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Preventive Medicine > Public Health > Flashcards

Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

[Paradigm of Health Promotion]

knowledge lies with experts; emphasis on giving information to bring about change

A

Traditional Perspective

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2
Q

[Paradigm of Health Promotion]

individuals are enabled to use their personal resources and skills to maximize their chances of developing of that they consider to be a healthy lifestyle

A

humanis

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3
Q

[Paradigm of Health Promotion]

individuals are encouraged to form social, organizational, and economic networks,

A

radical humanist

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4
Q

[Paradigm of Health Promotion]

structural inequalities are the cause of many health problems

A

radical structuralist perspective

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5
Q

[Beattie’s Analytical model of health promotion]

interventions directed at individuals led by professionals

A

health persuation

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6
Q

[Beattie’s Analytical model of health promotion]

led by professionals but intended to protect communities

A

legislative actions

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7
Q

[Beattie’s Analytical model of health promotion]

client led interventions and focused on personal development; health promoter is just the facilitator

A

personal counselling

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8
Q

[Beattie’s Analytical model of health promotion]

interventions seek to empower or enhance the skills of a group of a people or local community

A

community development

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9
Q

What are the components of Tannahill’s descriptive model?

A
  1. Health Education
  2. Prevention
  3. Health protection
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10
Q

[Transtheoretical model]

Not even thinking about changing

A

Precontemplation

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11
Q

[Transtheoretical model]

thinking about changing

A

contemplation

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12
Q

[Transtheoretical model]

getting ready, planning to take action within a month

A

preparation

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13
Q

[Transtheoretical model]

learning to control behavior

A

action

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14
Q

[Transtheoretical model]

learner stay committed by listing barriers during the action stage

A

maintenance

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15
Q

[Transtheoretical model]

termination of the undesired behavior

A

termination

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16
Q

Birth certificates must be filed within ___

A

within 30 days after birth

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17
Q

During epidemics, death certificates should be secured within ____

A

5 days from the day of burias

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18
Q

Except in pandemics, death certificates should be filed within ____

A

48 hours after death

except during epidemics

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19
Q

What are the circumstances wherein normal death certificate cannot be issued

A
  1. Suspicion of unnatural cause of death
  2. DOA
  3. Death occurred before full recovery from a surgical operation or the administration of anesthesi
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20
Q

During disasters/mass casualties, these substances are used to preserve dead bodies since they will affect identification

A
  1. Lime (calcium-containing minerals)
  2. Muriatic acid
  3. Potassium alum (tawas)
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21
Q

What are the phases of COPAR

A
  1. Pre-entry
  2. Entry
  3. Formation
  4. Organization-building
  5. Sustenance and strengthening
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22
Q

What are the components of Kubler Ross’ stages of death and dying

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
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23
Q

[Hospice/Palliative care]

The goal is to improve quality of life for both the patient and the family

A

Palliative care

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24
Q

[Hospice/Palliative care]

focuses on the quality of life for people and their caregiver who are experiencing an advanced, life-limiting illness

A

Hospice care

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25
Q

[Hospice/Palliative care]

Quality of life rather than length of life is the primary emphasis

A

hospice care

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26
Q

[Hospice/Palliative care]

offered and provided during their last phase of an incurable illness

A

hospice

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27
Q

What are the components of a five-star physician?

A
  1. Health care provider
  2. Teacher/Academician
  3. Researcher
  4. Social Mobilizer
  5. Administrator/Manager
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28
Q

[Parenting Style]

energetic, friendly, self-reliant, cheerful, achievement-oriented child

A

Democratic parenting

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29
Q

[Parenting Style]

unfriendly, conflicting, irritable, unhappy, unstable child

A

authoritarian parenting

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30
Q

[Parenting Style]

impulsive, rebellious, low achieving child

A

permissive parenting

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31
Q

[Parenting Style]

immature, psychologically troubled

A

rejecting parenting

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32
Q

[Parenting Style]

lonely, withdrawn, low achieving child

A

uninvolved parenting

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33
Q

[Levels of Orders of magnitude of change]

involve increments of mastery and adaptation; do not involve change in the main structure of the family, do not involve change in an individual’s identiy and self-image

A

first order changes

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34
Q

[Levels of Orders of magnitude of change]

involve transformation of individuals status and meaning; change in the very basic attributes of the family system; change in the role and identity of family members

A

Second order changes

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35
Q

What is the hallmark of a healthy family functioning?

A

ability to adapt to change

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36
Q

[Family life cycle]

young adult separates from the family of origin but without abandoning emotional refuge to that family

A

Unattached young adult

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37
Q

[Family life cycle]

transition of the couple from their family of origin and their lives as individual to the life of a couple

A

newly married couple

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38
Q

[Family life cycle]

starts with pregnancy for the first child to the emergence of adolescents

A

Family with young children

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39
Q

[Family life cycle]

First child reaches 12 years old

A

family with adolescents

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40
Q

[Family life cycle]

first child leaves home

A

launching family

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41
Q

[Family life cycle]

departure of the last child

A

families in later life

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42
Q

[Family illness trajectory]

most difficult stage for the patient

A

Stage I: onset of illness to diagnosis

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43
Q

[Family illness trajectory]

Most challenging and rewarding stage for the physician

A

Stage III major therapeutic efforts

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44
Q

[Family illness trajectory]

what are the stages of the family illness trajectory?

A

I - onset of illness to diagnosis

II - impact phaser-reaction to diagnosis

III - major therapeutic efforts

IV - early adjustment to outcome - recovery

V - adjustment to the permanency of outcome

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45
Q

What are the components of SPIKES model for breaking bad news?

A
  1. Setting
  2. Perception
  3. Invitation
  4. Knowledge
  5. Emotions
  6. Strategy
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46
Q

[Family Assessment tools]

tool used to learn about the family structure, and the more dynamic image of teh family

A

Family genogram

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47
Q

[Family Assessment tools]

gives information about the family illness, family members, inheritance patterns, family relationships, significant dates

A

Family genogram

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48
Q

What are the components of a family genogram

A
  1. Family Tree
  2. Family chart
  3. Family Illness/history
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49
Q

[Family Assessment tools]

tool used to rapidly screen for family dysfucntion; has adequate reliability and validity to measure one’s level of satisfaction with family relationship

A

Family APGAR

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50
Q

What are the indication of family APGAR?

A
  1. Family will be directly involved in caring for the patient
  2. Treating a new patient
  3. Treating a new patient whose family is in crisis
  4. When patient’s behavior makes you suspect a psychosocial problem due to family dysfunction
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51
Q

What are the components of family APGAR?

A
  1. Adaptation
  2. Partnership
  3. Growth
  4. Affection
  5. Resolve
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52
Q

[Family Assessment tools]

this tool facilitates the communication of information about the family and system in its dynamics to address psychosocial issues

A

Minuchin Family Map

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53
Q

What are the components of the Minuchin Family Map?

A
  1. Enmeshment
  2. Disengagement
  3. Triangulation
  4. Coalition
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54
Q

[Family Assessment tools]

tool used to assess the capacity to participate in provision of health care or to cope with crisis

A

SCREEM

Social, Cultural, Religious, Economic, Educational, Medical

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55
Q

[Family Assessment tools]

tool used to show significant events among family members over a period of time in a chronological sequence

A

Family Lifeline

used also for exploration of certain family issues

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56
Q

___ can be used to measure the rate of spread of an epidemic

A

Generation time

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57
Q

[Kind of host]

parasite reaches maturity; can reproduce sexually

A

Definitive

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58
Q

[Kind of host]

can harbor a pathogen indefinitely with no ill effects

A

reservoir

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59
Q

[Kind of host]

harbors the parasite for a short transition period; some developmental stage is completed

A

intermediate host

60
Q

[Kind of host]

dumps for non-mature stages of a parasite in which they can accumulate in high numbers; not needed for parasite development

A

paratenic host

61
Q

[Kind of host]

intermediate host that does not allow transmission to definitive host

A

incidental host

62
Q

[Kind of host]

host that is preferred by a parasite

A

host of predilection

63
Q

[Kind of host]

host in which the level of pathogen can become high enough that a vector that feeds on it will probably become infectious

A

Amplifying host

64
Q

Isolation would last for the period of _____ the illness which varies by disease

A

Period of communicability

65
Q

Quarantine would last for the period of ____ to ensure that the infected persons are not contagious

A

Incubation period

66
Q

___ refers to separation of sick people with contagious disease from people who are not sick

A

isolation

67
Q

___ refers to separation and restriction of movement of people who are exposed to a contagious disease to see if they become sick

A

quarantine

68
Q

What are the determinants of an increase of disease

A
  1. Exceeds the 95th percentile for 2 weeks
  2. More than 2x the incidence rate over the specified time period
  3. Dr. Ricardo’s index - comparison of the disease with the incidence for the last 5 years
69
Q

[Types of epidemic patterns]

More than 1 peak, but clustering is present;

many people exposed simultaneously

A

Common source outbreak

70
Q

[Types of epidemic patterns]

Single exposure, at the same time, brief

curve skewed to the right, no person to person spread,

A

point epidemic

71
Q

[Types of epidemic patterns]

epidemic curve has a long ascending limb, short descending limb

A

prolonged-progressive

72
Q

[Types of epidemic patterns]

both single common exposure, and secondary propagative spread to other individuals

A

Mixed epidemics

73
Q

What is the formula for attack rate?

A

Overall AR = Incidence

Overall AR = (new cases/total population) x 100

74
Q

What assesses contagiousness?

A

secondary attack rate

75
Q

What is the formula for secondary attack rate?

A

Secondary AR = (No. of new cases/total number of contacts) x 100

76
Q

What are the four pillars of primary health care approach?

A
  1. Active community Participation
  2. Intra and Inter-sectoral linkages
  3. Use of appropriate technology
  4. Support mechanism made available
77
Q

What are the elements of PHC?

A
  1. Education for health
  2. Locally endemic disease control
  3. Expanded program on immunization
  4. Maternal and child health and family planning
  5. Environmental sanitation and promotion of safe water supply
  6. Nutrition and promotion of adequate food supply
  7. Nutrition and promotion of adequate food supply
  8. Treatment of communicable diseases and common illness
  9. Supply of essential drugs
78
Q

How many targets are there in SDG?

A

169

17 SDGs, 169 targets

79
Q

Universal Health Care Act

A

RA 11223

80
Q

This act created PhilHealth

A

National Health insurance act of 2013

81
Q

Who are qualified dependents of Philhealth

A
  1. Legitimate spouse who is not a member
  2. Child or children below 21
  3. 21 years old or above but suffering from congenital disability
  4. Sixty years old or above
82
Q

____ refers to the rule where members need not pay extra beyond package rate

A

No balance billing

83
Q

What is the only contraindication to collecting sputum for DSSM?

A

Massive hemoptysis

200 to 600 mL in24 hours

84
Q

How many mL of sputum is collected for DSSM?

A

5-10mL

85
Q

What is the recommended TB regimen for patients with established chronic liver disease

A
  1. 2SHRE/6HR
  2. 9HRE
  3. 2SHE/10HE
86
Q

What is the recommended dose of anti-kochs in patients with acute hepatitis?

A

3SE/6HR

87
Q

____ syndrome happens when Rifampicin is taken concomitantly with protease inhibitor

A

Immune Reconstitution Syndrome

88
Q

What is the forefront diagnosis at the health center/RHU level

A

Dengue NS1 RDT

89
Q

What are the 4R’s in Animal Rabies Risk Assessment?

A
  1. Recognize
  2. Record
  3. Report
  4. Referral
90
Q

When the cause of death is a dangerous communicable disease, the remains shall be buried within ____ hours

A

12 hours

91
Q

[Rabies Vaccine]

patients taking chloroquine and systemic steroids shall be given vaccine as PEP via IM/ID?

A

IM

since the response to ID is not optimum

92
Q

[Rabies]

High risk of exposure means that ______

A
  1. Biting animal cannot be observed, dies or is sick
  2. Site of bite is in highly innervated parts of the body
  3. Multiple deep bites
  4. Patient coming from GIDA areas
93
Q

[Rabies]

Low risk of exposure means that ____

A
  1. Last dose of vaccine was within the previous 3 months and biting animal is healthy, owned, kept of a leash
  2. Biting animal is the same animal that bit patient previously OR
  3. Previously immunized OR
  4. Bite is on the extremities
94
Q

What are the disorders in the NBS?

A
  1. CH
  2. CAH
  3. GAL
  4. PKU
  5. G6PDD
  6. MSUD
95
Q

What are the amino acid disorder included in the Expanded NBS?

A
  1. Homocystinuria
  2. Hypermethioninenemia
  3. MSUD
  4. PKU
  5. Tyrosinemia Type I
  6. Tyrosinemia Type II, III
96
Q

What are the fatty acid disorder included in the expanded NBS?

A
  1. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I deficiency
  2. Carnitine palmitoyletransferase deficiency II
  3. Carnitine uptake deficiency
  4. Glutaric acidemia Type II
  5. Long Chain Hydroxyl-CoA dehydrogenase
  6. Medium Chain Hydroxyl-CoA dehydrogenase
  7. Very Long Chain Hydroxyl-CoA dehydrogenase
  8. Trifunctional protein deficiency
97
Q

What are the organic acid disorder included in the expanded NBS?

A
  1. 3 methycrotnyl CoA carboxylase deficiency
  2. Beta ketothiolase deficiency
  3. Glutaric acidemia Type I
  4. Isovaleric Acidemia
  5. Methylmalonic Acidemia
  6. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
  7. Propionic acidemia
98
Q

What are the urea cycle defect included in the expanded NBS?

A

Citrullinemia

Arginosuccinic aciduria

99
Q

What are the hemoglobinopathies included in the expanded NBS?

A
  1. Alpha thalassemia
  2. Beta thalassemia
  3. Hgb C
  4. Hgb D
  5. Hgb E
  6. Sickle Cell Disease
100
Q

When is the right time to screen for hearing?

A
  1. On or after >/ 24 hours after birth

2. If out of hospital born, screen not more than 3 months

101
Q

OPV and Measles vaccine shall be stored at around ____ deg C

A

-15 to -25 deg C

102
Q

Who are covered by the IMCI protocol?

A
  1. 0-2 months

2. 2 months to 5 years old

103
Q

What is the WHO-recommended healthy pregnancy interval?

A

at least 2 years but not more than 5 years

104
Q

What is the WHO recommended healthy pregnancy interval for women after a miscarriage before getting pregnant again?

A

6 months

105
Q

What are the 10 restricted antimicrobials based on AMR program?

A
  1. Cefepime
  2. Ertapenem
  3. Meropenem
  4. Vancomycin
  5. Amphotericin B
  6. Voriconazole
  7. Colistin
  8. Micafungin
  9. Aztreonam
  10. Linezolid
106
Q

What is the criteria for switch criteria? (According to AMS)

A

Clinical Stability

  1. Afebrile
  2. Downward trend or normalization of CRP
  3. Stable VS (no unexplained tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea)

Able to tolerate oral intake

107
Q

What is the major determinant of successful antimicrobial therapy?

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration for the pathogen

108
Q

[COVID 19]

mandated distance between 2 people

A

2 meters (6 feet)

109
Q

What are the 5 infectious FWBDs that are under surveillance in the Philippines?

A
  1. Cholera
  2. Hepatitis A
  3. Acute bloody diarrhea
  4. Rotavirus
  5. Typohoid
110
Q

[Classify the diarrhea: Pedia]

restless, irritable, thirsty, drinks eagerly

UO <0.5mL/kg/hr

A

mild to moderate

111
Q

[Classify the diarrhea: Adult]

HR >/100, lethargic, UO 0.5mL/kg/hr

orthostatic hypotension

A

Severe

112
Q

How will you prepare a homemade ORS

A
  1. 4-5 tsp sugar
  2. 1 tsp salt
  3. 1 liter clean drinking water
113
Q

How will fluid resuscitate adult patient with moderate dehydration

A

2hrs: 500 to 1000 mL

Maintain:
2-3mL/kg/hr PLRS if BW <50kg

1.5-2.0 mL/kg/hr PLRS if BW >50kg

114
Q

How will fluid resuscitate adult patient with severe dehydration

A

2hrs: 1 to 2 L PLRS

Maintain:
2-3mL/kg/hr PLRS if BW <50kg

1.5-2.0 mL/kg/hr PLRS if BW >50kg

ORS not recommended

115
Q

[HIV Testing]

Is parental consent needed by a 15 year old child wanting to for test HIV?

A

NO.

As long as there is voluntary consent

116
Q

[HIV Testing]

Who needs parental consent prior to testing?

A
  1. Below 15 years old

2. Mentally incapacitated

117
Q

What are the DOC for malaria prophylaxis for pregnant women

A
  1. Chloroquine

2. Mefloquine

118
Q

what drug is used for Schistosomiasis mass treatment

A

Praziquantel

119
Q

[Modifiable/Non-modifiable Risk Factor]

birth weight

A

modifiable

120
Q

[Modifiable/Non-modifiable Risk Factor]

Type A personality

A

non-modifiable

121
Q

what is the only intervention with the potential to reduce tobacco-related mortality?

A

Smoking Cessation

122
Q

What are the 5As approach to tobacco-use quitting?

A
  1. Ask about tobacco use
  2. Advise quitting
  3. Assess readiness to quit
  4. Assist smokers ready to quit
  5. Arrange follow-up
123
Q

What are the 4 epidemic non-communicable disease?

A
  1. Cancer
  2. CVD
  3. DM
  4. Chronic respiratory disease
124
Q

[Dental Health]

Orally fit child includes children age ___

A

proportion of children 12-71 months old and are orally fit during a given point of time

125
Q

Age at which all primary teeth should have erupted

A

2-3 years old

126
Q

Anti child abuse Law

A

RA 7610

127
Q

Anti-Violence agains women and their children act

A

RA 9262

128
Q

[Hazard Control]

physically removing the hazard; implemented before all other methods

A

Elimination

129
Q

[Hazard Control]

replacing a material with another; must remove or mitigate the hazard

A

substitution

130
Q

[Hazard Control]

Engineering controls are used to isolate workers from hazard

A

Engineering controls

131
Q

[Occupational health]

What is the threshold for ear pain

A

120db

132
Q

[Occupational health]

What is the speech frequency

A

500-2000 Hz

133
Q

[Occupational health]

permitted duration of exposure for sound 85-90 dB

A

8hours/day

Permissible exposure of 90dBA for 8 hours

134
Q

___ refers to a disease due to sudden shift in ambient pressure

A

dysbarism

135
Q

[Patient classification after examination]

Physically fit for work

A

Class A

136
Q

[Patient classification after examination]

physically underdeveloped or with correctible defects but otherwise fir for work

A

class B

137
Q

[Patient classification after examination]

employable but owing to certain impairments or conditions requires special placement or limited duty

A

Class C

138
Q

[Patient classification after examination]

unfit for unsafe for any type of employment

A

Class D

139
Q

____ refers to a problem experienced by an individual in involvement in life situations

A

participation restriction

140
Q

What viruses are screened during blood donation program?

A
  1. Hep B
  2. Hep C
  3. HIV1 and HIV2
  4. Syphilis
  5. NAAT
141
Q

What is the minimum interval between 2 donations

A

3 months

142
Q

water hardness is due to

A

Ca and Mg

143
Q

What is the important single test to find out if water is potentially dangerous

A

Bacteriological testing

144
Q

[Drinking water supply measures]

distance of potable water source from pollutants

A

25m

145
Q

What compound is used in flocculation of water? (household method of water treatment)

A

Aluminum sulfate

146
Q

Tincture of iodine is composed of ____

A

2 drops / liter of water

147
Q

Situations when confidentiality may be broken

A
  1. Risk or danger of maintaining the confidentiality is greater than that of breaking it
  2. danger to others

Preventive Medicine (2 decks)

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