causes of Lung abscess (localized pus collection in parenchyma)
-name 2

A
  1. Bronchial obstruction e.g. cancer

2. aspiration of oropharyngeal contents (esp in epileptics or alcoholics or comatose pts)

59
Q

Organisms responsible for lung abscess?

-name 4

A

S. Aureus

Anaerobes: (bacteriodes, fusobacterium, peptostreptococcus)

60
Q

Which translocation is present in Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

t(8:14)

The long arms of the c-myc gene(#8) translocates with the long arm of the heavy chain Ig-G gene (#14)

61
Q

Classic cause of atypical pneumonia

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae
TREATMENT: macrolide (e.g. erythromycin) or fluoroquinolone

NB: Penicillin is NOT effective since mycoplasma does not have a cell wall.

62
Q

Classic cause of atypical pneumonia in the elderly, smokers, or immunocompromised patients

A

Legionella Pneumophila

63
Q

What is methenamine silver stain used to visualize?

A

Pneumocystis Jirovecii…it shows up as cysts and trophozites which don’t stain with H&E

64
Q

Classic presentation for TB?

-name 4

A
  • chronic productive cough
  • weight loss
  • night sweats and fever
  • hemoptysis
65
Q

Classic TB drugs in the first 6 months

A
  • Isoniazid (INH)
  • Rifampin
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Ethambutol

mnemonc= RIPE*

66
Q

What are nasal polyps characteristic of?

A

They are a consequence of repeated RHINITIS and when you have a child with Nasal Polyps—->think of CYSTIC FIBROSIS!!

67
Q

Which bacteria is associated with acute epiglottitis, meningitis, otititis media and pneumonia in children?

A

H.Influenza Type B

68
Q

Classic Presentation for acute epiglottitis in children?

A

Drooling with dysphagia, muffled voice, inspiratory stridor (distress),fever and sore throat

MNEMONIC= the 3 D’s

69
Q

What are the two key mediators of pain in pleauritic chest pain as that which results from penumonia presentation?

A

Bradykinin and Prostglandin E2 (PGE2)

70
Q

Three Types of Pneumonia?

A
  1. Lobar [mostly bacterial]
  2. Bronchopneumonia [mostly bacterial]
  3. Interstial Pneumonia..aka Atypical [mostly viral]
71
Q

What is the stem cell of the lung which helps it regenerate in times of healing (e.g. resolution of lung after pneumonia infection)

A

Type II pneumocyte!!!! = stem cell of the lung

72
Q

Potts’ Disease?

A

Presence of TB in the lumba vertebrae as part of systemic spread of the 2ndary TB.

73
Q

Which chronic obstructive disorder causes secondary amyloidosis

A

Bronchiectasis

74
Q

Common drugs that induce Pulmonary Fibrosis?

A
  • Bleomycin
  • Amiodarone
  • Busulfan (used in radiation therapy)

MNEMONIC: its hard to BlAB when you have pulmonary fibrosis

75
Q

Which Pneumoconiosis mimics Sarcoidosis?

A

Berrylliosis

76
Q

How does Recurrent Thrombembli lead to pulmonary HTN?

A

decrease in cross-sectional area of pulmonary vascular bed.

77
Q

How does living at high altitude or sleep apnea lead to pulmonary HTN?

A

Chronic Hypoxemia causes hypoxic vasoconstriction.

78
Q

How does L-to-R shunt lead to pulmonary HTN?

A

Increased shear stress—->causes endothelial injury

79
Q

How does mitral stenosis lead to pulmonary HTN?

A

Increased resistance

80
Q

How does autimmune disorder lead to pulmonary HTN?

A

Inflammation–>intimal fibrosis—>medial hypertrophy

81
Q

What is the hallmark finding in Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome?

A

Hyaline membrane formed by protein-rich fluid that has leaked into the alveolar wall.

82
Q

Which three processes cause the damage in ARDS? i.e. what is the pathogenesis?

A
  1. toxic substance from PMNs
  2. coagulation cascade
  3. oxygen-derived free radicals
83
Q

Two functions of Type II pneumocytes?

A
  1. surfactant prduction

2. stem cells for lung repair

84
Q

What is the L:S ratio?

A

Lecithin-Sphingomyelin ratio….used to assess Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrme (NRDS)..if less than 1.5, then lung hasn’t finished maturing.

NB: lecithin is a.k.a DIPAMYTOLPHOSPHATYDIL CHOLINE

85
Q

What is the key difference in the treatment of small-cell carcinoma versus large-cell carcinoma?

A

SMALL CELL: inoperable by surgery, responsive to chemotherapy

LARGE CELL: removed by surgery, not responsive to chemotherapy

86
Q

Most common lung tumor in male smokers

A

Small Cell Carcinoma

87
Q

Most common lung tumor in female smokers

A

Adenocarcinoma

88
Q

Most common lung tumor in non-smokers?

A

Adenocarcinoma

89
Q

Which lab stain is usually positive for bronchial carcinoid tumor?

A

The cells are chromogranin positive because they are of neuroendocrine origin

90
Q

To which side does the trachea deviate in the two major types of pneumothorax?

A

Spontaneous: TOWARDS the pneumothorax

Tension: AWAY from the pneumothorax

91
Q

Which agent mostly causes bronchiolitis or pneumonia in infants and babies?

A

RSV

Treatment = ribavirin

*page 160 in FA

92
Q

Roughly spherical structures (cysts) that stain with silver stains in lungs?

A

Pneumocystis.

stain is methenamine

93
Q

What molecule inhibits the fusion of phaglysosome fusion in mycobacterium pneumonia

A

Sulfatides!

-they allow the m.tuberculosis to survive in macrophages

94
Q

Which diseases do each of the 4 mycobacterium cause?

A

M. Tuberculosis: TB

M.Avium-Intracellulare: common in HIV patients and causes disseminated non-TB symptoms. Prophylaxis with Azithromycin

M.Leprae: Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease)

M.Kansaii: Pulmonary TB-like symptoms

**By far, M. Tuberculosis is the common cause of TB, even in HIV patients

95
Q

Which lung cancer is associated with SIADH?

A

-Small cell carcinoma can cause ectopic ADH secretion leading to increased sodium loss, resulting in hyponatremia (can cause seizure) and high urine osmolarity>serum osmolarity

96
Q

Most common cause of lung abscess?

A

S. Aureus

97
Q

What is the main cause of pneumonia in CF patients?

A

Pseudomona Aeruginosa….virulence is due to polysaccharide formation

98
Q

Which syndrome is induced by bronchial carcinoid tumor?

-what are the features of the syndrome?

A

Carcinoid Syndrome!!

  • serotonin secretion
  • Flushing (e.g. turning red after drinking alcohol)
  • Diarrhea
  • Wheezing (some sort of asthma attack)
99
Q

What type of virus is RSV?

A

a Paramyxoviridae

-negative-sense si`ngle-stranded RNA viruses that are non-segmented, helical, and enveloped

100
Q

Owl’s eye inclusion is typical of what disease/infection entity?

A

CMV

-common in imunocompromised patients, e.g. HIV or transplant recipients

101
Q

What is increased or decreased in each of the three different types of pleural effussions?

A

TRANSUDATE: reduced protein

EXUDATE: increased protein content

CHYLOTHORAX (LYMPHATIC): increased triglycerides

102
Q

What causes each of the 3 different types of Pleural Effusion?

A

TRANSUDATE:

 - CHF
 - nephrotic syndrome
 - hepatic cirrhosis
 - protein-losing enteropathy

EXUDATE: *must be drained to prevent infection
-malignancy
-pneumonia
-collagen vascular disease
-trauma (in states of increased vascular
permeability)

CHYLOTHORAX (LYMPHATIC):

     - thoracic duct injury from trauma
     - malignancy
103
Q

What is the color of each type of pleural effusion?

A

TRANSUDATE:

EXUDATE: cloudy

CHYLOTHORAX (LYMPHATIC): milky-appearing fluid

104
Q

What is a unilateral pleural effusion most indicative of?

A

Bacterial cause!!

___but this is certainly not ALWAYS the case___

105
Q

What is hypernia?

A

–increases breathing out with a corresponding increase in CO2 production rate e.g. exercise

106
Q

Two types of sleep apnea and the main driver for each kind?

A

CENTRAL:
- brain doesn’t send proper signal to your respiratory muscles to breathe

OBSTRUCTIVE:
-respiratory skeletal muscles are too relaxed to support breathing

107
Q

Treatment for sleep apnea?

A
  • Weight Loss
  • CPAP (Mask)
  • Surgery
108
Q

What causes ARDS (diffuse alveolar lung injury)

-name 7

A

-sepsis
-trauma
-shock
-gastric aspiration (stomach acid damages the
alveoli)
-uremia
-acute pancreatitis
-amniotic fluid embolism

109
Q

Treatment for RSV

A

Ribavirin in babies

-palivizumab

110
Q

What is the classic triad for a fat emboli?

A
  • neurological abnormalities
  • hypoxemia
  • petechial rash

NB: fat emboli usually happens with long bone fractures or liposuction

111
Q

What type of a hypersensitivity reaction is Sarcoidosis?

A

Type IV HSR (since it’s T-cell mediated inflammation)

-To diagnose the disease, you ONLY need presence of activated Macrophages…which are activated by IFN-gamma which is produced by Th1

112
Q

A patient presents with cyanosis and SOB. PMH is significant for mild anemia and menorrhagia. Duringan ABG, you notice that her blood is chocolate-colored…what treatment will you give and why?

A

Give the patient methylene blue. It reverses Fe3+ to Fe3+

Diagnosis: She has methemoglobin, in which her HgB iron is oxidized from Fe2+ to Fe3+
–Fe3+ has a low affinity for oxygen and a higher affinity for cyanide.

Common causes of methemoglobin are nitrites antibiotics, anesthetics, dyes or it cold be congenital.

STEP1-FirstAid (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions