Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3a Everything > public_health_20231205142339 > Flashcards

public_health_20231205142339 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a case-control study?

A

A retrospective and observational study used to determine if there is an association between an exposure and a specific health outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the advantages of case-control studies?

A

Good for rare outcomes
Quicker than cohort or intervention studies
Can investigate multiple exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the disadvantages of case-control studies?

A

Difficulties finding controls to match with cases
Prone to selection and information bias
Cannot determine causality
Not good for rare exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

An epidemiological study where a group of individuals with a particular characteristic are followed up over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the advantages of a cohort study?

A

Can follow up a group with a rare exposure Good for common outcomes Can investigate multiple outcomes Less risk of selection and recall bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the disadvantages of a cohort study?

A

Takes a long time
Loss to follow up
Need a large sample size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a cross-sectional study?

A

An observational study that analyses data from a specific population at one point in time (snapshot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the advantages of a cross-sectional study?

A

Relatively cheap and quick
Provide data on prevalence at a single point in time
Large sample size
Good for surveillance and public health planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the disadvantages of a cross-sectional study?

A

Risk of reverse causality (did the exposure or outcome come first?)
Cannot measure incidence
Risk recall bias and non-response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a randomised controlled trial?

A

Subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups - one receiving the intervention that is being tested, and one receiving an alternative (conventional) intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the advantages of a RCT?

A

Low risk of bias and confounding
Can infer causality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the disadvantages of a RCT?

A

Time consuming
Expensive
Specific inclusion/exclusion criteria may mean the study population is different from typical patients
Drop outs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is selection bias?

A

A systematic error in the selection of study participants and allocation of participants to different study groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why does selection bias occur?

A

Non-response
Loss to follow up
Those in an intervention group might be different in some way to those in the control group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What types of information bias are there?

A

Measurement bias
Observer bias
Recall bias
Reporting bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is measurement bias?

A

Different equipment used to measure the outcome in the different groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is observer bias?

A

The researcher knows which participants are cases and which are controls and subconsciously reports the exposure or outcome differently depending on the group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is recall bias?

A

Events that happened in the past are not correctly remembered and reported accurately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is reporting bias?

A

Respondants report inaccurate information because they are embarassed or feel judged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is confounding?

A

A situation in which the estimate between an exposure and an outcome is distorted because of the association with another factor that is also independently associated with the outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is reverse causality?

A

A situation when an association between an exposure and an outcome could be due to the outcome causing the exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What factors increase the likelihood of causality?

A

Strength of association
Consistency of results
Dose-response association
Plausibility
Reversibility
Coherence with other information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purpose of screening?

A

Identifying apparently well individuals who have a particular disease in order to reduce adverse outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the disadvantages of screening?

A

Exposure of well individuals to distressing or harmful diagnostic tests Detection and treatment of sub-clinical disease that would never have caused any problems Preventative interventions that may cause harm to the individual or population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

The proportion of those with the disease who are correctly identified by the screening programme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is specificity?

A

The proportion of people without the disease who are correctly excluded by the screening programme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the positive predictive value?

A

Proportion of people with a positive test result who actually have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the negative predictive value?

A

Proportion of people with a negative test result who do not have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What makes a condition suitable for screening?

A

The condition should be an important health problem
The epidemiology and natural history of the condition should be well understood
Cost effective primary prevention measures should have been implemented as far as possible
If carriers of a mutation are identified, as well as disease, the implications of this should be understood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What makes a screening programme suitable?

A

Screening should be ongoing and not just performed on a one off basis
The costs of the programme should be balanced in relation to healthcare spending as a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What makes a test suitable for a screening programme?

A

There should be a simple, safe, precise and validated test
The distribution of test values in the target population should be known, and a suitable cutoff identified
The test should be acceptable to the population
There should be an agreed policy on further diagnostic investigations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What makes a treatment suitable for a condition being screened for?

A

There should be an effective treatment or intervention for patients identified through early detection
There should be evidence that early treatment leads to better outcomes
There should be a policy as to which individuals should be offered treatment
Clinical management of the condition should be optimised in all health care providers prior to screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is lead time bias?

A

When screening identifies an outcome earlier than it would otherwise have been, this results in an apparent increase in survival time, even if screening has no effect on the actual outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is length time bias?

A

Bias resulting from differences in the length of time taken for a condition to progress to severe effects, may affect the apparent efficacy of a screening method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the approaches to health needs assessment?

A

Epidemiological approach
Corporate approach
Comparative approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an epidemiological approach to health needs assessment?

A

An approach to health needs assessment based on:-
Disease incidence and prevalence
- Morbidity and mortality
- - Life expectnacy
- - Services available
- - Sources of data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the advanatages of an epidemiological approach?

A

Uses existing data
Provides data on disease incidence/mortality and morbidity
Can evaluate services by trends over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the disadvantages of an epidemiological approach?

A

Quality of data variable
Data collected may not be the data required
Does not consider the felt needs or opinions/experienes of the people affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a corporate approach to health needs assessment?

A

An approach to health needs assessment that asks the local population and a wide range of stakeholders what their health needs are - through focus groups, interbiews and public meeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the advantages of a corporate approach?

A

Based on the felt and expresed needs of the population in question
Recognises the detailed knowledge and experience of those working with the population
Takes into account a wide range of views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the disadvantages of a corporate approach?

A

Difficult to distinguish need from demand
Groups may have vested interests
May be influences by political agendas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a comparative approach to health needs assessment?

A

An approach to health needs assessment that compares the health or healthcare provision of one population to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the advantages of a comparative approach?

A

Quick and cheap if data is available
Indicates whether health or services provision is better/worse than comparable areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the disadvantages of a comparative approach?

A

May be difficult to find a comparable population
Data may not be high quality
May not yield what the most appropriate level of provision should be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is equity?

A

Equity is about what is fair and just

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the Dahlgren and whitehead determinants of health?

A

Constitutional factors, age and sex
Individual lifestyle factors
Social and community networks
Living and working conditions
General socio-economic, cultural and environmental conditions

47
Q

What is equality?

A

Equality is concerned with equal shares

48
Q

What is horizontal equity?

A

Equal treatment for equal need

49
Q

What is vertical equity?

A

Unequal treatment for unequal need

50
Q

How can health equity be examined?

A

Supply of healthcareAccess to healthcare Utilisation of healthcare Healthcare outcomes Health status Resource allocation Education and housing Wider determinants of health

51
Q

What are the three domains of public health practice?

A

Health improvement
Health protection
Health care

52
Q

What are the approaches to improving public health?

A

Ecological level
Community level
Individual level

53
Q

What are the three main health behaviours?

A

Health behaviour
Illness behaviour
Sick role behaviour

54
Q

What is health behaviour?

A

A behaviour aimed to prevent disease

55
Q

What is illness behaviour?

A

A behaviour aimed to seek remedy

56
Q

What is sick role behaviour?

A

Any activity aimed at getting well

57
Q

What is unrealistic optimism?

A

Individuals continue to practice health damaging behaviour due to inaccurate perceptions of risk and susceptibility

58
Q

What are perceptions of risk influenced by?

A

Lack of personal experience with the problem
Belief that it is preventable by personal action
Belief that if it has not happened by now, it is not likely to
Belief that the problem is infrequent

59
Q

What is the health belief model?

A

Individuals will change if they:- Believe they are susceptible to the condition - Believe that is has serious consequences - Believe that taking action reduces susceptibility - Believe that the benefits of taking action outweight the costs

60
Q

What is the theory of planned behaviour?

A

Proposes that the best predictor of behaviour is intention

61
Q

What is intention determined by?

A

A persons attitude to the behaviour
The preceived social pressure to undertake the behaviour
A persons appraisal of their ability to perform the behaviour

62
Q

What are the stages of the transtheoretical model?

A

Precontemplation Contemplation Preparation Action Maintenance

63
Q

What are the advantages of the transtheoretical model?

A

Acknowledges individual stages of readiness
Accounts for relapse
Temporal element

64
Q

What are the critiques of the transtheoretical model?

A

Not all people move through every stage
Change might operate on a continuum rather than in discrete stages
Doesn’t take into account values, habits, culture, social and economic factors

65
Q

What types of transition points are interventions more likely to be effective in behaviour change?

A

Leaving school
Entering the workforce
Becoming a parent
Becoming unemployed
Retirement and bereavement

66
Q

What is malnutrition?

A

Deficiencies, excesses or imbalances in a perons’s intake of energy and or nutrients - covers undernutrition and being overweight/obese

67
Q

What are the early influences on feeding/eating behaviour?

A

Maternal diet and taste preference development
Breastfeeding
Parenting practices
Ages of introduction of solid food
Types of food exposed to during weaning

68
Q

What is food poverty?

A

Experiencing one or more of the following:- Having smaller meals than usual or skipping meals - Being hungry but not eating - Not eating for a whole day Due to being unable to afford or access food

69
Q

What are the four dimensions of food insecurity?

A

Availability (affordability) of foodAccess - economic and physicalUtilisation - opportunity to prepare food Stability of the three dimensions over time

70
Q

What is the inverse care law?

A

Good healthcare varies inversely with the need for healthcare

71
Q

What is health needs assessment?

A

A systematic approach for reviewing health issues affecting a population in order to enable agreed priorities and resource allocation to improve health and reduce inequalities

72
Q

What are the three areas of health needs assessment?

A

Need Demand Supply

73
Q

What are the types of need?

A

Felt need
Expressed need
Normative need
Comparative need

74
Q

What is egalitarian resource allocation?

A

Providing all care that is necessary and required for everyone

75
Q

What is maximising resource allocation?

A

Act is evaluated solely in terms of its consequences

76
Q

What is libertarian resource allocation?

A

Each is responsible for their own health

77
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Preventing a disease from occuring in the first place

78
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

Eearly identification of the disease to alter disease course

79
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Limiting the consequences of an established disease

80
Q

What is a population approach to prevention?

A

The prevention approach is delivered to everyone to shift the risk factor distribution curve

81
Q

What is a high risk approach to prevention?

A

Identify individuals above a chosen cut off and treat them

82
Q

What is prevention paradox?

A

A preventative measure which brings much benefit to the population often offers little impact to each participating individual

83
Q

What are the harms of screening?

A

Over treatment
Treatment risks - invasive treatment
Difficult decisions
Anxiety or false reassurance
Incorrect results
Incidental findings that would not have been of harm

84
Q

What are the benefits of screening?

A

Early detection of disease
Better future health
More effective treatment
Reassurance
Informed decision

85
Q

What screening programmes exist in the UK?

A

Pregnancy - Sickle cell and thalassaemia - Infectious disease- Fetal anomaly screening Newborns - NIPE - Hearing screening programme - Blood spot screening AAA Breast cancer Cervical cancer Bowel cancer Diabetic eye

86
Q

What is length time bias?

A

Occurs when screening is more likely to detect slow growing disease that has a long phase without symptoms

87
Q

What is lead time bias?

A

Occurs when patients diagnosed earlier appear to live longer because they know they have the disease for longer

88
Q

What is odds?

A

Probability of the event occurring divided by the probability that the event does not occur

89
Q

What is an odds ratio?

A

Odds of an event, divided by the odds of another event

90
Q

What does an odds ratio 1 mean?

A

No association betwen condition and event occurrence

91
Q

What does an odds ratio of more than 1 mean?

A

The event’s odds are high for the group/condition - risk factor for event

92
Q

What does an odds ratio of less than 1 mean?

A

The proability of the outcome occurring is lower for the group/condition - protective factor for outcome

93
Q

What are the bradford-hill criteria?

A

Strength
Consistency
Dose response
Temporality
Plausibility
Reversibility
Coherence
Analogy
Specificity

94
Q

What are some causes of association?

A

Bias
Confounding factors
Chance
Reverse causality
True association

95
Q

What is incidence?

A

The number of new cases in population in a given amount of time

96
Q

What is prevalence?

A

The current percentage of people with the condition in the population

97
Q

What is relative risk?

A

Risk among exposed group divided by the risk in the unexposed group

98
Q

What is attributable risk?

A

Works out how much of the event occurs because of the exposure (subtract the risk of the control group from the exposed group)

99
Q

What is the number needed to treat?

A

The number of patients you need to treat for one to benefit (1 divided by absolute risk)

100
Q

What are perceptions of risk influenced by?

A

Lack of personal experience with the problem
Belief that it is preventable by personal action
Belief that if it has not happened by now, it’s not likely to
Belief that the problem is infrequent

101
Q

What is a transition point?

A

A point at which interventions are thought to be more effective

102
Q

What are the models of behaviour change?

A

Healthy belief model
Theory of planned behaviour
Stages of change/transtheoretical model

103
Q

What is the health belief model?

A

Individuals will change their behaviour if they believe that:
- Benefits of the action outweight the cost
- - They are susceptible to the condition
- - There are serious consequences
- - Taking action reduced susceptibility

104
Q

What is the theory of planned behaviour?

A

There are three factors that determine health behaviour:
- Attitude towards behaviour
- - Subjective norm
- - Perceived behavioural control - belief that they can perform the behaviour

105
Q

What is the advantage of the theory of planned behaviour?

A

It takes into account social influences on behaviour

106
Q

What are the stages of the transtheoretical model?

A

Pre-contemplation Contemplation Preparation Action Maintenance (potential) relapse

107
Q

What can you offer to a newly presenting drug user?

A

Screening for blood bourne viruses
Health check
Sexual health advice
Immunisations

108
Q

What are the dimensions of food insecurity?

A

Availability Access Utilisation - opportunity to prepare food

109
Q

What are errors in practice?

A

Sloth error - being lazy
Lack of skill
Communication breakdown
System failure
Human factors
Judgement failure
Neglect
Poor performance
Misconduct

110
Q

How is an error classified?

A

Intention
Action - what task was supposed to be done
Outcome - near miss? death?
Context

111
Q

What is negligence?

A

4 parts:
- Proven duty of care
- - Breach in duty of acre
- - Was the patient harmed?
- - Was the harm because of the breach?

112
Q

What is bolam and bolitho?

A

Bolam - would a group of reasonable doctors do the same Bolitho - would that be reasonable

113
Q

What is a never event?

A

A serious largely preventable patient safety incident - should not occur if the available preventative measures have been implemented

114
Q

What is a person approach?

A

Holds one person accountable

Phase 3a Everything (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions