Public Health Admin Flashcards
Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) is considered a foreign animal disease in the USA. However, the USA is currently experiencing a CEM outbreak (as of December 2024). Which one or more of the following countries does APHIS consider CEM-affected?
a. Ireland
b. Mexico
c. Japan
d. South Africa
e. Qatar
a. Ireland
c. Japan
d. South Africa
https://www.aphis.usda.gov/regionalization-evaluation-services/region-health-status
Which of the following is a Tier 1 select agent on both the Health and Human Services (HHS) and the USDA Veterinary Services (VS) Select Agents and Toxins list?
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Brucella abortus
c. Marburg virus
d. Rinderpest virus
e. Rift Valley fever virus
a. Bacillus anthracis
https://www.selectagents.gov/sat/list.htm
Of those listed, which control method is most preferred for protecting employees from workplace hazards?
a. Exposure and worker health monitoring
b. Administrative controls
c. Engineering controls
d. Personal protective equipment
c. Engineering controls
https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/hierarchy-of-controls/about/index.html
The World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH) is headquartered where?
a. Washington D.C., USA
b. Geneva, Switzerland
d. New York City, USA
e. Paris, France
e. Paris, France
https://www.woah.org/en/home/
The Animal Welfare Act regulates the care and treatment of which one or more of the following animals?
a. Rabbit in a research laboratory
b. Privately-owned cat
c. Iguana for sale at the pet store
d. Goat raised for meat
e. Mouse in a research laboratory
a. Rabbit in a research laboratory
https://www.nal.usda.gov/animal-health-and-welfare/animal-welfare-act
https://www.nal.usda.gov/animal-health-and-welfare/animal-welfare-act#:~:text=The%20term%20%E2%80%9Canimal%E2%80%9D%20means%20any,pet%3B%20but%20such%20term%20excludes%20(
-The AWA does not cover animals used for food, fiber (including fur), or other agricultural purposes. The AWA also does not cover privately owned pets, carriage horses, or hunting activities.
- The AWA excludes cold blooded species, mice, and rats
The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service is an agency within the Department of _______, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration is an agency within the Department of ____.
a. Interior, Agriculture
b. Interior, Commerce
c. Agriculture, Health and Human Services
d. Agriculture, Commerce
e. Commerce, Agriculture
b. Interior, Commerce
https://www.fws.gov/
https://www.noaa.gov/
In the past five years, which one or more of the following US states has experienced an outbreak of Rabbit Hemorrhagic Disease Virus type Two (RHDV-2) in its wild rabbit populations?
a. New York
b. Florida
c. Colorado
d. Washington
c. Colorado
d. Washington
https://agr.wa.gov/about-wsda/news-and-media-relations/news-releases?article=40206
https://www.aphis.usda.gov/livestock-poultry-disease/rabbit-hemorrhagic-disease-map
https://www.avma.org/news/rabbit-hemorrhagic-diseases-spread-appears-be-slowing
Which of the following is a one-host tick:
a. Hyalomma marginatum
b. Amblyomma americanum
c. Ixodes pacificus
d. Rhipicephalus annulatus
d. Rhipicephalus annulatus
https://www.cdc.gov/dpdx/ticks/index.html
Which one or more of the following are currently (January 2022) considered to be high-risk countries for importing dog rabies into the United States? (week 3)
a. Mexico
b. Dominican Republic
c. Romania
d. Turkey
e. Russia
f. South Africa
b. Dominican Republic
d. Turkey
e. Russia
f. South Africa
https://www.cdc.gov/importation/dogs/high-risk-countries.html
Among all weather-related hazards, which type is responsible for the greatest number of annual human deaths?
a. Wildfire
b. Flooding
c. Avalanche
d. Lightening
e. Extreme heat
f. Extreme cold
e. Extreme heat
https://www.ready.gov/heat
The World Organization For Animal Health (WOAH, used to be called OIE) was formed in response to an outbreak of which disease?
a. Classical Swine Fever
b. Foot-and-Mouth Disease
c. Rift Valley Fever
d. Rinderpest
e. Surra
d. Rinderpest
https://www.woah.org/en/woah-turns-100-a-century-of-improving-animal-health-and-welfare/a-century-strong-our-history/#:~:text=The%20far%2Dreaching%20consequences%20of,complete%20eradication%20of%20the%20disease.
Which agency is responsible for administration and enforcement of the Country of Origin Labeling (COOL) program?
a. APHIS
b. AMS
c. ARS
d. FSIS
b. AMS
https://www.ams.usda.gov/rules-regulations/cool
Which of the following positions is not part of the command staff within the incident command system structure?
a. Liaison officer
b. Safety officer
c. Planning chief
d. Public information officer
c. Planning chief
https://training.fema.gov/emiweb/is/icsresource/assets/ics%20organizational%20structure%20and%20elements.pdf
Mycobacterium bovis is the etiologic agent in what percentage of human tuberculosis cases in the United States today?
a. M. bovis doesn’t cause tuberculosis in people
b. <2%
c. 10%
d. 25%
e. 50%
b. <2%
https://www.cdc.gov/tb/about/m-bovis.html
The Horse Protection Act is concerned with eliminating which practice?
a. Administration of performance-enhancing drugs to racehorses
b. Slaughter and processing of horses for human consumption
c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibitions, sales or auctions
d. Abandonment of unwanted horses
c. Participation of sored horses in shows, exhibitions, sales or auctions
https://www.aphis.usda.gov/hpa#:~:text=The%20Horse%20Protection%20Act%20is,to%20accentuate%20a%20horse’s%20gait.
The National Poultry Improvement Plan was originally implemented to eliminate which organism (down to the biovar) as a source of disease in poultry?
a. Salmonella typhoid
b. Salmonella pullorum
c. Salmonella enteritidis
d. Salmonella typhimurium
b. Salmonella pullorum
https://www.poultryimprovement.org/
As of today (December 2024), which one or more of the following states have not had a confirmed case of HPAI in a dairy cattle herd?
a. Colorado
b. Idaho
c. Georgia
d. New Mexico
c. Georgia
https://www.aphis.usda.gov/livestock-poultry-disease/avian/avian-influenza/hpai-detections/hpai-confirmed-cases-livestock
Of the following animals, which is least likely to show clinical signs if infected with Foot and Mouth Disease?
a. Pig
b. Dairy cow
c. Sheep
d. Beef cow
c. Sheep
https://www.cfsph.iastate.edu/Infection_Control/FADs/FMD_response_package.pdf
Which one or more of the following is not implemented and enforced by the Food and Drug Administration?
a. Food Safety Modernization Act
b. Egg Products Inspection Act
c. Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
d. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
e. Poultry Products Inspection Act
b. Egg Products Inspection Act
c. Humane Methods for Slaughter Act
e. Poultry Products Inspection Act
https://www.fda.gov/food/guidance-regulation-food-and-dietary-supplements/food-safety-modernization-act-fsma
https://www.fsis.usda.gov/policy/food-safety-acts
https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/laws-enforced-fda/federal-food-drug-and-cosmetic-act-fdc-act
The FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM) does not regulate which one or more of the following products:
a. Pet food
b. Bone screws designed for veterinary use
c. Veterinary Vaccines
d. Medicated feed
c. Veterinary Vaccines
https://www.fda.gov/about-fda/fda-organization/center-veterinary-medicine
Which one or more of the following diseases is known to be transmittable to humans through contact with animal birthing and reproductive tissues, such as at a live-birth exhibit at a county fair? (all but D)
a. Brucellosis
b. Q Fever
c. Leptospirosis
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Listeriosis
d. Toxoplasmosis
https://www.nasphv.org/Documents/AnimalsInPublicSettings2023.pdf
Exposure to rabid animals of which species is responsible for the vast majority (99%) of human rabies deaths worldwide?
a. Bats
b. Skunks
c. Mongoose
d. Dog
d. Dog
https://www.cdc.gov/rabies/about/index.html
. Which one or more of the following are not considered to be among the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA) six criteria air pollutants?
a. Lead
b. Atmospheric ozone
c. Sulfur Dioxide
d. Carbon monoxide
e. Benzene
b. Atmospheric ozone
e. Benzene
https://www.epa.gov/americaschildrenenvironment/environments-and-contaminants-criteria-air-pollutants#:~:text=adverse%20health%20effects.-,The%20six%20most%20common%20air%20pollutants%20are%20called%20%E2%80%9Ccriteria%E2%80%9D%20air,nitrogen%20dioxide%2C%20and%20sulfur%20dioxide.
- Note: Ground level ozone is “bad” and one of the six criteria air pollutants. However, ozone in the atmosphere in general/overall is necessary to protect us from UV radiation. This was a bit of an unintended tricky question- I should have said “Stratospheric” ozone (which is good) since the atmosphere includes ground level as well as all the upper levels. I blame it on never taking an earth science class in my life and not knowing the layers of the earth’s atmosphere. My bad.
Which of the following drugs may be used extralabel, in some circumstances, in a food-producing animal?
a. Clenbuterol
b. Phenylbutazone
c. Vancomycin
d. Diethylstilbestrol
e. Nitrofurazone
b. Phenylbutazone
http://www.farad.org/prohibited-and-restricted-drugs.html
- All the other choices are Group I Drugs that have zero allowable extra-label uses in any food-producing animal species.
If everything else remains constant, the positive predictive value (PPV) of a specific diagnostic test will be the greatest in which situation?
a. The disease prevalence in the population is high.
b. The disease prevalence in the population is low.
c. The PPV of a test is specific to the test itself and doesn’t depend on disease prevalence.
d. The test is considered highly sensitive.
a. The disease prevalence in the population is high.
https://online.stat.psu.edu/stat507/book/export/html/692
Which of the following best defines a centralized public health system?
a. Local health departments are led by state employees
b. Local health departments are led by local government employees
c. Local health departments are led by both state and local employees with shared authority
d. Local health departments are led by both local and tribal employees with shared authority
a. Local health departments are led by state employees
With the new recommendations for rabies pre-exposure prophylaxis released in 2022, most veterinarians, if they are now being pre-exposure vaccinated against rabies for the first time should receive:
a. Two vaccine doses on days 0 and 7
b. Two vaccine doses on days 0 and 14
c. Three vaccine doses on days 0, 7, and 14
d. HRIG and three vaccine doses on days 0, 7, and 14
a. Two vaccine doses on days 0 and 7
Most immunocompetent veterinarians who have previously been vaccinated to protect against rabies should (select all that apply):
a. Have their serum titers checked every six months, with a booster vaccination administered if serum titers are less than 0.5 IU/mL
b. Have their serum titers checked every other year, with a booster vaccination administered if serum titers are less than 0.5 IU/mL
c. A one-time titer check one year after completion of the primary rabies vaccination series
d. Receive one rabies booster 3 weeks to 3 years after the first vaccine of the primary rabies vaccination series
c. A one-time titer check one year after completion of the primary rabies vaccination series
d. Receive one rabies booster 3 weeks to 3 years after the first vaccine of the primary rabies vaccination series
Which of the following is the reservoir for the Sin Nombre virus found in the southwestern United States?
a. Lone Star tick
b. Brown dog tick
c. Cotton rat
d. Chipmunk
e. Deer mouse
e. Deer mouse
Marburg Virus Disease (MVD):
a. Is caused by infection with either the Marburg virus or Ravn virus.
b. Can be transmitted through direct contact and airborne transmission.
c. Can be seen in people who have had close contact with infected West African rats.
d. Can be prevented with use of an FDA-approved vaccine.
e. Poses limited risk of transmission within healthcare facilities.
a. Is caused by infection with either the Marburg virus or Ravn virus.
https://www.cdc.gov/han/2024/han00517.html
Which of the following definitions below is correct?
a. Vaccine efficacy is how well a vaccine prevents illness in a clinical trial and vaccine effectiveness is how well a vaccine prevents illness with real-world use.
b. Vaccine efficacy is how well a vaccine prevents illness with real-world use and vaccine effectiveness is how well a vaccine prevents illness in a clinical trial.
c. Vaccine efficacy and vaccine effectiveness are interchangeable terms; both speak to how well a vaccine prevents illness in a clinical trial.
d. Vaccine efficacy and vaccine effectiveness are interchangeable terms; both speak to how well a vaccine prevents illness with real world use.
a. Vaccine efficacy is how well a vaccine prevents illness in a clinical trial and vaccine effectiveness is how well a vaccine prevents illness with real-world use.
Which of the following is a public health recommendation when consuming hunter-harvested meat from species susceptible to chronic wasting disease (CWD)?
a. Deer and elk harvested from counties where CWD has not been detected are considered safe for human consumption.
b. Hunter-harvested meat should not be consumed by those less than 5 years of age, those over 65 years of age, and those who are immunosuppressed.
c. Deer and elk looking sick, acting strange, or found dead should not be consumed.
d. Hunter-harvested meat is a valuable protein source which should be widely consumed as CWD poses no zoonotic potential.
e. Deer and elk that test negative for CWD are considered safe for human consumption.
c. Deer and elk looking sick, acting strange, or found dead should not be consumed.
Which USDA program oversees the oral rabies vaccination program?
a. Animal Care
b. Biotechnology Regulatory Services
c. International Services and Trade Support
d. Veterinary Services
e. Wildlife Services
e. Wildlife Services
Importation of which of the following is overseen by CDC Global Migration and Quarantine (select all that apply)?
a. African rodents
b. Equids
c. Pet dogs and cats
d. Pet pigs
e. Small ruminants
a. African rodents
c. Pet dogs and cats
) Which one of the following Clade I Monkeypox virus (MPXV) statements is true?
a. Clade I MPXV has not yet been detected in the United States.
b. Clade I MPXV infections have a similar clinical presentation as Clade II MPXV infections.
c. Clade I MPXV infections were responsible for the global mpox outbreak that began in May 2022.
d. The JYNNEOS vaccine does not provide protection against Clade I MPXV infections.
e. CDC’s laboratories are the only laboratories that can perform testing for Clade I MPXV infections.
b. Clade I MPXV infections have a similar clinical presentation as Clade II MPXV infections.
) To protect traveler health and prevent the spread of certain infectious diseases, CDC can (select all that apply):
a. Issue Travel Health Notices to inform travelers about global health risks during outbreaks, special events or gatherings, and natural disasters.
b. Add people with serious contagious diseases to the Do Not Board list, in collaboration with the Department of Homeland Security.
c. Legally detain any person who may have a communicable disease that is specified by Executive Order.
d. Require medical examination and isolation or quarantine for a period of time to prevent the spread of disease.
e. All of the above.
e. All of the above.
https://wwwnc.cdc.gov/travel/notices
https://www.cdc.gov/port-health/travel-restrictions/index.html
https://www.cdc.gov/port-health/stations/index.html
Listeriosis (select all that apply):
a. Is the leading cause of foodborne illness deaths in the U.S.
b. Can be associated with consumption of sliced deli meats
c. Is readily diagnosed through culturing stool samples from ill people
d. Has an incubation period of more than two months
e. Outbreaks are primarily linked to human-to-human transmission
b. Can be associated with consumption of sliced deli meats
https://www.cdc.gov/listeria/about/index.html
The FSIS recall issued in July 2024 in association with Boar’s Head Provisions Co. Ready-To-Eat Liverwurst and Other Deli Meat Products Due to Possible Listeria Contamination was
a. Class I: High to Medium Risk Recall
b. Class II: Low Risk Recall
c. Class III: Marginal Risk Recall
a. Class I: High to Medium Risk Recall
https://www.fsis.usda.gov/food-safety/safe-food-handling-and-preparation/food-safety-basics/understanding-fsis-food-recalls
https://www.fsis.usda.gov/recalls-alerts/boars-head-provisions-co–recalls-ready-eat-liverwurst-and-other-deli-meat-products
In October 2024, the pathogen causing illness after consumption of slivered onions served on McDonald’s Quarter Pounder hamburgers was:
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Salmonella Braenderup
d. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli O157:H7
d. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli O157:H7
https://www.fda.gov/food/outbreaks-foodborne-illness/outbreak-investigation-e-coli-o157h7-onions-october-2024?randparam=582662
A dog bites a person. From a rabies perspective, your advice is to:
a. Recommend that the dog be observed for 10 days after the bite
b. Recommend that the dog be vaccinated, confined, and observed for 45 days after the bite
c. Recommend euthanasia
d. Confirm the dog’s rabies vaccination history before making a recommendation
e. No action is needed as rabies in dogs occurs rarely in the U.S.
a. Recommend that the dog be observed for 10 days after the bite
A person had direct contact with a bat that is unavailable for rabies testing. This person has not previously been vaccinated for rabies and is apparently immunocompetent. What are your recommendations for rabies post-exposure prophylaxis?
a. No HRIG; rabies vaccinations on days 0 and 3
b. HRIG on day 0; rabies vaccinations on days 0 and 3
c. No HRIG; rabies vaccinations on days 0, 3, 7, and 14
d. HRIG on day 0; rabies vaccinations on days 0, 3, 7, and 14
e. HRIG on day 0; rabies vaccinations on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 28
d. HRIG on day 0; rabies vaccinations on days 0, 3, 7, and 14
https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/hcp/acip-recs/vacc-specific/rabies.html
) The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices:
a. Regulates the development and use of human vaccines that can be used in the U.S.
b. Sets U.S. adult and childhood immunization schedules
c. Develops recommendations for the use of vaccines in the U.S. general population
d. Conducts biomedical research to determine the safety and efficacy of developmental vaccine products
e. Advocates against requiring childhood vaccinations due to the risk of autism development
c. Develops recommendations for the use of vaccines in the U.S. general population
During emergencies, pet evacuation and transportation responsibilities fall under which Emergency Support Function (ESF)?
a. ESF 6: Mass Care
b. ESF 8: Public Health and Medical Services
c. ESF 9: Search and Rescue
d. ESF 11: Agriculture and Natural Resources
a. ESF 6: Mass Care
People can become exposed to Francisella tularensis through (select all that apply):
a. Deer fly bites
b. Direct contact with infected lagomorphs
c. Inhaling contaminated aerosols
d. Tick bites
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
https://www.cdc.gov/tularemia/index.html
From a public health perspective, which of the following definitions is correct:
a. Isolation is the separation of potentially exposed people from others and quarantine is the separation of sick people from others.
b. Isolation is the separation of sick people from others and quarantine is the separation of potentially exposed people from others.
c. Isolation and quarantine are terms that can be used interchangeably; both mean the separation of sick people from others.
d. Isolation and quarantine are terms that can be used interchangeably; both mean the separation of potentially exposed people from others.
b. Isolation is the separation of sick people from others and quarantine is the separation of potentially exposed people from others.
Name the five biologic agents that are being removed from the list of regulated select agents and toxins.
Brucella abortus
Brucella melitensis
Brucella suis
African horse sickness virus
Peronosclerospora philippinensis (also known as Peronosclerospora sacchari) (plant virus)
Why is pharmaceutical treatment of dogs for B. canis considered controversial from the public health standpoint?
B. canis may persist in an animal even after antibiotic treatment
As of December 2024, the drug xylazine is not a Federally controlled substance under the Controlled Substance Act (CSA), so the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) does not currently have authority to control its use. However within the last few years, some states have opted to add xylazine to their list of controlled drugs, and xylazine may become a Federally controlled substance in the near future?
a. Why kind of drug is xylazine, and why is it considered a threat to public health in the USA?
b. Xylazine is authorized for use in humans for what medical purpose(s)?
c. Why is xylazine an important drug for use in veterinary practice?
a. Xylazine is a non-opioid sedative or tranquilizer for use in veterinary medicine, it is increasingly being found in illegal drugs
b. not approved for use in people
c. it is a safe and effective drug used in multiple species
The use of telemedicine in veterinary medicine has grown exponentially over the past decade and is likely here to stay. Please list two pros and two cons associated with the use of veterinary telemedicine?
Pros:
improved access to care
decreased wait time
etc.
Cons:
inability to perform physical exam
follow up concerns
legal concerns in some states
etc.
. Of the following species, which one is most likely to amplify and shed massive amounts of virus when infected with Foot and Mouth Disease virus, serving as a considerable source of contagion for other susceptible animal species?
a. Pig
b. Horse
c. Sheep
d. Cow
a. Pig
https://www.cfsph.iastate.edu/Infection_Control/FADs/FMD_extension_factsheet.pdf
Pigs = amplifier species, Cattle = sentinel species, Sheep/Goats = Maintenance species
Product “X” is recalled once the FDA determines that there is a high probability that the use of this product will result in serious adverse health effects to the user. Which class of recall did the FDA initiate?
a. Class I recall
b. Class II recall
c. Class III recall
d. Class IV recall
a. Class I recall
https://www.fda.gov/safety/industry-guidance-recalls/recalls-background-and-definitions
Approximately how often is the Agriculture Improvement Act (“Farm Bill”) updated?
a. Yearly
b. Every other year
c. Every five years
d. Every 10 years
c. Every five years
https://www.ers.usda.gov/topics/farm-bill/2024-farm-bill/
There are four general groups of people that are considered to be at increased risk of zoonotic disease. Name these four groups.
Young, Old, Pregnant, Immunocompromised
https://www.foodsafety.gov/people-at-risk
- Which disease is a person most likely to develop after consuming raw or undercooked bear meat?
a. Tularemia
b. Trichinosis
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Toxocariasis
c. Taeniasis
b. Trichinosis
https://www.avma.org/resources/public-health/disease-precautions-hunters#tularemia
https://www.health.state.mn.us/diseases/trichinosis/trichinosis.html
As of December 2024, which one or more of these states have experienced a detection of Haemaphysalis longicornis?
a. Ohio
b. South Dakota
c. Nevada
d. Tennessee
a. Ohio
d. Tennessee
https://www.aphis.usda.gov/livestock-poultry-disease/cattle/ticks/asian-longhorned
Who is considered the father of modern epidemiology?
a. Anthony Fauci
b. Robert Koch
c. John Snow
d. Edward Jenner
e. Louis Pasteur
c. John Snow
https://blogs.cdc.gov/publichealthmatters/2017/03/a-legacy-of-disease-detectives/
The first priority of the National Animal Vaccine and Veterinary Countermeasures Bank (NAVVCB) is to increase the U.S. stockpile of which animal vaccine (in a concentrate form)?
a. African Swine Fever
b. Foot and Mouth Disease
c. Exotic Newcastle Disease
d. Avian Influenza
b. Foot and Mouth Disease
https://www.aphis.usda.gov/animal-emergencies/navvcb
Which one or more of the following organisms would you reasonably study and work with in a BSL-3 laboratory?
a. SARS CoV-2
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Marburg virus
e.Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
f. West Nile Virus
a. SARS CoV-2
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Yersinia pestis
f. West Nile Virus
https://www.cdc.gov/training/quicklearns/biosafety/
https://www.cdc.gov/covid/php/lab/index.html
Which of these foods should be cooked to the highest temperature (at minimum) before consuming?
a. Fish filet
b. Ground beef
c. Ground turkey
d. Pork chop
c. Ground turkey
https://www.fsis.usda.gov/food-safety/safe-food-handling-and-preparation/food-safety-basics/safe-temperature-chart
Which tick species is most associated with Alpha-gal Syndrome in humans?
a. Brown dog tick
b. Gulf Coast Tick
c. Lone Star Tick
d. Rock Mountain wood tick
e. Blacklegged deer tick
c. Lone Star Tick
https://www.cdc.gov/alpha-gal-syndrome/about/index.html
NARMS conducts serotyping, antimicrobial susceptibility testing, and/or genetic analysis on isolates of what four bacteria from retail meat and seafood samples?
a. Campylobacter, Enterococcus, Salmonella, Shigella
b. Enterococcus, E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella
c. Campylobacter, E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella
d. Campylobacter, Enterococcus, E. coli, Salmonella
d. Campylobacter, Enterococcus, E. coli, Salmonella
https://www.cdc.gov/narms/about/index.html
From most effective to least effective, please list the following actions that could be taken to control workplace hazardous exposures?
a. Exposure and worker health monitoring
b. Administrative controls
c. Engineering controls
d. Personal protective equipment
e. Elimination
Correct order: E, C, B, D, A
Choice “A” isn’t technically a control method and instead is a secondary line of defense that may help with decision-making for future potential hazardous exposure events and help measure exposures that already occurred.
https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/hierarchy-of-controls/about/index.html
https://www.osha.gov/sites/default/files/Hierarchy_of_Controls_02.01.23_form_508_2.pdf
Which of the following constitute extralabel use of an approved drug (Drug A)?
a. Drug A is given SQ to Daisy the dairy goat and is labeled for use in bovines but not for use in caprines.
b. Drug A is used to treat a bacterial urinary tract infection in Fluffy the cat, but the drug label only states that Drug A is to be used in cats to treat skin infections caused by susceptible strains of Pasteurella multocida.
c. The drug label says to administer Drug A IM every 8 hours, but Bob works 12-hour shifts, so he administers a dose-and-a-half worth of Drug A IM every 12 hours instead.
d. The package insert for Drug A says to give a dog of Buster the dog’s weight one capsule every 12 hours for up to seven days, but Buster doesn’t seem 100% back to normal after seven days, so the veterinarian advises the owner to continue giving Drug A every 12 hours for another five days.
e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use
e. All of the above constitute extralabel drug use
https://www.fda.gov/animal-veterinary/resources-you/ins-and-outs-extra-label-drug-use-animals-resource-veterinarians
Which of the following products are regulated by the FDA? For the choices not regulated by the FDA, which agency regulates them?
a. Smart TVs
b. Pet food
c. Alcohol
d. Human vaccines
e. Heroin
f. Advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol
g. Children’s toys
a. Smart TVs
b. Pet food
d. Human vaccines
c. Alcohol (Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB),
e. Heroin (Drug Enforcement Administration)
f. Advertisement for regular-strength Tylenol (Federal Trade Commission)
g. Children’s toys (Consumer Product Safety Commission)
https://www.fda.gov/about-fda/what-we-do/what-does-fda-regulate
Because smart TVs emit radiation, the devices themselves are regulated by the FDA. However, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) regulates what is broadcast through the smart TVs.
The FDA regulates over-the-counter and prescription drugs themselves (as well as advertisements for prescription drugs), but the FTC regulates advertisements for over-the-counter drugs.
The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) regulates the illegal diversion of alcohol but not the alcohol itself.
According to the FDA, which one or more of the following animals is a minor species?
a. Turkey
b. Sheep
c. Pig
d. Cattle
e. Pheasant
f. Llama
g. Cat
h. Horse
b. Sheep
e. Pheasant
f. Llama
https://www.fda.gov/animal-veterinary/development-approval-process/minor-useminor-species
Recommendation for the disposition of animal by-products at U.S. Ports of Entry is the responsibility of:
a. U.S. Customs Service
b. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service -Veterinary Services
c. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service - Plant Protection and Quarantine
d. Foreign Agriculture Service
e. State Department of Agriculture of the state in which the port of entry is located
b. USDA Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service -Veterinary Services
Which one or more of the following human diseases are internationally quarantinable?
a. Chicken Pox
b. Measles
c. Polio
d. Cholera
e. Plague
f. Yellow Fever
b. Measles
d. Cholera
e. Plague
f. Yellow Fever
https://www.hhs.gov/answers/public-health-and-safety/what-diseases-are-subject-to-federal-isolation-and-quarantine-law/index.html
Which one or more of the following is incorrect
a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator.
b. An N100 respirator is expected to filter at least 99.97% of airborne particles but is not resistant to oils.
c. A P99 respirator has a longer certified service life than an R99 respirator.
d. All choices are correct.
a. Both an R95 respirator and a P95 respirator are expected to filter at least 95% of airborne particles, but the R95 respirator is expected to be more resistant to oils than the P95 respirator.
P = oil proof, R = oil resistant, N = not resistant to oils.
The service life of any respirator depends on the conditions under which it is being used, but “R respirators” are only to be used for up to one work shift while “P respirators” may be useable for multiple work shifts.
https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/docs/96-101/default.html
https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/npptl/topics/respirators/disp_part/default.html
Parallel testing, as opposed to serial testing, is more likely to be used in which one or more of the following situations.
a. Optimum specificity of the testing scheme is of utmost importance, even if it comes at the cost of decreased sensitivity.
b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false positives.
c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.
d. You want the fewest false positives possible, even if that means you have more false negatives.
e. You are more concerned about unnecessarily removing a disease-free (but test positive) animal than allowing a diseased animal to evade detection.
b. You want the fewest false negatives possible, even if that means you have more false positives.
c. The consequences of not identifying a diseased animal would be catastrophic.
https://blogs.extension.msstate.edu/theriskproject/principles-of-diagnostic-testing-series-part-5/
