PULMO EXAM MY PART Flashcards

1
Q

What is the next step for a 72-year-old man on mechanical ventilation with an FiO₂ of 40%, PEEP of 5 cmH₂O, and SaO₂ of 92%?

A

B) Perform a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT)

The patient is stable with minimal secretions and awake, indicating readiness for SBT.

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2
Q

What is the best strategy for a 70-year-old man with COPD who successfully passes an SBT?

A

B) Extubate and start noninvasive ventilation (NIV)

The patient’s history of congestive heart failure and APACHE-II score of 14 suggests a need for additional support post-extubation.

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3
Q

Which patient is at the highest risk for post-extubation respiratory failure?

A

A) 68-year-old with BMI of 32, COPD, and 10 days on mechanical ventilation

Higher BMI and prolonged ventilation increase the risk.

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4
Q

What is the minimum PEEP required before considering extubation for a patient on mechanical ventilation?

A

A) 10 cmH₂O

PEEP helps maintain alveolar recruitment and oxygenation.

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5
Q

Which criteria must be met before attempting a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT)?

A

A) Stable hemodynamics, minimal secretions, awake

These factors indicate the patient can tolerate SBT.

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6
Q

What is the best next step for a 62-year-old woman with sepsis-induced ARDS on low-dose norepinephrine and appropriate respiratory parameters for SBT?

A

B) Proceed with SBT on low-dose norepinephrine

It’s acceptable to conduct SBT even with low-dose vasopressors.

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7
Q

Which ventilatory mode is best for a 72-year-old male with ARDS requiring lung-protective ventilation?

A

B) Assist control–volume control (AC-VC)

AC-VC controls tidal volume and reduces the risk of barotrauma.

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8
Q

What is the most appropriate ventilatory mode for a 50-year-old male with Guillain-Barré Syndrome requiring full ventilatory support?

A

B) AC-VC

This mode provides full support for neuromuscular failure patients.

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9
Q

What is a limitation of Volume Control ventilation?

A

C) Inspiratory pressures can be high

High pressures may lead to barotrauma.

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10
Q

Which mode allows the patient to control their respiratory effort?

A

B) Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV)

PSV supports spontaneous efforts by providing pressure assistance.

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11
Q

Which of the following would be a contraindication to NIV in a patient with severe dyspnea and increased work of breathing?

A

B. Severe upper gastrointestinal bleeding

This condition poses a high risk for NIV failure.

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12
Q

If a patient with severe dyspnea has difficulty clearing respiratory secretions, what is the most appropriate action?

A

B. Intubate and initiate mechanical ventilation

Difficulty clearing secretions can worsen respiratory failure.

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause of Type II (hypercapnic) respiratory failure?

A

A) Pulmonary embolism

Pulmonary embolism typically causes Type I respiratory failure.

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14
Q

Which strategy is used for permissive hypercapnia?

A

C) Accept pH ≥7.2 and avoid high tidal volumes

This approach allows for higher CO₂ levels to reduce lung injury.

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15
Q

What is the optimal respiratory rate for ventilated COPD patients?

A

B) 9-12 breaths/min

This rate helps minimize CO₂ retention.

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16
Q

What is the best management option for a 40-year-old female with moderate persistent asthma experiencing nighttime awakenings?

A

A) Increase ICS/LABA dose or switch to a different combination therapy

Nighttime awakenings >2 times/month indicate poor control.

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17
Q

What is the best next step for a 48-year-old male with severe asthma and multiple risk factors for asthma mortality?

A

A) Admit the patient to the ICU and consider early intubation

High risk for severe exacerbation warrants close monitoring.

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18
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 29-year-old male with chronic cough, hemoptysis, eosinophilia, and a history of swimming in freshwater lakes?

A

B) Schistosomiasis

Exposure to freshwater in endemic areas suggests this diagnosis.

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19
Q

What is the most appropriate next step for a 65-year-old man with CHF and a transudative pleural effusion?

A

B) Treat for congestive heart failure

CHF is the most common cause of transudative effusions.

20
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 32-year-old male with a large anterior mediastinal mass and elevated serum AFP and β-hCG levels?

A

B) Teratoma

Elevated tumor markers indicate a germ cell tumor.

21
Q

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for a 45-year-old female with chronic back pain and a mass in the posterior mediastinum?

A

B) Neurogenic tumor

Neurogenic tumors are common in this region.

22
Q

How would you classify the severity of OSA for a 52-year-old male with an AHI of 18 events/hour?

A

B) Moderate OSA

Moderate OSA is defined as AHI of 15-29 events/hour.

23
Q

What best describes a respiratory event with cessation of airflow for ≥10 seconds without respiratory effort?

A

B) Central apnea

Central apnea indicates a lack of respiratory effort.

24
Q

What is the most appropriate classification for an event with ≥30% reduction in airflow lasting ≥10 seconds without complete cessation of airflow?

A

B) Hypopnea

Hypopnea is characterized by reduced airflow with desaturation.

25
Q

What is the MOST LIKELY reason a 58-year-old male may not be a good candidate for lung transplantation?

A

D) History of noncompliance with medical treatment

Adherence is critical for post-transplant success.

26
Q

How does a BMI <18 kg/m² impact lung transplant candidacy?

A

B) BMI <18 kg/m² is a relative contraindication to lung transplantation

Underweight patients have poorer outcomes post-transplant.

27
Q

What is true about a 60-year-old male with a PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio of 320 on PEEP 5 cm H₂O regarding lung donation?

A

C) He is still eligible for lung donation because his PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio is >300

Ideal lung donors typically have a PaO₂/FiO₂ >300.

28
Q

What is the MOST appropriate diagnosis for a 65-year-old male with acute respiratory failure and bilateral pulmonary opacities post-abdominal surgery?

A

A) Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

The normal left ventricular function rules out cardiogenic causes.

29
Q

What is the PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio for moderate ARDS?

A

PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio between 100-200 mmHg

This is part of the Berlin criteria for ARDS classification.

30
Q

What type of pulmonary edema is suggested by elevated BNP and reduced LVEF?

A

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

This condition indicates heart failure rather than ARDS.

31
Q

What is the gold standard ventilatory strategy for ARDS?

A

Low tidal volume ventilation (≤6 mL/kg predicted body weight)

This strategy reduces ventilator-induced lung injury and mortality.

32
Q

True or False: Prone positioning improves survival in moderate-to-severe ARDS.

A

True

Prone positioning is recommended to improve oxygenation and reduce mortality.

33
Q

Inhaled nitric oxide may transiently improve oxygenation but does not improve _______.

A

survival

It is not routinely recommended in ARDS treatment.

34
Q

What hemodynamic profile is characteristic of distributive shock?

A

↓ CVP, ↓ PCWP, ↑ CO, ↓ SVR

This profile is commonly seen in sepsis, anaphylaxis, or neurogenic shock.

35
Q

What causes cardiogenic shock?

A

Pump failure

It leads to increased CVP and PCWP, decreased cardiac output, and increased SVR.

36
Q

What type of shock is indicated by right ventricular dilation on echocardiogram?

A

Obstructive shock

Commonly caused by pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax.

37
Q

What is the PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio for severe ARDS?

A

PaO₂/FiO₂ < 100 mmHg

This classification is also part of the Berlin criteria.

38
Q

What is a common cause of cardiogenic shock?

A

Acute myocardial infarction

It is linked to severe left ventricular dysfunction.

39
Q

What is the significance of increased PCWP in a patient?

A

Indicates pulmonary congestion

This is often seen in cardiogenic shock.

40
Q

What are the signs of hypovolemic shock?

A

Low blood pressure and high heart rate

It is characterized by inadequate circulating volume.

41
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with PaO₂/FiO₂ = 120 mmHg and bilateral pulmonary opacities?

A

Moderate ARDS

This is based on the Berlin criteria for ARDS classification.

42
Q

What does an elevated PCWP indicate?

A

Increased left atrial pressure

This can suggest heart failure or volume overload.

43
Q

Which condition is characterized by warm extremities and hypotension?

A

Distributive shock

Commonly associated with sepsis.

44
Q

What ventilatory strategy should be avoided in ARDS?

A

High tidal volume ventilation

It can lead to ventilator-induced lung injury.

45
Q

What is the effect of prone positioning on oxygenation in ARDS?

A

It improves oxygenation

Particularly beneficial in moderate-to-severe cases.

46
Q

What does a high cardiac output with low systemic vascular resistance indicate?

A

Distributive shock

This profile is often seen in septic shock.