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PHASE 2A > Public Health > Flashcards

Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

What did The Black Report show?

A

Confirmed social class health inequalities in overall mortality and that health inequalities were widening

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2
Q

When was The Black Report?

A

1980

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3
Q

What were the recommendations from The Black Report?

A

Material - environmental causes
Artefact - product of how inequality is measured
Cultural/Behavioural - poor people to unhealthy things, own responsibility
Selection - ill sink in society

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4
Q

Explain the Whitehall study of British Civil Servants cohort

A

Inequalities in health and mortality between employment

Risk factors only explain 1/3 of observed variation in health by employment grade

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5
Q

What did the Acheson Report (1988) show?

A

Mortality decreased but health inequalities remained and sometimes widened

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6
Q

What did the Acheson Report recommend?

A

Evaluate all policies like to affect health inequalities
give high priority to health of families with children
Reduce income inequalities and improve living conditions I poor households

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7
Q

Name 3 theories of casuation

A

Psychosocial
Neo-material
Life-course

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8
Q

What is the psychosocial theory of causation?

A

Effect of poverty on us psychosocially
Stressors are mainly social
Stress –> BP, cortisol levels

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9
Q

What is the neo-material theory of causation?

A

Poverty exposes people to health hazards
Hierarchy to public good
Money = goods

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10
Q

Explain the life-course theory of causation

A

Critical periods – greater impact at certain points in life course primarily childhoods (e.g. measles in pregnancy)
Accumulation – hazards and their impacts add up (e.g. hard blue collar work –> injuries –> reduced work opportunities)
Interactions and pathways – (e.g. sexual abuse in childhood –> poorer partner choices, increases exposure to violence etc.)

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11
Q

How can doctors close the gap in health inequalities?

A
  1. Changing perspectives
  2. Changing systems
  3. Changing education
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12
Q

Why is women life expectancy longer than mens?

A

80% environmental - men take more risks, have more dangerous jobs and are less likely to visit the doctor
20% biological - oestrogen protects against CHD

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13
Q

Describe the association between social class and lie expectancy

A

The higher the socio-economic classification the higher the life expectancy at birth

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14
Q

Describe the association between social class and smoking

A

A greater percentage of people who smoke are in the lower socio-economic classes

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15
Q

Describe the association between mortality and unemployment

A

Mortality is greater in the unemployed

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16
Q

Define patient compliance

A

The extent to which the patient’s behaviour coincides with medical or health advice

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17
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of patient compliance

A
  1. It is passive, the patient MUST follow the doctor’s orders
  2. It is professionally focused and assumes the doctor knows best
  3. It ignores problems patients have in managing their health
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18
Q

Define patient adherence

A

The extent to which he pateint’s action match agreed recommendations - it is more patient centred

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19
Q

What is the difference between patient compliance and adherence?

A

Patient adherence is more patient centred, it empowers patients and considers them as equals in care. Patient compliance is often viewed as uncaring, condescending and passive

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20
Q

What are the key principles of adherence?

A
  1. Improve communication
  2. Increase patient involvement
  3. Understand the patient’s perspective
  4. Provide and discuss information
  5. Assess adherence
  6. Review medicines
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21
Q

Describe the necessity-concerns framework

A

Looks at what influences adherence

Adherence increases when necessity beliefs are high and concerns are low

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22
Q

Give 2 factors that patient centres care encourages

A
  1. Focus on the patient as a whole person - holistic

2. Shared control of the consultation, decisions are made by the patient and doctor together

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23
Q

What is concordance?

A

Expectation that patients will take part in treatment decisions and have a say in the consultation - negotiation between equals

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24
Q

Give 5 barriers to concordance

A
  1. The patient may not want to engage in discussions with their doctor
  2. It may lead to worry
  3. Patients may just want the doctor to tell them what to do
  4. Time, resources and organisational constraints
  5. Challenging, patient choice may differ significantly from medical advice
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25
Q

Give 4 advantages of doctor-patient communication

A
  1. Better health outcomes
  2. Higher compliance to therapeutic regimens
  3. Higher patient and clinician satisfaction
  4. Decrease in malpractice risk
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26
Q

What are the 5 main duties of a doctor?

A
  1. Work in partnership with patients, treat as individuals and respect their dignity
  2. Work with colleagues in a way that best serve patients’ interests
  3. Protect and promote health
  4. Recognise and work within the limits of your competence
  5. Provide a good standard of care
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27
Q

What is the difference between infection and colonisation?

A

Infection results in harm to the individual whereas there is no harm in colonisation

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28
Q

What did the Health Act 2006 state?

A

Infection control is every health care workers responsibility

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29
Q

What are the principles of Infection Prevention and Control?

A
  1. Identification of risks
  2. Routes and modes of transmission
  3. Virulence of organisms - ease of spread likelihood of causing infections and consequences
  4. Remediable factors
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30
Q

How can the environment be changed to prevent transmission of infection?

A
  1. Design - hospital beds further apart
  2. Ensuring a clean environment
  3. Infectious individuals can be isolated
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31
Q

What can staff do to prevent the transmission of infection?

A
  1. Barrier precautions - gloves and aprons
  2. Isolation
  3. Good hand hygiene
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32
Q

What can norovirus cause?

A

Gastroenteritis

Diarrhoea and Vomiting

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33
Q

Why does norovirus have a high attack rate amongst close contacts?

A

Low infecting dose

Uncontaminated D+V

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34
Q

Will norovirus be killed by alcohol hand gel?

A

NO - resistant to conventional cleaning, only killed by soap and water

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35
Q

What are endogenous infections?

A

Infection of a patient by their own flora

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36
Q

How can endogenous infections be prevented?

A
  1. Good nutrition and hydration
  2. Antisepsis/skin prep
  3. Control underlying disease
  4. Remove lines and catheters as soon as clinically possible
  5. Reduce antibiotic pressure as much as clinically possible
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37
Q

What are the UNAIDS goals to be achieved by 2020

A

90/90/90
90% of people living with HIV are diagnosed
90% diagnosed are on ART (antiretroviral therapy)
90% viral suppression for those on ART

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38
Q

Name 3 HIV transmission routes

A
  1. Blood
  2. Sexual
  3. Vertical (mother to baby)
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39
Q

Give 6 ways in which HIV can be prevented

A
  1. Circumcision- Reduces HIV penetration due to keratinization of remaining foreskin
  2. Post exposure prophylaxis
  3. Pre-exposure prophylaxis
  4. STI control
  5. HAART
  6. Early diagnosis
  7. Behavioural - Sex education
  8. Condom use
  9. Needle exchange
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40
Q

Name the 5 most risk groups of individuals to HIV

A 
Men who have sex with men
Heterosexual women
Injecting drug users
Commercial Sex Workers
Heterosexual men
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41
Q

Name the 3 stages to the HIV epidemic

A
  1. Nascent - prevalence <5%
  2. Concentrated - prevalence >5% in one or more subpopulation
  3. Generalised - >5% everywhere, not just confined to subpopulations
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42
Q

Name the 3 main ways of mitigating the impact of HIV

A
  1. Behavioural change - education
  2. Knowing your status
  3. Specific interventions
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43
Q

Name 4 problems with the delivery of antiretroviral to those in developed countries

A
  1. Awareness
  2. Clinical services are understaffed
  3. Cost
  4. Procurement/delivery
  5. Adherence
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44
Q

Name 3 goals of HIV testing services

A
  1. Provide high quality service for identifying HIV
  2. Link individuals to HIV - treatment, care and support
  3. Prevent transmission
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45
Q

What can diabetes result in?

A

Blindness
Renal failure
Amputation

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46
Q

Name 6 risk factors of Type 2 Diabetes

A
  1. Sedentary job, lack of exercise
  2. Obesity
  3. Family history
  4. History of gestational diabetes
  5. Hypertension
  6. Impaired glucose tolerance or impaired fasting glucose
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47
Q

What is the 4 step process to intervention of Diabetes

A 
Step 0 = identifying those at risk 
Step 1 (primary) = Preventing diabetes 
Step 2 (secondary) = Diagnosing diabetes earlier 
Step 3 (tertiary) = Management of Diabetes
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48
Q

What is an obesogenic environment?

A

An environment that encourages people to eat unhealthily and not do enough exercise

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49
Q

Give 3 physical characteristics of an obesogenic environment

A
  1. TV remote controls
  2. Car culture
  3. Lifts
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50
Q

Give an economic characteristic of an obesogenic environment

A

Expensive fruit and vegetables

Cheap unhealthy food

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51
Q

Give a socio-cultural characteristic of an obesogenic environment

A

Family eating patterns

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52
Q

Give 3 mechanisms that lead to people being unable to lose weight

A
  1. Physical: more weight = more difficult to exercise
  2. Psychological: low self esteem = comfort eating
  3. Socioeconomic: reduced opportunities and employment
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53
Q

What is the primary prevention for Diabetes?

A

Focus on communities most at risk - increase exercise, improve diet, weight loss
Healthier you: The NHS Diabetes Prevention Programme

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54
Q

What is the secondary prevention for Diabetes?

A

Raise awareness of DM and symptoms in the community and within health care professionals
Use records to identify those at risk
Screening
Preventing Pre-daibetes –> Diabetes

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55
Q

What is the tertiary prevention for Diabetes?

A 
Self-monitoring 
Diet
Exercise
Education 
Peer support
Drugs
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56
Q

Define overweight/obese

A

Abnormal or excessive fat accumulation that presents a risk to health

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57
Q

How is BMI worked out?

A

Weight (kg)/height2 (m)

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58
Q

Where are higher levels of obesity seen?

A

In areas of greater deprivation

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59
Q

What can poor nutrition in children cause?

A
  1. Emotional and behavioural impacts - stigma, bullying, self-esteem
  2. Educational impacts
  3. Physical health impacts
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60
Q

Describe the association between obesity and shift work

A

Obesity is more prevalent in people who do shift work

Sleeping out of phase affects the metabolic circadian rhythm

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61
Q

Give 5 potential consequences of obesity in adults

A
  1. Less likely to be employed
  2. Discrimination and stigma
  3. Risk of hospitalisation
  4. Reduced life expectancy
  5. Depression and psychiatric problems
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62
Q

Describe individual level interventions for managing obesity

A
  1. Behaviour change: stimulus control, goal setting, slow rate of eating, relapse prevention, social support, hypnotherapy
  2. Community based programmes can provide on going advice and support
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63
Q

Describe wider level interventions for managing obesity

A
  1. Food supply: reduce energy dense ingredients and improve access to healthy foods
  2. Media campaigns e.g. change4life, 5-a-day
  3. Environment: improve cycle lanes etc
  4. Sugar tax and subsidise healthy eating
  5. Restrict the sale of certain foods and drinks in schools
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64
Q

What can doctor’s do to help manage obesity?

A
  1. Educate patients - make every contact count
  2. Signpost to weight management programmes
  3. Prescribe exercise
  4. Refer for surgery
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65
Q

Give 5 indications for the surgical treatment of obesity

A
  1. BMI > 40
  2. BMI > 35 and co-morbid
  3. Minimum 5 year’s obesity
  4. Failure of conservative treatment
  5. No alcoholism or psychiatric illness
  6. > 18 y/o
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66
Q

Give an example of a restrictive surgical treatment for obesity

A

Gastric banding

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67
Q

Give an example of a malabsorptive surgical treatment for obesity

A

Jejuno-ileal bypass

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68
Q

Give the 4 tiers to the obesity care pathway

A

Tier 1 = universal prevention
Tier 2 = Lifestyle intervention
Tier 3 = Specialist services
Tier 4 = Surgery

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69
Q

What are the 4 principles of medical ethics?

A
  1. Autonomy - respect the patient’s choices
  2. Beneficence - do good
  3. Non-maleficence - do no harm
  4. Justice
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70
Q

What is deontology?

A

Features of the act determines worthiness
Teaches that acts are right to wrong, people have a duty to act accordingly
Do unto others as you would be done by

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71
Q

What are the challenges of deontology?

A
  1. Consequences aren’t taken into account

2. Duties can conflict

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72
Q

What are virtue ethics?

A

Focus on character of the person acting
Combines reason and emotion
An act is only virtuous if the person has the right mind set
Virtues are acquired

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73
Q

What are the 5 focal virtues?

A
  1. Discernment
  2. Conscientiousness
  3. Trustworthiness
  4. Integrity
  5. Compassion
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74
Q

Define discernment

A

The ability to judge well

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75
Q

Define conscientiousness

A

Being thorough, carful and vigilant

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76
Q

Define trustworthiness

A

The ability to be relied on and trusted

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77
Q

Define integrity

A

Being honest and having good moral principles

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78
Q

Define compassion

A

Showing concern for others

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79
Q

What are the challenges of virtue ethics?

A
  1. Culture specific and too broad for practical application

2. No clear guidance for moral dilemmas

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80
Q

What are utilitarian ethics (consequentialism)?

A

An act is evaluated solely in terms of its consequences

Maximise good, minimise harm

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81
Q

What are the challenges of utilitarian ethics (consequentialism)?

A

Treats minorities unfairly to promote the happiness of a majority

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82
Q

Name 2 approaches to ethical analysis

A
  1. Seedhouse’s ethical grid

2. The four quadrant approach

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83
Q

Describe the inner layer of Seedhouse’s ethical grid

A

Asks the question of whether the intervention is going to create autonomy, respect autonomy and treat all equally

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84
Q

Describe the second layer of Seedhouse’s ethical grid

A

Duties and motives
Is the intervention consistent with moral duties - keeping promises, telling the truth, minimising harm and maximising benefit

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85
Q

Describe the third layer of Seedhouse’s ethical grid

A

Consequentialist layer
Is the intervention going to provide the greatest benefit for the greatest number?
Who will benefit, society, individuals, a group?

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86
Q

Describe the outer layer of Seedhouse’s ethical grid

A

Is the intervention likely to be affected by external considerations e.g. risk, law, use of resources?

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87
Q

What are the advantages of Seedhouse’s ethical grid?

A

It provides structure and function for analysing ethical problems
Based on moral theory

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88
Q

What are the heading which make up the four quadrants approach?

A
  1. Medical indications - beneficence and non-maleficence
  2. Patient preferences - respect for autonomy
  3. Quality of life - beneficence and non-maleficence
  4. Contextual features - loyalty and fairness
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89
Q

Define connectivity and interdependence

A

The behaviour of one individual may affect others

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90
Q

Define co-evolution

A

Adaptation of one organism alters other organism

The doctor and patient co-evolve

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91
Q

Define the far from equilibrium

A

Being pushed away from equilibrium is essential for survival and flourishing
pushing yourself away from your comfort zone

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92
Q

Define conscientious objections

A

Moral claims that are based on an individual core ethical beliefs
It is important to balance conscientious injections with professional obligations

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93
Q

What did Friedman and Rosenman (1959) describe?

A

Coronary prone behaviour –> competitive, hostile, impatient, type A behaviour

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94
Q

What tool can be used to assess type A behaviour?

A

Minnesota Multi-phasic Personality Index (MMPI)

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95
Q

Give 3 psychosocial factors that could increase someone’s risk of MI

A
  1. Depression/anxiety
  2. High demand and low control at work, working more than 11 hours a day
  3. Loneliness and social isolation
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96
Q

What can doctors do to help combat psychosocial factors that can increase the risk of patient mortality?

A
  1. Identify signs fo depression/anxiety
  2. Ask patients about their occupation
  3. Ask patients about their support networks
  4. Liaise with relevant services - social care, occupational health
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97
Q

Define clinical truth

A

Contextual, circumstantial and personal

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98
Q

Name the 5 ethics in practice

A
  1. Candour
  2. Consent
  3. Capacity
  4. Confidentiality
  5. Communication
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99
Q

Name 4 problems with teamwork

A
  1. Lack of teamwork
  2. Lack of leadership
  3. Lack of effort
  4. Lack of communication
  5. Lack of challenge
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100
Q

What are the 6 components of teamwork

A
  1. Communication/SBARR
  2. Leadership and followership
  3. Authority gradient
  4. Situational awareness
  5. Declaring emergency
  6. Training together
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101
Q

What is SBARR?

A 
Used to facilitate communication
Situation = what is the situation? 
Background = which is the clinical background 
Assessment = what is the problem?
Request = what do I request to be done?
Recommendation = what do I recommend?
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102
Q

How does someone go about challenging authority?

A
  1. Express concern
  2. Enquire or offer a solution
  3. Seek explanation
  4. Direct challenge
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103
Q

What is the populations attributed fraction?

A

The proportion of the incidence of a disease in the exposed and non-exposed population that is due to the exposure e
Exposure eliminated = disease incidence eliminated

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104
Q

Why has the CHD mortality declines in England and Wales?

A

Improvement of risk factors = reduction in smoking, population BP fall
Treatments = hypertension therapies, secondary prevention

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105
Q

Give the 2 explanations of why social inequalities occur

A
  1. Absolutist = it’s about poverty

2. Relativist = inequality in society, greater = bad

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106
Q

Define the number needed to treat

A

Measurement of the impact of a medicine or therapy by estimating the number of patients needed to treat over a given time period in order to have an impact on 1 person
1/ARR (absolute risk reduction)

107
Q

Define substance use

A

Ingestion of a substance affecting the CNS which leads to behavioural and psychological changes

108
Q

How do new psychoactive substances act?

A

Mimic the effects of other substances but less predictably

E.g. Synthetic cannabinoids, stimulant-type drugs

109
Q

What is the prevention theory?

A

Prevent substance abuse by reducing risk factors and increasing protective factors throughout life

110
Q

Give 4 risk factors for substance misuse

A
  1. Family history of substance misuse
  2. Family management problems e.g. poor parenting
  3. Family conflict e.g. domestic abuse
  4. Low academic attainment at school
  5. Availability of drugs in the community
  6. Peer pressure
  7. Experience of trauma e.g. abuse, loss, poor parenting
111
Q

Give 3 ways to prevent substance misuse

A
  1. Good family attachment
  2. Academic achievement
  3. Opportunities to develop self confidence, self worth and resilience
112
Q

Name the 2 categories of dependence

A
  1. Physical

2. Psychological

113
Q

What is physical dependence?

A

Body adapts to presence of substance

Needs more and more for the same effect

114
Q

What is the psychological dependence?

A

Feeling that life is impossible without the drug

Emotional effect = pain, fear, loneliness

115
Q

Name the 3 diagnostic codes

A 
0 = acute intoxication
1 = harmful use 
2 = Dependence
116
Q

What is the diagnostic code of acute intoxication mean?

A

Disturbances in level of consciousness, cognition, perception, affect to behaviour

117
Q

What is the diagnostic code of harmful mean?

A

Pattern of use causing damage to health

118
Q

What is the diagnostic code of dependence mean?

A

Strong desire to take drug, difficulty controlling use

119
Q

What are the 11 factors that contribute to the diagnostic model?

A
  1. Consuming more than originally planned
  2. Worrying about stopping/consistently failed efforts to control use
  3. Spending a large amount of time using/obtaining substance
  4. Use results in failure to fulfil major role obligations
  5. Craving
  6. Continued use despite health problems caused or worsened by it
  7. Continued use despite negative relationship effects
  8. Repeated use in a dangerous situation e.g. driving
  9. Giving up or reducing activities
  10. Building up a tolerance to the alcohol or drug (more for same effect)
  11. Withdrawal symptoms
120
Q

How is the diagnostic model used?

A

In the past 12 months:
2-3 = mild depended
4-5 = moderate dependence
6+ = severe dependence

121
Q

What factors define dependence syndrome?

A
  1. Desire to use
  2. Difficulties controlling use
  3. Physiological withdrawal state when reduce use
  4. Tolerance
  5. Increased time spent using
  6. Use despite evidence of harmful consequences
122
Q

Name 2 opiates and describe their effects

A

Heroin and morphine

They create a sense of euphoria, and provide pain relief and are depressants

123
Q

What are the effects of alcohol?

A

Alcohol is a depressant, its effects are sedation, relaxation and slowing down thinking/acting

124
Q

Name 3 stimulants and describe their effects

A

Caffeine, nicotine, cocaine

Increases alertness and activity and elevate mood

125
Q

Name 2 hallucinogens and describe the effects

A

Ecstasy and ketamine

Alter sensory perception and thinking patterns, and loss of sense of reality

126
Q

Give 5 different societal opinions to substance abuse

A
  1. Addiction is a disease
  2. Genetics influence addictive tendencies
  3. Punishments should be greater for those who use drugs
  4. Addiction is due to up bringing and a lack of moral values
  5. Poverty, social exclusion and mental health should be targeted to help deal with addiction
127
Q

What are the 3 main features of the national drug strategy?

A
  1. Reduce demand
  2. Restrict supply
  3. Build recovery in communities
128
Q

What are local provisions that are provided for people with substance misuse?

A
  1. GPs
  2. Harm reduction service
  3. Open access service
  4. Structure psychosocial intervention
  5. Prescribing services
  6. Detoxification
  7. Access to residential rehab
  8. Recovery support/mutual aid
129
Q

What is residential rehab?

A

3-12 months
Address underlying issues and learn coping mechanisms
Solve social, financial etc issues

130
Q

What is the maximum units of alcohol that men and women can consume within a week?

A

14 units

Spread over >3 days

131
Q

Write an equation that can be used to work out the number of units in a drink

A

Strength of the drink (%abv) X amount of drink (ml) / 1000

132
Q

How would you define binge drinking?

A

Drinking >6 units of alcohol in one go

133
Q

Describe the alcohol harm paradox

A

Those in lower socioeconomic groups consume less alcohol than the in higher socio-economic groups but they experience greater alcohol-related harm

134
Q

Give the main causes of alcohol related death

A
  1. Alcoholic liver disease
  2. Fibrosis and cirrhosis of liver
  3. Mental and behavioural disorders
  4. Accidental poisoning
135
Q

Give 3 acute effects of excessive alcohol

A
  1. Accidents and injury
  2. Pancreatitis
  3. Cardiac arrhythmias
  4. Coma and death from respiratory depression
  5. Gastritis
136
Q

Give 3 chronic effects of excessive alcohol

A
  1. Liver disease
  2. CNS toxicity (e.g. dementia)
  3. Hypertension
  4. CHD
137
Q

Give 4 psychosocial effects of excessive alcohol consumption

A
  1. Interpersonal relationships affects (e.g. violence, rape)
  2. Problems at work
  3. Criminality
  4. Driving offences
138
Q

Give 4 signs of foetal alcohol syndrome

A
  1. Pre and post natal growth retardation
  2. Mental retardation
  3. Craniofacial abnormalities
  4. congenital defects (e.g. eyes, ear, mouth)
139
Q

Give 4 symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

A
  1. Tremor
  2. Seizures
  3. Insomnia
  4. Hallucinations
  5. Activation syndrome
140
Q

How long does alcohol withdrawal last?

A

Occurs 6-24 hours after last drink and can last up to a week

141
Q

What is delirium tremens?

A

Most sever form of Algol withdrawal
Occurs 24-72 hours after stopping
Hyper-adrenergic state, disorientation, tremors, diaphoresis, impaired attention, hallucinations

142
Q

Name 3 public health campaigns associate with reducing alcohol intake

A
  1. ‘Know your limits’ - binge drinking
  2. Drinkaware - alcohol labelling
  3. THINK! - drink drive campaign
143
Q

Give 3 methods of screening for alcohol consumption

A
  1. FAST - fast alcohol screening test
  2. CAGE questions
  3. AUDIT tool
144
Q

What are the 4 questions that make up CAGE?

A
  1. Have you ever felt that you should cut down?
  2. Have you ever felt annoyed by people telling you to cut down?
  3. Do you feel guilty about how much you drink?
  4. Eye opener - ever had a drink first thing in the morning?
145
Q

What are the 3 questions that make up AUDIT?

A
  1. How often do you have a drink containing alcohol?
  2. How many units of alcohol do you drink on a typical day?
  3. How often did you have >6 units on a single occasion in the past year?
146
Q

Define at risk drinking

A

A pattern of drinking which brings about the risk of harm

147
Q

Define alcohol abuse

A

A pattern of drinking which is likely to cause harm

148
Q

Define alcohol dependence

A

A set of behavioural, cognitive and physiological responses the can develop after repeated substance abuse

149
Q

Define tolerance

A

State in which an organism no longer responds to a drug

A higher dose is required to achieve that same effect

150
Q

Describe the four tiers alcohol intervention

A

Non substance misuse specific services
Open access drug/alcohol services
Specialist community-based clinics
Specialist in-patient services

151
Q

What questions might you ask to determine whether someone has alcohol dependence?

A

In the past 12 months have you:

  1. Shown tolerance?
  2. Shown signs of withdrawal?
  3. Not been able to stick to drinking limits?
  4. Spent a lot of time drinking?
  5. Kept drinking despite known problems?
152
Q

What kinds of questions are asked in the severity of alcohol dependence questionnaire?

A
  1. Asks about withdrawal symptoms
  2. Relief drinking?
  3. Frequency of alcohol consumption
  4. Speed of onset of withdrawal symptoms
153
Q

What inhibitory neurotransmitter does alcohol potentiate?

A

GABA

Inhibits presynaptic Ca2+ entry and transmitter release so increase in Ca2+ channels

154
Q

What is the preferred drug used in alcohol detoxification?

A

Chlordiazepoxide

155
Q

Name 2 drugs that can prevent alcohol replace?

A
  1. Acamprosate - acts on neural pathways
  2. Disulfiram - disrupts oxidative metabolism of alcohol
  3. Nalmefine - opioid receptor antagonist so reduces felling of reward/pleasure
156
Q

Give 3 side effects of disulfiram

A

Dilsulfiram leads to increased acetaldehyde levels

Side effects include flushing of skin, SOB, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia

157
Q

Deficiency of what vitamin can lead to Wernike’s encephalopathy?

A

Vitamin B1 - thiamine

Metabolism of alcohol depends on thiamine so common in dependent drinkers

158
Q

What are the symptoms of Wernike’s encephalopathy?

A

Ataxia
Confusion
Nystagmus

159
Q

What is the treatment for Wernike’s encephalopathy?

A

Pabrinex

Vitamin B/thiamine

160
Q

What can Wernike’s encephalopathy lead to?

A

Korsakoff syndrome
Memory impairment
Chronic and irreversible

161
Q

What do environmental health officers do?

A

Inspect businesses for health and safety, food hygiene and food standard
Investigate outbreaks of food poisoning and infectious disease
Collect samples for lab testing

162
Q

Name 3 causes of non-infective diarrhoea

A
  1. Neoplasm
  2. Inflammatory
  3. Corhn’s disease
  4. UC
  5. IBS
  6. Hormonal
  7. Radiation and chemical
163
Q

Name 4 causative organism of diarrhoea

A
  1. Rotavirus
  2. Shigella
  3. E.coli
  4. Salmonella
  5. Hepatits
164
Q

Describe the chain of infection

A

Reservoir –> portal of exit –> agent –> mode of transmission –> portal of entry –> host –> person to person spread –> reservoir

165
Q

Name 3 types of transmission of infection

A
  1. Direct
    - direct
    - face-oral
  2. Indirect
    - vector borne
    - vehicle borne
  3. Airbourne
    - respiratory route
166
Q

Give 3 symptoms of norovirus

A
  1. Vomiting
  2. Diarrhoea
  3. Nausea
  4. Cramps
  5. Headache
167
Q

What is the spread of C. diff associated with?

A

Antibiotics

168
Q

What prevention techniques are used to prevent diarrhoea?

A
  1. Rotavirus and measles vaccinations
  2. Promote early & exclusive breastfeeding + vitamin A supplementation
  3. Promote hand washing with soap
  4. Improve water supply quantity & quality
  5. Community-wide sanitation promotion
169
Q

What is the treatment for diarrhoeal disease?

A
  1. Fluid replacement

2. Zinc treatment

170
Q

Give 4 control measure to prevent diarrhoea

A
  1. Hand-washing with soap
  2. Ensure availability of safe drinking water
  3. Safe disposal of human waste
  4. Breastfeeding of infants & young children
  5. Safe handling and processing of food
  6. Control of flies/vectors
  7. Case management including exclusion
  8. Vaccination
171
Q

Name 4 at risk groups for diarrhoea

A
  1. Poor hygiene groups
  2. Children attending pre school/nursery
  3. Workers involved in preparing and serving unwrapped/uncooked food
  4. HCW working with vulnerable people
172
Q

What has to happen if you come across a notifible infectious disease?

A

Legal obligation to inform authority

173
Q

Why are certain diseases notifiable?

A

Very dangerous
Vaccine preventable
Disease that need specific control measures

174
Q

Name 4 notifiable infectious disease

A
  1. Malaria
  2. MMR
  3. Meningitis
  4. Cholera
  5. Anthrax
  6. TB
175
Q

Why do we report infectious diseases?

A 
Detection of any changes in disease
 - Outbreak detection 
 - Early warning 
 - Forecasting 
Track changes in disease 
 - Extent and severity of disease 
 - Risk factors
Allows development of interventions targeted at vulnerable groups
176
Q

What actions are taken when a notifiable infectious disease is reported?

A 
Investigate case
Identify + protect vulnerable individuals 
Remove from high risk settings
Health promotion
Coordinate multi-agency responses
177
Q

What are the steps in reporting a notifiable infectious disease?

A
  1. Notification
    - All suspected cases without delay
  2. Contact tracing
    - Any person with close contact in the past 7days
  3. Prophylaxis
    - Advice
    - Antibiotic chemoprophylaxis
    - Doesn’t stop disease if already incubating
    - Immunisation
178
Q

Name the 2 types of immunisation

A
  1. Active = cell mediated and antibody mediated immunity

2. Passive = temporary protective from transfer of antibodies from immune individuals

179
Q

How does active immunity work?

A

Vaccination stimulates immune response and memory to a specific antigen/infection

180
Q

Name 3 things of which active immunisations can be made from?

A 
Inactivated
Attenuated live organism 
Secreted products 
Constituents of cell walls 
Recombinant components
181
Q

How does passive immunisation work?

A

Human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) from plasma of donor

Contains antibodies to infectious disease in the short term

182
Q

How can vaccines fail?

A

Primary failure = person doesn’t develop immunity from vaccine
Secondary failure = initially responds but protection reduces over time

183
Q

Name 5 serogroups of Meningitis

A

B, C, A, Y, W135

184
Q

How is meningitis prevented?

A

Notification of any suspected cases
Contract tracing
Prophylaxis - advice, antibiotic chemoprophylaxis, immunisation

185
Q

What routine meningitis vaccines are provided?

A

Childhood = Men C, Men B and quadrivalent (ACYWY pre-university)
Travel vaccines

186
Q

What classifies as good musculoskeletal health?

A

Healthy/disease free muscle, joints and bones

Ability to carry out a wide range of physical activities.functions both effectively and symptom free

187
Q

Name 4 types of effective and cost-effective MSK risk management strategy

A
  1. Vitamin D/calcium - adequate dietary intake +/- supplements
  2. Weight management - calorie intake and calorie expenditure
  3. Physical activity - balance + strength + mobility (+/- fitness)
  4. Injury presentation - home, workplace, recreational, travel related
188
Q

What are the Wilson and juggler screening criteria?

A
  1. The condition being screened for should be an important health problem
  2. The natural history of the condition should be well understood
  3. There should be a detectable early stage
  4. Treatment at an early stage should be of more benefit than at a later stage
  5. A suitable test should be devised for the early stage
  6. The test should be acceptable
  7. Intervals for repeating the test should be determined
  8. Adequate health service provision should be made for the extra clinical workload resulting from screening
  9. The risks, both physical and psychological, should be less than the benefits
  10. The costs should be balanced against the benefits
189
Q

When is an illness due to work?

A

Symptoms improve away from work
Characteristic distribution of rash - e.g. contact dermatitis
Cluster of cases at workplace
Exposure to hazard linked to disease

190
Q

What is the Bradford Hill criteria?

A

A group of minimal conditions necessary to provide adequate evidence of a causal relationship

191
Q

Give 6 of the Bradford Hill criteria that provide evidence for causation

A 
Strength of association 
Consistency in association
Exposure- response relationship
Specificity
Temporal relationship
Coherence of evidence 
Biologically plausible
192
Q

Give 3 examples of work related MSK disorders

A
  1. Carpal tunnel syndrome
  2. Tenosynovitis
  3. Rotator cuff problems
193
Q

Who might be at risk of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

A painter/decorator due to the forceful and repetitive nature of their work with abnormal wrist postures

194
Q

Who might be at risk of rotator cuff problems?

A

People in jobs that involve lifting above the shoulder

195
Q

What is anorexia nervosa?

A

A restriction of energy intake relative to requirement leading to low body weight
Person has an intense fear of gaining weight

196
Q

What BMI indicates that someone might be suffering from anorexia nervosa?

A

BMI < 17.5

197
Q

Name 2 sub types of anorexia nervosa

A
  1. Restricting

2. Binge-eating and purging

198
Q

Give the 2 characteristic features of bulimia nervosa

A
  1. Recurrent episodes of eating large amount in discrete periods of time
  2. Inappropriate compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain - purging
199
Q

What is binge eating?

A

Eating large amounts of food in discrete periods of time and having a lack of control of eating
There is no purging or compensatory behaviour

200
Q

Give 5 characteristics of binge eating episodes

A
  1. Rapid eating
  2. Eating until uncomfortably full
  3. Eating large amounts of food when not hungry
  4. Eating alone due to embarrassment
  5. Feeling depressed or guilty afterwards
201
Q

Name 3 Other Specified Feeding and Eating Disorders (OSFED)

A
  1. Atypical anorexia nervosa
  2. Purging
  3. Night eating syndrome
202
Q

Describe the Core model (Slade, 1982)

A

Describes the factors that contribute to the onset of eating disorders
It says onset is due to a combination f Lowe self esteem and perfectionism lead to a need for control
This is a trigger for using food as a means of self control

203
Q

What is important to look out for when assessing someone who you suspect has an eating disorder?

A 
Severe resection of food/fluid 
Electrolyte imbalance - particularly K+ 
Bone deterioration 
Physical damage (blood in vomit) 
Alcohol/drug intake
204
Q

What are the urgent signs when assessing someone who may have an eating disorder?

A 
Muscular weakness
Breathing problems 
Cardiac signs 
Rapid weight loss
Risk behaviours
205
Q

What do the NICE guidelines say is the first line treatment for anorexia nervosa?

A

Family therapy for adolescent cases

CBT

206
Q

What do the NICE guidelines say is the first line treatment for bulimia nervosa and binge eating?

207
Q

What is the STI transmission model?

A 
R = B x C x D
R = reproductive rate (aim <1) 
B = Infectivity rate 
C = Partners overtime 
D = Duration of infection
208
Q

What is the primary prevention of controlling STIs?

A 
= reduce risk of acquiring STI
Awarenesses campaign
Face to face reduction discussion
Vaccination - Hep B, HPV
Anti-retroviral 
 - Post-exposure prophylaxis 
 - Pre-exposure prophylaxis 
 - Treatment as prevention (HIV reduce viral load so low = no spread)
209
Q

What is the secondary prevention of controlling STIs?

A 
= Case finding 
Access to STI tests/treatment 
Partner notification
Targeted screening 
 - Antenatal screening for HIV/syphilis
 - National chlamydia screening programme 
 - HIV home-testing
210
Q

What is the tertiary prevention of controlling STIs?

A

= reduce mobility/mortality
Anti-retrovirals for HIV
Acyclovir to suppress genital herpes
Prophylactic antibiotics for PCP

211
Q

Give 3 benefits of partner notification

A
  1. Prevents re-infection
  2. Prevents complications of untreated infection
  3. Breaks the chain of transmission
212
Q

Give 3 things that consent must be

A
  1. Voluntary
  2. informed
  3. Made by someone with capacity
213
Q

What must you tell someone about their treatment in order for them to make an informed decision?

A
  1. What is the treatment
  2. How you’re going to do it
  3. Risks
  4. Benefits
  5. Alternative options and their risks/benefits
214
Q

What is section 2 of the mental capacity act?

A

A patient is unable to make a decision for themselves in relation to the matter because of an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain

215
Q

Section 2 of the mental capacity act: what can cause an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain?

A

Schizophrenia

Needle phobia

216
Q

What is section 3 of the mental health act?

A

A person is unable to make a decision for themselves if they cannot:

  1. Understand the relevant information
  2. Retain the information
  3. Weight up the information
  4. Communicate their decision
217
Q

What 4 questions can be asked to determine whether a patient has capacity?

A
  1. Does the patient understand the relevant information
  2. Can they retain the information?
  3. Can they weigh up the information?
  4. Can they communicate their decision?
218
Q

What are the 2 main option for treatment a patient deemed incompetent?

A
  1. Can someone make the decisions on their behalf? (e.g. lasting power of attorneys)
  2. A healthcare professional can make the decision if it’s in the patients best interests
219
Q

What 4 things need to be considered when deciding what’s in the patients best interests?

A
  1. Will the patient have capacity in the future? if so, when?
  2. Consider the patient’s past and present wishes/feelings
  3. Consider the patient’s beliefs and values that would influence a decision
  4. Consult with anyone who need to be consulted (e.g. lasting power of attorney, carers etc.)
220
Q

What is Gillick competence?

A

It can be used to determine whether children <16 have competence to make decision about their care
Does the child understand the consequences of their decision?

221
Q

Name 4 vaccine preventable neurological infections

A
  1. Polio
  2. Tetanus
  3. Measles
  4. H. influenza
  5. TB
  6. Meningococcus
222
Q

Define burden of disease

A

Time lost of work due to a disease

223
Q

Name 4 common neurological disorders of public health importance

A
  1. Migraine
  2. Stroke
  3. Dementia
  4. Epilepsy
  5. Parkinsons
  6. Multiple sclerosis
  7. Cerebral palsy
224
Q

What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A

Rapidly progressive dementia

Average age of onset = 55-75 years

225
Q

What is Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A

Neurodegenerative disease simulator to CJD

Peak incidence = 27 years

226
Q

What is the WHO definition of health?

A

State of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmary

227
Q

What is the WHO definition of mental health?

A

A state of well-being in which every individual realises their own potential, can cope with the normal stressors of life, can work predominantly and fruitfully and is able to make a contribution to their community

228
Q

What can affect mental health?

A 
Can depend upon life experiences and life context 
Gender, race, religion, social class etc. can all influence mental health
229
Q

Name 5 mental health conditions

A
  1. Stress
  2. Depression
  3. OCD, PTSD
  4. Schizophrenia
  5. Eating disorders
  6. Substance misuse
230
Q

Give 5 reasons why students are so vulnerable to mental health issues

A
  1. Academic stress
  2. Financial concerns
  3. Alcohol, drugs
  4. Peer pressure
  5. Unrealistic expectations
231
Q

Name 3 things that doctors suffer more from than the general population

A
  1. Increased suicide rates
  2. Increased marital dysfunction and divorce
  3. Increased drug and alcohol problems
232
Q

Give 5 factors that can contribute to work related stress

A
  1. Insufficient resources
  2. Excessive workloads
  3. Poor management
  4. Complaints and litigations
  5. Dealing with patient suffering
233
Q

Give 4 symptoms of burnout

A
  1. Diminished personal contact
  2. Work avoidance
  3. Increased minor illness
  4. Feelings of failure
234
Q

What personality traits are susceptible to psychological illness?

A
  1. Perfectionism
  2. Self-criticism
  3. Low flexibility
  4. High discipline
  5. High empathy
235
Q

Describer Malan’s ‘helping profession syndrome’

A

People in helping professions compulsively give to others what they would like to have for themselves
They have an unconscious identification with the patient role, unmet emotional needs

236
Q

What are the 5 sections to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A 
Physiological (most essential)
Safety 
Love/belonging
Esteem
Self-actualisation
237
Q

What does Robert Plutchik’s wheel of emotion represent?

A

If emotions are left unchecked they can intensify in a negative way

238
Q

What is the WHO definition of palliative care?

A

Improves the QOL of patient and families who face life-threatening illness, by providing pain and symptomatic relief, spiritual and psychosocial support form diagnosis to the end of life treatment and bereavement

239
Q

Define specialist palliative care

A

Palliative care provided by health care professionals who specialise in palliative care

240
Q

Who can provide specialist palliative care?

A 
Consultant in palliative medicine 
Clinical nurse specialist - Macmillian nurses 
Social workers 
Chaplains
Physiotherapists
Dieticians
241
Q

Define generalist palliative care

A

Health professions who have not received accredited levels of training in palliative care
Not deemed specialise but routinely provide health care for patients at the end of their lives

242
Q

Who can provide generalist palliative care?

A

GPs
Hospital doctor
Nurses and district nurses
Nursing home staff

243
Q

What are the main 4 philosophies of palliative care?

A
  1. Holistic approach
  2. Individualised
  3. Patient and family centred
  4. Multidisciplinary approach
244
Q

What does palliative care aim to do?

A
  1. Promote quality of life
  2. Promote dignity and autonomy
  3. Control disease symptoms
245
Q

What might multiple co-morbidities result in?

A
  1. Great need for care
  2. Increased psychological distress
  3. Increased social isolation
246
Q

What is the link between chronic illness an inequalities?

A
  1. Lower socio-economic status = higher incidence of chronic illness
  2. Poverty + poor living condition increase with age
  3. Most severe deprivation experienced by pensioners living alone
247
Q

Palliative care for COPD patients is notoriously bad, why is this?

A
  1. Lack of funding
  2. Most palliative care teams are cancer focused
  3. Differing patient need: COPD vs cancer
  4. Unpredictable illness trajectory in COP
  5. Lack of patient understanding
248
Q

Name 3 occupational diseases

A
  1. Asbestosis
  2. Silicosis
  3. Coalminers pneumoconiosis
  4. Mesothelioma
249
Q

What are the most common work related ill health disorders?

A
  1. Occupational stress
  2. work related MSK disorders
  3. Occupational lung disease
  4. Occupational cancer
250
Q

How are work hazards classified?

A
  1. Mechanical
  2. physical
  3. Chemical
  4. Biological
  5. Psychosocial
251
Q

Define hazard

A

Hazard has the potential to cause harm

252
Q

Define risk

A

Risk is the probability of something to cause harm

253
Q

Give 3 ways of telling if an illness is due to work

A
  1. Symptoms improve when way from work
  2. Characteristic rash distribution - contact dermatitis
  3. Cluster of cases in a workplace
254
Q

What is the effect of moving from work to unemployment on someone’s health?

A

Negative impact on mental and physical health

255
Q

What is the effect of moving from unemployment to re-emplyment on someone’s health?

A

Positive impact on mental health and well-being

256
Q

What is the effect of moving from school leavers to first job on someone’s health?

A

Positive impact on mental and physical health

Negative - unsatisfactory employment

257
Q

What is the effect of moving from work to retirement on someone’s health?

A

Positive impact if voluntary

Negative impact if forced

258
Q

What are Marmot’s 10 key components of ‘good work’?

A
  1. Precariousness - stable, risk of loss, safe
  2. Individual control - part of decision making
  3. Work demands - quality and quantity
  4. Fair employment - earnings and security
  5. Opportunities - training, promotion, ‘growth’
  6. Prevents social isolation, discrimination and violence
  7. Share information
  8. Work-life balance
  9. Reintegrates sick or disabled wherever possible
  10. Promotes health and wellbeing
259
Q

What is a GPs role in occupational health?

A
  • Sickness certificate

- Will the patient benefit from a phased return or altered hours

260
Q

What are the impacts of long term unemployment?

A

Increased mental health, poor health and social exclusion and poverty
Loss of fitness and well-being
Trapped on benefits until retirement

261
Q

Define disability

A

A physical or mental impairment, which has a substantial long-term adverse effect on a person’s ability to carry out normal activities

262
Q

What is the primary prevention population approaches to occupational health?

A

Monitor risk
Control hazards
Promotion

263
Q

What is the secondary prevention population approaches to occupational health?

A

Screening
Early detection
Tast modification

264
Q

What is the tertiary prevention population approaches to occupational health?

A

Rehabilitation

Support

PHASE 2A (16 decks)

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