Pulm and Analgesic Exam 4 Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

How do histamine and LT receptors initiate SM contraction?

A

They are GPCRs that activate Phospholipase C and leads to Ca2+ influx and cGMP to initiate SM contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do Gq proteins influence the SM in airways?

A

They activate PLC leading to inc in IP3 and Ca2+ influx resulting in actin/myosin coupling = bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do the Gi proteins influence the SM in airways?

A

Dec adenylate cyclase activity and cAMP levels = bronchoconstriction (M2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do the Gs proteins influence the SM in airways?

A

Inc Adenylate cyclase activity and cAMP levels leading to the dissolution of actin/myosin = bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the MOA of the Sympathomimetics?

A

They act via Gs and inc cAMP to relax SM and dec Mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the impt Sympathomimetics for pulm?

A

Isoproterenol, albuterol, terbutaline, metaproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is one potential problem w/ beta-adrenergic agents?

A

They can vasodilate in lungs and perfuse poorly ventilated areas; give O2 to counter this effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the long acting beta-agonists?

A

Salmeterol and Formoterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the Methylxantines and their MOA?

A

Theophylline, Caffeine, Theobromine inc cAMP by preventing breakdown by inhibiting phosphodiesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who should avoid methylxantines?

A

Elderly w/ heart conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you avoid toxicity of theophylline?

A

Closely monitor blood levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the effect of tri-nucleotides on Mast cells?

A

Inc. GTP stimulate secretion; Inc ATP inhibits secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is omalizumab?

A

It is a monoclonal antibody that targets the FC portion of IgE so can’t attach to Fcepsilon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do you use chromolyn sodium?

A

Phophylactically to inhibit asthma exacerbations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the MOA of Zileuton?

A

It inhibits 5-lipoxygenase to inhibit LT production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the LTD4 receptor antagonists?

A

Zafirlukast and Montelukast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When are Leukotriene modifiers especially useful?

A

Aspirin induced asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is useful w/ inhaled corticosteroids?

A

They don’t turn off the rest of the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a risk of rapid withdrawl of corticosteroids

A

adrenal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which is special about ciclesonide?

A

It is designed to be cleaved by esterase locally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a unique risk of inhaled corticosteroids?

A

Oropharyngeal candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are three benefits of airway delivery?

A
  1. Speeds delivery of active cmpds 2. Delivers medication to appropriate site 3. Minimizes systemic Side Effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What Abx can be used w/ corticosteroids for acute exacerbations?

A

Doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What receptor is targeted by Antihistamines?

A

H1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are 2 important decongestants and their MOA?
Pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine; alpha adrenergic stimulation
26
What type of pain is associated w/ breakthrough spikes?
Cancer Pain (compression)
27
What are Tx options for multiple sclerosis?
IFN-beta, Glatiramer actetate, corticosteroids
28
How does IFN-beta MOA in MS?
Reduce BBB penetration of immune cells
29
What drugs can be used as abortive tx of migraines?
Acetaminophen + Caffeine, Triptans, Ergotamine they all cause vasoconstrictions
30
What drugs can be used for migraine prevention?
Antidepressants, anti-seizures, and beta-blockers
31
Describe Abeta fibers
Non-noxious (touch and pressure) and Fastest
32
Describe Adelta fibers
Pain, cold; myelinated; Fast; 1st pain reflex arc
33
Describe C fibers
Pain, Temp, Touch, Pressure, Itch; Unmyelinated and slow
34
Where do Adelta fibers terminate?
Lamina 1
35
Where do C fibers terminate?
Lamina 2
36
What is central sensitization?
It is an enhanced activity of the glutamate system
37
What are the 2 types of alkaloids that Opium contains?
Phenanthrenes and Benzylisopuinolines
38
What are the Phenanthrenes?
Morphine, Codeine, and Thebaine
39
What are the Benzylisopuinolines?
Noscapine and Papaverine
40
What determines the antagonist quality of the Phenanthrenes?
The bulkiness of the N-allyl group; bulkier = more antagonistic
41
What does methylation at the 3 position -OH of morphine produced?
Codeine - which has decreased potency
42
What does ketone formation at the 6th position -OH of morphine give?
Hydromorphone which has an increased activity
43
What metabolite of morphine is still potent?
Morphine-6-glucuronide
44
Where are phenanthrenes metabolized?
Liver
45
How are phenanthrenes excreted?
Glomerular filtration; 90% in 24hrs
46
What are the opioid receptors and their respective endogenous peptides that activate them the most?
Mu - Endorphins; Kappa - Kynorphins; Delta - Enkephalins; Orphanin Opioid Receptor/Nociceptin - Nociceptin/Orphanin FQ
47
What is a reason to not use Kappa opioid receptor agonists?
They cause dysphoria
48
What beta-endorphins act on the Mu-receptor?
Pro-opiomelanocortin (endogenous morphine)
49
Describe Signal Transduction of the Opioid Receptor
Presynaptically located and is Gi linked to dec cAMP so dec Ca2+ and dec release of NT; also linked to a K+ channel so causes hyperpolarization
50
Why do you use Hydromorphone post-op?
It is 4-5x more potent than morphine and has a >t1/2 than fentanyl
51
What drug do you give if they are opioid intolerant?
Meperidine
52
What receptors are affected by Buprenorphine?
Partial mu agonist, weak Kappa agonist, delta antagonist
53
What is the use of buprenorphine?
It is used to tx opioid withdrawal
54
What is the MOA of Tramadol?
It is a 5HT releaser and NE reuptake inhibitor, weak mu opioid agonist
55
What is 4x as potent as Tramadol
Its O-demthylated metabolite
56
What is Tapentadol?
A weak mu agonist and inhibits norepi reuptake
57
How should buprenorphine be administered for opioid misuse?
Oral admin
58
How should Naloxone be administered for opioid misuse?
IV admin
59
What are the Arylproprionic Acids?
Ibuprofen and naproxen
60
What are the Arylacetic acids?
Indomethacin and Diclofenac
61
What are the Enolic acids?
Piroxicam
62
What are the p-Aminophenols?
Acetaminophen
63
Where is COX2 constitutively expressed?
The brain and spinal cord. This is why it is induced in setting of inflammation
64
Where does ASA affect COX enzymes?
It acetylates Ser529
65
Where is ASA absorbed?
Jejunum
66
What is the difference b/w the t1/2 of ASA and Salicylate?
ASA = 15 mins; Salicylate = 12 hrs
67
How do you inc the excretion of ASA?
Give bicarb to inc the pH of urine. ASA is passively reabsorbed from tubule so if can deprotonate it won't diffuse through membranes
68
What are the methods of metabolism for nonsalicylate NSAIDs
1. oxidation, 2. Demethylation, 3. Conjugation
69
What is the major difference b/w ibu and naproxen?
t1/2: Ibu - 2 hrs, Naproxen - 14 hrs
70
What is the big risk w/ Diclofenac?
Peptic ulcers long term
71
What is one of the most potent reversible inhibitors of PG synthesis?
Indomethacin
72
What are the uses of Indomethacin?
Acute gouty arthritis, Ankylosing Spondylitis
73
What is Sulindac?
Less toxic indomethacin derivative
74
What are the uses of Sulindac?
RA and Ankylosing Spondylitis
75
What is the risk of p-Aminophenols?
Acute overdose can lead to fatal hepatic necrosis
76
How do you tx the gastric SE of salicylates?
Misoprostol a PGE1 analog
77
What are the affects of Salicylate OD
Metabolic acidosis w/ compensatory respiratory alkalosis
78
What do you give to tx salicylate OD?
Dextrose, Sodium Bicarbonate to inc urinary excretion
79
How does Acetominophen damage the kidneys?
It inhibits PGE2 which induces vasoconstriction and results in papillary necrosis
80
What is Leflunomide and MOA?
It is an antiproliferative agent that initiates G1 arrest to inhibit T-cell proliferation and B cell Ab production
81
What is Anakinra?
Recombinant IL-1 Receptor antagonist
82
What are absolute contraindications of anakinra?
Pre-existing malignancy and neutropenia
83
What are the TNF-alpha blocking agents?
Etanercept, Infliximab, adalimumab
84
What is Febuxostat?
It is a non-purine inhibitor of Xanthene oxidase
85
What is the MOA of Probenacid?
It competes for renal tubular anion transporter of uric acid and blocks reabsorption
86
What are the topical anesthetics that inhbit Na channels?
Lidocaine, Benzocaine, and Oxybuprocaine
87
What is the difference b/w Lidocaine and Bupivicaine?
Lido lasts 30min-2 hrs and Bupivicaine lasts 3.5 hs
88
What are the Na channel blockers that are also Tricyclic Antidepressants?
Amitryptiline, Carbamezipine, and Lamotrigine
89
What is a big risk of Lamotrigine?
Steven-Johnson Syndrome
90
What enzyme is impt for metabolism of TCA/SNRI?
CYP2D6
91
Where are TCA/SNRIs excreted?
Renal Excretion
92
Where are Ca Channels that can be affected in pain tx expressed
Nerve terminals
93
What are the CCBs for pain tx?
Gabapentin, Pregabalin, Ziconotide, and Levetiracetam
94
What is Qutenza?
It is used to desensitize a nerve and reduce expression of TRPV1
95
What is a risk of TRPV1 antagonists?
Hyperthermia b/c of heat intolerance