Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FINALS > Public health > Flashcards

Public health Flashcards

1
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING
What is primary prevention?
Give some examples.

A

Preventing a disease from occurring in the first place.

E.g. change4life, 5-a-day, vaccines > they eliminate risk factors contributing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING
What is secondary prevention?
Give some examples

A

Detecting a disease in its early or pre-clinical phase to alter its course + improve health outcomes.
E.g. all screening programmes (breast, bowel, cervical cancer, heel prick in infants).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING
What is tertiary prevention?
Give some examples

A

Attempting to slow down disease progression + prevent complications of a disease, helping people manage their illness effectively.
E.g. diabetic foot care, attending rehab after a stroke to prevent immobility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

What are the 2 approaches to prevention?

A
  • Population approach.

- High risk approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING
Explain the population approach to prevention.
Give some examples.

A

Preventative measure delivered on a population wide basis + seeks to shift the risk factor distribution curve.
E.g. dietary salt reduction via legislation to reduce BP, adding iodine to salt to prevent iodine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING
Explain the high risk approach to prevention.
Give some examples

A

Identifying individuals above a chosen cut-off + treating them.
E.g. screening for HTN + treating them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

What is meant by the prevention paradox?

A

A preventative measure which brings much benefit to the population often offers little to each participating individual.
I.e. it’s about screening a large number of ppl to help a small number of ppl.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

What is the concept of screening?

A

A process which identifies seemingly well individuals who may be at risk of a disease, in the hope of catching the disease at its early stage.
- It’s not a diagnostic process, simply a means of assessing risk + catching diseases in their early stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

In the grid of Disease vs. screening test – what does a, b, c + d stand for?

A 
A = true positive.
B = false positive.
C = false negative.
D = true negative.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

Define sensitivity.

A

The proportion of people with the disease who are correctly identified by the screening test. a ÷ (a + c)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

Define specificity.

A

The proportion of people without the disease who are correctly excluded by the screening test. d ÷ (d + b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

Define positive predictive value (PPV).

A

The proportion with a positive test result who actually have the disease. Dependent on underlying prevalence.
a ÷ (a + b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

Define negative predictive value (NPV).

A

The proportion with a negative test result who do not have the disease. This is lower if the prevalence is higher. d ÷ (c + d)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

What are some types of screening available?

A
  • Population-based screening programmes (e.g. cervical, breast cancer).
  • Opportunistic screening (e.g. BP measurements in GP).
  • Screening for communicable disease.
  • Pre-employment + occupational medicals.
  • Commercially provided screening (e.g. pay company to send off blood + get tested for a variety of different genetic issues).
  • Genetic counselling (genetic testing for people with FHx of diseases).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

What are some of the disadvantages of screening?

A
  • Exposure of well individuals to distressing or harmful diagnostic tests.
  • Detection + treatment of sub-clinical disease that may have never caused any problems.
  • Preventative interventions that may cause harm to the individual or population.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

What are the Wilson + Junger criteria for screening?

A
  • Condition should be an important health problem.
  • There should be an accepted treatment available.
  • Facilities for Dx + Tx should be available.
  • There should be a recognisable latent or early symptomatic stage.
  • There should be a suitable test or examination.
  • The test should be acceptable to the population.
  • The natural Hx of the condition should be understood.
  • There should be a policy on whom to treat as pts.
  • The costs of screening should be economically balanced.
  • Screening should be a continuous process, not just a one off.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

What 2 types of bias may be present in screening?

A
  • Lead-time bias.

- Length-time bias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

Explain what lead-time bias is.

A

When screening identifies an outcome earlier than it would otherwise have been identified + results in an apparent increase in survival time, even if screening has no effect on the outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PREVENTION + SCREENING

Explain what length-time bias is.

A

Bias resulting from differences in the length of time taken for a condition to progress to severe effects that may affect the apparent efficacy of a screening method.
E.g. less aggressive cancers w/ longer presentations are more likely to be detected by screening. Comparing survival in screen detected + non-screen detected pts may be biased as there’s a tendency to compare less aggressive + more aggressive cancers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What is the methodology behind an ecological study?

A
  • Descriptive/observational study design comprising of case reports or case series studying population/groups rather than individuals. COMPARATIVE
  • Uses routinely collected data to show trends in data – often associations between occurrence of disease + exposure to known or suspected causes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the advantages of an ecological study?

A
  • Few ethical issues.
  • Useful for generating hypotheses.
  • Uses routine data so quick + cheap.
  • Can show prevalence + association.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the disadvantages of an ecological study?

A
  • Cannot show causation.
  • Bias (variation in diagnostic criteria).
  • Inconsistency in data presentation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What is the methodology behind a cross-sectional study?

A
  • Prevalence study.
  • Descriptive + analytical study design used to generate hypotheses.
  • Divides the population into those without the disease + those with the disease + collects data on them once at a defined time to find associations at that single point in time.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the advantages of a cross-sectional study?

A
  • Relatively cheap + quick.
  • Provide data on prevalence at a single point in time.
  • Good for surveillance + public health planning.
  • Large sample size.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the disadvantages of a cross-sectional study?

A
  • Risk of reverse causality.
  • Cannot measure incidence as no time reference.
  • Risk of recall bias + non-response.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What is the methodology behind a case control study?

A
  • A type of analytical study (retrospective).
  • Takes people with a disease + matches them to people without the disease for same age/sex/class etc + Studies previous exposure to the agent in question.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the advantages of a case control study?

A
  • Quicker than cohort of intervention studies as it’s retrospective.
  • Inexpensive, good for rare outcomes (e.g. cancer).
  • Can investigate multiple exposures.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the disadvantages of a case control study?

A
  • Retrospective nature only shows an association (not causation).
  • Difficulty finding controls to match with cases.
  • Unreliable due to recall bias.
  • Prone to selection + information bias.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What is the methodology behind a cohort study?

A
  • Incidence study (prospective).
  • Start with a population without the disease in question + study them over time to see if they are exposed to the agent in question + if they develop the disease in question or not.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the advantages of a cohort study?

A
  • Prospective so can show causation.
  • Lower chance of selection + recall bias.
  • Absolute, relative + attributable risks can be determined.
  • Good for common + multiple outcomes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the disadvantages of a cohort study?

A
  • Loss to follow-up, requires a control group to establish causation.
  • Takes a long time, need a large sample size.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What is the methodology behind a randomised control trial?

A
  • Pts are randomised into groups.
  • One group is given an intervention (interventional group).
  • One group is given a placebo/control (control group).
  • Then, the outcome is measured. Often blind or double blind.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the advantages of a randomised control trial?

A
  • Can infer causality (gold standard).

- Randomisation allows confounding factors to be equally distributed + biases minimised (helped by blinding).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What are the disadvantages of a randomised control trial?

A
  • Is it ethical to withhold a treatment that is strongly believed to be effective?
  • Time consuming, expensive.
  • Volunteer bias – specific inclusion/exclusion criteria may mean the study population is different from typical pts (e.g. excluding very elderly pts).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

STUDY DESIGN

What is the methodology behind a meta-analysis? How does this differ to a systematic review?

A
  • A statistical technique where you pool all the results of the available evidence + look at effect.
  • Systematic review doesn’t involve the statistical procedure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

Define epidemiology. What factors are considered when measuring epidemiology of a disease?

A

The study of the frequency, distribution + determinants of disease + health-related states in populations in order to prevent + control disease.
- Time, place, person (age, gender, class, ethnicity).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

Define incidence.

A

The number of new cases of a disease that develop in a population (e.g. per 100,000) in a given time frame (e.g. per year).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

Define prevalence.

A

The total # of people in a population found to have a disease at a point in time.
- Number of existing cases/population/points in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is meant by person-time?

A

The measure of time at risk i.e. time from entry to a study to:
- Disease onset.
- Loss to follow up.
- End of study.
It is the sum of each individual’s time at risk (i.e. length of time they were followed up in the study).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

How do you calculate incidence rate calculations?

A 
# of persons who have become cases in a given time period ÷ total person-time at risk during that period.
- Person-time is the denominator in them.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is the denominator in cumulative incidence calculations?

A

Number of disease-free at start of study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY
What is meant by:
i) an independent variable?
ii) a dependent variable?

A

i) A variable that can be altered in a study.

ii) A variable that is dependent on the independent variables or one that cannot be altered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is meant by absolute risk?

A

Gives a feel for actual numbers involved i.e. it has units.

- E.g. deaths/1000 population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is meant by relative risk?

A

Ratio of risk of disease in the exposed to the risk in the unexposed i.e. no units.
- It tells us about the strength of association between a risk factor + a disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

How do you calculate relative risk?

A

Incidence in exposed ÷ incidence in unexposed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is meant by attributable risk?

A

The rate of disease in the exposed that may be attributed to the exposure.

  • Attributable risk is a type of absolute risk (absolute excess risk).
  • It’s about the size of effect in absolute terms i.e. gives a feel for the public health impact (if causality assumed).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

How do you calculate attributable risk?

A

Incidence in exposed – incidence in unexposed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is meant by relative risk reduction?

A

The reduction in rate of the outcome in the intervention group relative to the control group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

How do you calculate relative risk reduction?

A

(Incidence in unexposed – incidence in exposed) ÷ incidence in unexposed.
- (ARR ÷ incidence in unexposed).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is meant by absolute risk reduction?

A

The absolute difference in the rates of events between the 2 groups. Gives an indication of the baseline risk + the intervention effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

Give an example of absolute risk reduction?

A

Assuming exposed means they have had a particular intervention (such as giving statins to people with hypercholesterolaemia) + then a control group who do not have statins + seeing how many in each group have a heart attack to see if the intervention of statins is effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

How do you calculate absolute risk reduction?

A

Incidence in unexposed – incidence in exposed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is meant by odds?

A

The odds of an event is the ratio of the probability of an occurrence compared to the probability of a non-occurrence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

How do you calculate odds?

A

Probability ÷ (1 – probability).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is meant by odds ratio?

A

The ratio of odds for the exposed group to the odds for the non-exposed groups.
- Or can be interpreted as a relative risk when the event is rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

When would odds ratio be used?

A

For case control studies as it’s not possible to calculate the relative risk.
- For cross-sectional + cohort studies – both can be derived but odds ratio is used if it’s not clear which is the independent/dependent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

How do you calculate odds ratio?

A

(P exposed ÷ [1 – P exposed]) ÷ (P unexposed ÷ [1 – P unexposed])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is meant by number needed to treat?

A

The number of patients that need to be treated in order to prevent one bad outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

How do you calculate NNT?

A

1 ÷ ARR (risk in unexposed – risk in exposed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

Define bias.

A

A systematic deviation from the true estimation of the association between exposure + outcome.
I.e. systematic error > distortion of the true underlying association.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What are the 2 main types of bias?

A
  • Selection bias.

- Information (measurement) bias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY
What is selection bias?
Give some examples.

A
  • A systematic error either in the selection of study participants or the allocation of participants to different study groups.
  • Non-response, loss to follow up.
  • Those in the intervention group different in some way from the controls other than the exposure in question.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY
What is information bias?
Give some examples of sources of information bias.

A

A systematic error in the measurement or classification of exposure or outcome.

  • Observer (observer bias).
  • Past event incorrectly remembered (recall bias).
  • Responder does not tell the truth (reporting bias).
  • Wrongly calibrated instrument (measurement bias).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What type of bias can occur after a study is completed?

A

Publication bias where some trials are more likely to be published than others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY
What is confounding?
What is the effect of confounding on a study?

A

Where a factor is associated with the exposure of interest + independently influences the outcome but does not lie on the causal pathway.
- May affect the validity of a study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

What is the Bradford-Hill criteria for assessing causality?

A
  • Strength of association (the magnitude of the RR).
  • Dose response (the higher the exposure, the higher the risk of disease).
  • Consistency (similar results from different researches using various study designs).
  • Temporality (does exposure precede outcome?)
  • Reversibility (experiment) – removal of exposure reduces risk of disease).
  • Biological plausibility (biological mechanisms explaining the link).
  • Coherence (logical consistency with other information).
  • Analogy (similarly with other established cause-effect relationships).
  • Specificity (relationship specific to outcome of interest).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY

If association is not causal, how could it be explained?

A
  • Bias.
  • Chance.
  • Confounding.
  • Reverse causality.
  • A true causal association.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

EPIDEMIOLOGY
What is meant by reverse causality?
Give an example.

A

Refers to a situation when an association between an exposure + outcome could be due to the outcome causing exposure rather than the other way.
- E.g. case study showing stress causes HTN but HTN could cause increased stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

Define epigenetics.

A

The study of how genes interact with the environment.

- Changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration of the genetic code itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

Define allostasis.

A

The stability through change, or homeostasis, of our physiological systems to adapt rapidly to change in environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

Define allostatic load.

A

Long-term over-taxation of our physiological systems leading to impaired health (stress).
- The price we pay for allostasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

Define public health.

A

Defined as the science + art of preventing disease, prolonging life + promoting health through organised efforts of society.
- Population perspective – thinks in terms of groups, not individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

What are the key concerns of public health?

A
  • Inequalities in health.
  • Wider determinants of health.
  • Prevention.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

What are the determinants of health?

A
  • Genes (age, gender, ethnicity).
  • Environment (physical + social + economic > housing, education).
  • Lifestyle (smoking, wealth, employment).
  • Access to healthcare (economic factors, access, quality).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

What are the wider/social determinants of health?

A
  • Education, socioeconomic status, unemployment, housing, physical environment etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

What are the 3 domains of public health?

A
  • Health improvement.
  • Health protection.
  • Improving services.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.
What is meant by health improvement.
What does it encompass?

A

Societal interventions aimed at preventing disease, promoting health + reducing inequality.
- Inequalities, education, housing, employment, lifestyles, family/community, surveillance + monitoring of some diseases + risk factors (imms, smoking, screening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.
What is meant by health protection.
What does it encompass?

A

Measures to control infectious disease risks + environmental hazards.
- Infectious diseases, chemicals + poisons, radiation, emergency response, environmental health hazards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.
What is meant by improving services.
What does it encompass?

A

Organisation + delivery of safe, high quality services for prevention, treatment + care.
- Clinical effectiveness, efficiency, service planning, audit + evaluation, clinical governance, equity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

What are the 5 levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A
  • Physiological = breathing, food, water, sleep.
  • Safety = security of employment, resources, family health, property.
  • Love/belonging = friendship, family, sexual intimacy.
  • Esteem = self-esteem, confidence, achievement, respect.
  • Self-actualisation = morality, creativity, spontaneity, problem solving, lack of prejudice, acceptable of facts.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.
What are health interventions?
Give some examples.

A

Any tactics that are done to improve public health.

  • Health promotion/awareness campaigns (Change4Life, 5-a-day, Stoptober, Movember).
  • Promoting screening + immunisations (cervical smear, MMR vaccine).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

What are the 3 levels of intervention?

A
  • Individual = pt centred approach to care.
  • Community = community centred approach to care.
  • Population = delivered nationwide, non-specific to individuals.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

Give some examples of the 3 levels of intervention.

A
  • Individual = immunisations.
  • Community = new outdoor play area in a particular village, more cycle paths to make cycling safer.
  • Population = iodine in salt to prevent iodine deficiency, PH campaigns (Change4Life), screening, vaccines.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

Explain how the effects of interventions are rarely restricted to one level.

A

Brief GP intervention aimed at reducing alcohol consumption.

  • Individual = level of alcohol consumption, incidence of domestic violence.
  • Community = local alcohol sales, alcohol-related crime.
  • Population = national alcohol sale, national stats on alcohol-related crime.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.
Define…
i) equality.
ii) equity.

A

i) Concerned with equal shares (i.e. on a financial level).

ii) Concerned with what is fair + just (i.e. on a moral level).

86
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.
What is meant by…
i) horizontal equity?
ii) vertical equity?

A

i) Equal treatment for equal need (e.g. pts with same disease should be treated equally).
ii) Unequal treatment for unequal need (e.g. areas with poorer health may need higher expenditure on health services, common cold + pneumonia require different treatment).

87
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

What are the different forms of health equity?

A
  • Equal expenditure.
  • Equal access.
  • Equal utilisation.
  • Equal healthcare outcome.
    (All for equal need).
88
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.
What are the 2 main factors affecting health equity.
Give an example of each.

A
  • Spatial inequity (geographical) – infant mortality rates high in places like Africa but healthcare spending is low in these areas (health inequality + inequity).
  • Social inequity (age, gender, ethnicity, socioeconomic status etc) – socioeconomic inequity as angina Sx higher in more deprived areas but coronary artery revascularisations in those with angina Sx higher in more affluent areas in Sheffield.
89
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

How is health equity examined?

A
  • Supply/access/utilisation of healthcare.
  • Healthcare outcomes.
  • Health status.
  • Resource allocation (health services or others like education, housing).
  • Wider determinants of health.
90
Q

HEALTH DETERMINANTS ETC.

How is health equity assessed?

A
  • Typically assess inequality, then decide if inequitable (inequalities need to be explained + equality ≠ equitable).
  • Health care systems – equity often defined in terms of equal access for equal need (NHS) but measurement usually of utilisation, health status or supply.
91
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is the essence of health psychology?

A
  • Emphasises the role of psychological factors in the cause, progression + consequences of health + illness.
  • It aims to put theory into practice by promoting healthy behaviours + preventing illness.
92
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY
What are the 3 types of health behaviour?
Give an example for each.

A
  • Health behaviour = a behaviour aimed to prevent disease (e.g. healthy eating).
  • Illness behaviour = a behaviour aimed to seek remedy (e.g. going to Dr/pharmacist).
  • Sick role behaviour = any activity aimed at getting well (e.g. resting, taking prescribed meds).
93
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What are the two broader categories that health behaviours can be split into?

A
  • Health promoting (exercising, vaccinations, attending health checks).
  • Health damaging/impairing (smoking, alcohol/substance abuse).
94
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is the main theory for explaining why people undertake health damaging behaviours?

A

Unrealistic optimism.

  • Individuals continue practicing health damaging behaviours due to inaccurate perceptions of risk + susceptibility.
  • They’re aware of risks but don’t think it would happen to them.
95
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

In terms of unrealistic optimism, what are a person’s perceptions of risk influenced by mainly?

A
  • Lack of personal experiences with the problem.
  • Belief that it’s preventable by personal action.
  • Belief that it’s not happened by now so it’s not likely to.
  • Belief that the problem is infrequent.
96
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What other factors can influence a person’s perceptions of risk?

A
  • Stress.
  • Health beliefs.
  • Cultural variability.
  • Situational rationality.
97
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What needs to be done for patients with unrealistic optimism?

A
  • Work out patient’s perception of risk level + address it.

- Promoting behaviour change is only likely once you know this.

98
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What are the issues with health damaging behaviours?

A
  • Health damaging behaviour, mortality + morbidity are related.
  • QOL impact, working days lost to sickness, treatment regime adherence issues.
99
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is meant by medication compliance?

A
  • The extent to which a patient’s behaviour coincides with medical advice.
  • It’s professionally focused + assumes that the doctor knows best.
100
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is meant by adherence?

A
  • The extent to which the patient’s actions match agreed recommendations.
  • More patient centred, empowers patients + considers them equal in care decisions.
101
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What factors can affect compliance?

A
  • Side effects of medications.
  • Patient perception of risk.
  • Socioeconomic status.
  • Treatment for an asymptomatic condition (e.g. continuing Abx).
102
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is the NICE guidance on behaviour change?

A
  • Planning interventions.
  • Assessing the social context.
  • Education + training.
  • Individual, community + population-level interventions.
  • Evaluating effectiveness + assessing cost-effectiveness.
103
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY
What is the impact of smoking?
What conditions cause smoking-related deaths?
When does smoking prevalence peak?

A
  • Single greatest cause of illness + premature death in the UK.
  • Smoking related deaths are due to COPD, cancers, ischaemic heart disease.
  • Prevalence peaks in mid 20s.
104
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is the role of the National Centre for Smoking Cessation and Training (NCSCT)?

A
  • Supports the delivery of effective evidence-based tobacco control programmes + smoking cessation interventions provided by local services.
105
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is the Health Belief Model?

A

Behaviour change model that states individuals will change if they –
- Believe they are susceptible to the condition.
- Believe that it has serious consequences.
- Believe that taking action reduces susceptibility.
- Believe that benefits of taking action outweigh costs.
4 factors – perceived susceptibility, severity, benefits + barriers.

106
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Health Belief Model: which part of the model is believed to be most important?

A

Perceived barriers.

- All about the patient having poor self-efficacy (i.e. not being able to stick to a made behaviour change).

107
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY
Health Belief Model: what can be added to the model to give more information about likelihood of action?
Give examples.

A

Cues to action.

  • They can be internal or external + are not always necessary for behaviour change.
  • Internal = increase pain, decrease ADLs.
  • External = reminders in post, GP advice.
108
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Health Belief Model: what are the pros of this model?

A
  • Can be applied to a wide variety of health behaviours.
  • Cues to action are unique component to the model.
  • Long standing model.
109
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Health Belief Model: what are the cons of this model?

A
  • Does not differentiate between first time + repeat behaviour.
  • Does not consider the influence of emotions + behaviour.
  • Cues to action often missing.
  • Alternative factors may predict health behaviour such as self-efficacy or outcome expectancy (whether they feel they will be healthier as a result).
110
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is the Theory of Planned Behaviour?

A

Proposes that the best predictor of behaviour is intention to change behaviour i.e. I intend to give up smoking.

111
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Theory of Planned Behaviour: what is intention determined by in this model?

A
  • Attitude = a person’s attitude to the behaviour (I don’t think smoking is good).
  • Subjective norm = the perceived social pressure to undertake the behaviour (most people who are important to me want me to give up smoking).
  • Perceived behavioural control = a person’s ability to perform the behaviour (I CAN give up smoking).
112
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Theory of Planned Behaviour: what are the 5 points to bridging the intention-behaviour gap?

A

PPAIR –

  • Perceived control (something an individual feels they are capable of doing).
  • Preparatory actions (dividing task into sub-goals increases self-efficacy + satisfaction at the point of completion).
  • Anticipated regret (reflecting on feelings once failed, related to sustained intentions).
  • Implementation of intentions (biggest one, “if-then” plans – if I need to take my meds in the morning then I will place them here to remind me).
  • Relevance to self (can they relate to the behaviour).
113
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Theory of Planned Behaviour: what are the pros of this model?

A
  • Can be applied to a wide variety of health behaviours.
  • Useful for predicting intention.
  • Takes into account importance of social pressures.
114
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Theory of Planned Behaviour: what are the cons of this model?

A
  • Lack of temporal element + direction or causality, no sense of how long behaviour change may take.
  • ‘Rational choice model’ so doesn’t take into account emotions.
  • Assumes attitudes, subjective norms + perceived behavioural control can be measured.
  • Relies on self-reported behaviour.
115
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is the Transtheoretical/Stages of Change Model?

A

Stage theories see individuals located at discrete ordered stages, rather than on a continuum with each stage denoting a greater inclination to change outcome.

116
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Transtheoretical/Stages of Chance Model: what are the 5 stages?

A
  • Precontemplation = no intention of stopping.
  • Contemplation - beginning to consider stopping, probably at some ill-defined time in the future.
  • Preparation = getting ready to quit in near future, set stop date, go to Dr, throw away items (28d).
  • Action = engaged in stopping behaviour on stop date (6m).
  • Maintenance = continues + engaged with abstinent behaviour (6m).
  • Relapse can occur at any stage of the model.
117
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Transtheoretical/Stages of Change Model: what are the pros of this model?

A
  • Acknowledges individual stages of readiness (tailored interventions).
  • Accounts for relapse/allows patient to move backwards in the stages.
  • Gives temporal element (idea of timeframe/progression, albeit arbitrary).
118
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Transtheoretical/Stages of Change Model: what are the cons of this model?

A
  • Not all people move through every stage.
  • Change might operate on a continuum rather than discreet changes.
  • Does not take into account values, habits, culture, social, economic factors.
119
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is the Motivational Interviewing model?

A
  • A counselling approach to initiating behaviour change by resolving ambivalence (the state of having mixed feelings/contradictory ideas about something).
120
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY
Motivational Interviewing: what is the role of this model?
Where has this shown clinical impact?

A
  • Allow someone to change their behaviour by helping them make a decision about the behaviour – helping someone to see whether the behaviour was bad for them or not.
  • Problem drinkers.
121
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What is the Social Norms Theory?

A
  • Norms are positive protective behaviours.
  • Social norms are behaviours + Attitudes that are most common in groups + are one of the most important factors influencing behaviour.
122
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

Social Norms Theory: how may belief of norms differ to actual norms?

A
  • Typically, people misperceive the peer norms.
  • We typically overestimate the risk behaviour + underestimate the protective behaviours but this does not work when the risk behaviour is the social norm (i.e. alcohol, obesity).
  • This means that it allows people who want to do high risk behaviours think they’re doing what everyone else is but often not the case.
123
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY
What is the Nudge Theory?
Give an example.

A

Changing the environment to make the best/healthiest option the easiest.
- E.g. placing fruit next to checkouts instead of sweets, opt-out schemes.

124
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What are some other factors to consider that might influence behaviour change?

A
  • Impact of personality traits on health behaviour (everyone responds differently).
  • Assessment of risk perception.
  • Impact of past behaviour/habit.
  • Automatic influences on health behaviour.
  • Predictors of maintenance of health behaviours.
  • Social environment.
125
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY

What do NICE mention about interventions for behaviour change?

A
  • Should work in partnership with individuals, communities, organisations + populations.
  • Population-level interventions may affect individuals + communities + vice versa.
126
Q

HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY
NICE mention some typical transition points in life which may influence someone to be more/less receptive to change behaviours dependent on their person + attitude, what are these?

A
  • Leaving school.
  • Starting work/new job.
  • Becoming a parent.
  • Becoming unemployed.
  • Retirement.
  • Bereavement.
127
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

What is the essence of a HNA?

A
  • Before a health intervention is done, a HNA must be done.
  • It’s a systematic method for reviewing the health issues facing a population, leading to agreed priorities + resource allocation that will improve health + reduce inequalities.
128
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

What sort of topics can be looked at in a HNA?

A
  • A population or sub-group (e.g. Manor practice population).
  • A condition (e.g. COPD).
  • An intervention (e.g. coronary angioplasty).
129
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

What is the planning cycle in a HNA and how is this relevant to Doctors?

A
  • Needs assessment > planning > implementation > evaluation > repeat.
  • As qualified Drs we need to improve the health of patients by treating individual patients + influencing the services available to patients.
130
Q 
HEALTH NEEDS AX
Define...
i) need.
ii) demand.
iii) supply.
iv) health need.
v) health care need.
A

i) ability to benefit from an intervention.
ii) what people ask for.
iii) what is provided.
iv) a need for health (concerns need in more general terms).
v) a need for health care (more specific + looks at someone’s ability to benefit from health care).

131
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX
How is health need measured?
What does health care need depend on?

A
  • Using mortality, morbidity, socio-demographic measures.

- Potential of prevention, treatment + care services to remedy health problems.

132
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

What does a health needs assessment usually cover?

A
  • Both a health needs assessment and health care needs assessment.
133
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

What are the 4 sociological perspectives of need?

A
  • Felt need = individual perceptions of variation from normal health.
  • Expressed need = individual seeks help to overcome variation in normal health (demand).
  • Normative need = professional defines intervention appropriate for the expressed need.
  • Comparative need = comparison between severity, range of interventions + cost.
134
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

What are the 3 types of HNA?

A
  • Epidemiological.
  • Comparative.
  • Corporate.
135
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Epidemiological HNA: what is the methodology?

A
  • Defines the problem.
  • Size of problem (incidence/prevalence).
  • Services available (prevention, treatment, care).
  • Evidence base (effectiveness + cost-effectiveness).
  • Models of care (including quality + outcome measures).
  • Existing services (unmet need, services not needed).
  • Recommendations.
136
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Epidemiological HNA: what are potential sources of data?

A
  • Disease registry.
  • Hospital admissions.
  • GP databases.
  • Mortality data.
  • Primary data collection (e.g. postal/patient survey).
137
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Epidemiological HNA: what are the pros?

A
  • Uses existing data.
  • Provides data on disease incidence, mortality, morbidity.
  • Can evaluate services by trends over time.
138
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Epidemiological HNA: what are the cons?

A
  • Required data may not be available + variable data quality.
  • Evidence base may be inadequate.
  • Does not consider felt needs of people affected.
139
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Comparative HNA: what is the methodology?

A

Compares the services received by a population (or subgroup) with others:

  • Spatial.
  • Social (age, gender, class, ethnicity).
  • I.e. compares the services for a particular health issue in 2 different areas.
140
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Comparative HNA: what might it examine?

A
  • Health status.
  • Service provision.
  • Service utilisation.
  • Health outcomes (mortality, morbidity, QOL, pt satisfaction).
141
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Comparative HNA: what are the pros?

A
  • Quick + cheap if data available.
  • Indicates whether health or services provision is better/worse than comparable areas (gives a measure of relative performance).
142
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Comparative HNA: what are the cons?

A
  • Data may not be available + variable data quality.
  • May be difficult to find a comparable population.
  • May not yield what the most appropriate level (e.g. of provision or utilisation) should be.
143
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Corporate HNA: what is the methodology?

A

Ask the local population what their health needs are:

  • Uses focus groups, interview, public meetings.
  • Wide variety of stakeholders e.g. teachers, HCPs, social workers, charity workers, local businesses.
144
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Corporate HNA: what are the pros?

A
  • Based on the felt + expressed needs of the population in question.
  • Recognises the detailed knowledge + experience of those working within the population.
  • Takes into account a wide range of views.
145
Q

HEALTH NEEDS AX

Corporate HNA: what are the cons?

A
  • Difficult to distinguish need from demand.
  • Groups may have vested interests + may be influenced by political agendas.
  • Dominant personalities may have undue influence.
146
Q 
HEALTH NEEDS AX
What is a service that is...
i) demanded but not needed or supplied?
ii) supplied + needed but not demanded?
iii) supplied but not needed or demanded?
A

i) Cosmetic surgery.
ii) Anti-hypertensives (as usually asymptomatic).
iii) >75 health check by GP as no benefit seen.

147
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

What is meant by evaluation?

A

Evaluation is the assessment of whether a service achieves its objectives.
- Process that attempts to determine as systematically + objectively as possible the relevance, effectiveness + impact of activities in the light of their objectives.

148
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

Give some examples of evaluations.

A
  • Evaluation of PH interventions.
  • Evaluation of single interventions (e.g. RCT evaluating effectiveness of a new cancer drug).
  • Health economic evaluation.
149
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

What is the Donabedian framework and what do each headings mean?

A
  • Structure – what is there.
  • Process – what is done.
    [Output sometimes included or classified under process].
  • Outcome – classification of health outcomes.
150
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

Give some structure examples.

A
  • Buildings = locations where screening is provided.
  • Staff = number of vascular surgeons/1000 population.
  • Equipment = number of ICU beds/1000 population.
151
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

Give some process examples.

A
  • Number of patients seen in A&E.

- Number of operations performed (may be expressed as a rate).

152
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

Give some outcome examples.

A

5Ds:
- Death, disease, disability, discomfort, dissatisfaction.
Also:
- Mortality (e.g. 30-day mortality rate).
- Morbidity (e.g. complication rate).
- QOL/patient reported outcome measures (PROMS).
- Patient satisfaction.

153
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

Give some examples of PROMs used in outcome.

A
  • Oxford hip score.
  • Oxford knee score.
  • Aberdeen varicose vein questionnaire.
  • EQ-5D.
154
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

What are some issues with health outcome?

A
  • Link (cause + effect) between health service provided + health outcome may be difficult to establish as many other factors may be involved (e.g. case-mix, severity, other confounding factors).
  • Time lag between service provided + outcome may be long (e.g. healthy eating intervention in children + T2DM incidence in adults).
  • Large sample sizes may be needed to detect statistically significant effects.
  • Data may not be available or may be issues with data quality.
155
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

When considering data quality what should be considered?

A

CART

  • Completeness.
  • Accuracy.
  • Relevance.
  • Timeliness.
156
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

One aspect of evaluation is the quality of health services. What can be used when assessing this?

A

Maxwell’s Dimensions of Quality (3As + 3Es) –

  • Acceptability (how acceptable is the service to the people needing it?)
  • Accessibility (is the service provided?)
  • Appropriateness (right treatment given to right people at right time?)
  • Effectiveness (does the intervention/service produce the desired effect?)
  • Efficiency (is the output maximised for a given input or is the input minimised for a given level of output?)
  • Equity (are patients being treated fairly?
157
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES
Give some examples of things to consider under…
i) accessibility.
ii) appropriateness.

A

i) Geographical access, cost to patients, waiting times.

ii) Overuse? Underuse? Misuse?

158
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

What are the 2 types of evaluation methods?

A
  • Qualitative.

- Quantitative.

159
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

Describe qualitative evaluation methods.

A
  • Consult relevant stakeholders as appropriate (e.g. staff, patients, relatives, carers, policy makers).
  • Methodology = observation (participant vs. non-participant), interviews (unstructured, semi-structured or structured), focus groups, review of documents.
160
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

Describe quantitative evaluation methods.

A
  • Routinely collected data (e.g. hospital admissions, mortality).
  • Review of records (e.g. medical, administrative).
  • Surveys, other special studies (using epidemiological methods).
161
Q

EVALUATION OF SERVICES

When evaluating health services what is the overall framework?

A

General framework depends on service being evaluated + can be prospective or retrospective –

  • Define what the service is i.e. what it includes.
  • What are the aims + objectives of the service? Are they stated + appropriate.
  • Donabedian framework ± dimensions of quality.
  • Methodology i.e. qualitative, quantitative, mixed methods.
  • Results, conclusions + recommendations.
162
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What are some factors promoting excessive energy intake?

A
  • Employment (shift work).
  • Characertistics of food (energy density, portion size).
  • Social aspect (people usually go out for food).
  • Genetics.
  • Advertisements.
163
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

Define malnutrition.

A

Refers to deficiencies, excesses or imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients.

164
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What does malnutrition cover?

A

Undernutrition:
- Stunting (low height for age).
- Wasting (low weight for height).
- Underweight (low weight for age).
- Micronutrient deficiencies + insufficiencies.
Over nutrition/weight:
- Obesity + diet-related diseases (CVD, stroke, T2DM).

165
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What are some chronic medical conditions that require nutritional support?

A
  • T2DM.
  • Coeliac disease.
  • IBD.
  • Eating disorders.
  • Obesity.
166
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR
What period is sensitive for the development of food preferences?
What 4 topics has an influence on feeding behaviours

A
  • First 2 years of life.

- Maternal diet, breastfeeding, parenting practices, age of weaning + types of food exposed to.

167
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

Explain how maternal diet influences feeding behaviour.

A
  • Human foetuses swallow significant amount of amniotic fluid during gestation + amniotic fluid is influenced by maternal diet.
168
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What role does breastfeeding play?

A

Taste preference + bodyweight regulation.

169
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What are the pros of breastfeeding?

A
  • Less picky eaters in childhood.
  • More likely to accept novel foods in weaning.
  • More likely to have a diet rich in fruit + vegetables if >3m.
  • Bodyweight regulation (babies stop feeding when full if breastfeeding whereas bottle-fed infants usually encouraged to finish bottle).
170
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

Explain the difference in parenting practices relative to feeding behaviours.

A

Maladaptive tactics:
- Coercion, persuading + contingencies.
- Risk of non-organic feeding disorders (food aversion/refusal).
Positive practices:
- Avoid pressure, don’t use food as a reward, provide variety of foods.

171
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What are the 3 distinct eating disorder illnesses recognised in DSM-V?

A
  • Anorexia nervosa.
  • Bulimia nervosa.
  • Binge eating disorder.
172
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

Explain what is meant by disordered eating.

A
  • Restraint.
  • Strict dieting.
  • Disinhibition.
  • Emotional/night eating.
  • Weight + shape concerns.
  • Inappropriate compensatory behaviours.
173
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What are the three basic forms of dieting?

A

All associated with restriction of food intake:

  • Restrict the total amount of food eaten.
  • Restrict the types of food eaten.
  • Restrict the time-window for eating (intermittent fasting.
174
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What are some problems with dieting?

A
  • Risk factor for development of EDs.
  • Results in loss of lean body mass, not just fat mass.
  • Slows metabolic rate.
  • Chronic dieting may disrupt normal appetite responses + increase sensations of hunger.
  • Long-term weight loss is challenging, usually plateau + then regain weight.
175
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What is the portion size effect?

A

Consumption of large portion sizes of energy dense food facilitates over consumption.
- Without compensatory effects > increased obesity.

176
Q

FOOD + BEHAVIOUR

What is dietary restraint?

A

Restrained eating is the deliberate attempt to inhibit food intake in order to maintain or lose weight:

  • Effortful, cognitively demanding where you ignore feelings of hunger.
  • Certain circumstances > disinhibition > overeating.
177
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are the 3 core principles of the NHS?

A
  • Universal = it meets the needs of everyone.
  • Comprehensive = it’s based on clinical need, not ability to pay.
  • Free = at the point of delivery.
178
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What is health inequality?

A

The unjust + avoidable differences in people’s health across the population + between specific population groups.
- They go against the principles of social justice as they are avoidable.

179
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What is the inverse care law?

A

The availability of medical care tends to vary inversely with the need of the population served.
- I.e. those who need it most, don’t access it as much + vice versa.

180
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are some vulnerable groups of patients in the NHS?

A
  • Asylum seekers.
  • LGBTQ+.
  • Homeless.
  • Ex-prisoners.
  • MH sufferers.
  • LD patients.
181
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What is meant by social exclusion?

A

The process of being shut out from any of the social, economic, political or cultural systems which determine the social integration of a person in society.

182
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

Define homelessness.

A

A person without a home, typically living on the streets.

- Also includes people living with family, in B+Bs etc.

183
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are some causes of homelessness?

A
  • Relationship breakdown (#1 stated cause).
  • Mental illness, domestic abuse.
  • Disputes with parents.
  • Bereavement (≥50% say they have no family ties).
  • Drugs, alcohol.
  • No money or job.
184
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What populations are vulnerable to homelessness?

A
  • LGBTQ+.
  • Ex-service men + women.
  • Substance misusers.
  • Failed asylum seekers.
185
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are some health problems faced by the homeless?

A
  • Infectious diseases (TB, Hepatitis).
  • Resp problems.
  • Poor condition of feet + teeth.
  • Sexual health issues.
  • Injuries following violence, rape.
  • Serious mental illnesses (e.g. schizophrenia).
  • Poor nutrition.
  • Addictions/substance misuse.
186
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are the common causes of death amongst the homeless?

A
  • Accidents.
  • Suicide.
  • Liver problems.
187
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are some general barriers to accessing medical care?

A
  • Language + communication barriers.

- Education levels (not knowing when to access care).

188
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are some barriers to healthcare for travellers?

A
  • Reluctance of GPs to register travellers + visit traveller sites.
  • Poor reading + writing skills (many are illiterate).
  • Communication difficulties.
  • Too few permanent sites.
  • Mistrust of professionals.
189
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are some barriers to healthcare for the homeless?

A
  • Difficulties with access to healthcare (opening times, appointment + procedures location, perceived ± actual discrimination).
  • Lack of integration between primary care services + other agencies (housing, social services, criminal justice system).
  • Other things on their mind (people do not prioritise health when there are more immediate survival issues).
  • May not know where to go or may be unable to get there.
190
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are some barriers to healthcare for immigrants?

A
  • Language, cultural + communication barriers.
  • Racism, prejudice, discrimination + stigma.
  • Different perceptions of care.
  • May not know how the NHS works.
191
Q 
SOCIAL EXCLUSION
Define...
i) asylum seeker.
ii) refugee.
iii) humanitarian protection.
A

i) a person who has made an application for refugee status.
ii) a person granted asylum + refugee status, usually means leave to remain for 5 years then reapply.
iii) failed to demonstrate claim for asylum but face serious threat to life if returned. Usually 3 years then reapply.

192
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What are some asylum seekers entitlements?

A
  • Housing but no choice of where.
  • Cash support amounting £37pp in the household (or £35 if refused).
  • Full access to NHS (free prescriptions, eyesight tests, dental care).
  • Education for children 5–17.
193
Q

SOCIAL EXCLUSION

What health problems affect asylum seekers?

A
  • Common illness + illnesses specific to country of origin.
  • Injuries from war + travelling.
  • No previous health surveillance, neonatal screening, immunisations.
  • Malnutrition, torture + sexual abuse (including FGM).
  • Communicable + blood borne diseases.
  • PTSD, depression, psychosis, self-harm, sleep disturbance.
194
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

Define domestic abuse.

A

Any incident or pattern of incidents of controlling, coercive, threatening behaviour, violence or abuse between those aged ≥16 who are or have been, intimate partners or family members regardless of gender or sexuality.
- Includes – psychological, physical, sexual, financial + emotional.

195
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

How might domestic abuse present?

A

Traumatic injuries following an assault:
- #s, miscarriage, facial injuries, bruises, haemorrhages, puncture wounds.
Somatic problems or chronic illness consequent on living with abuse:
- Headaches, GI issues, chronic pain, premature delivery, low birth weight.
Psychological/psychosocial problems secondary to abuse:
- PTSD, parasuicide, substance misuse, depression, anxiety, eating disorders.

196
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

What are some indications of domestic abuse?

A
  • Unwitnessed by others.
  • Repeat attendances to GP or A+E (especially during unsociable hours).
  • Delay in seeking help + multiple minor injuries?
197
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

What assessment tool can be used in domestic abuse?

A

Domestic Abuse + Sexual Harassment (DASH) tool.

  • Encourages you to gather information about everything that is going on in the situation.
  • No score that = high risk but may say something that suddenly makes you think they’re high risk + need intervention.
198
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

What does a standard/medium DASH risk mean and how do you manage this?

A

Lower likelihood of serious harm:

  • It’s their choice what to do.
  • Give them contact details for domestic abuse services + let them decide.
  • CANNOT break confidentiality.
199
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

What does a high DASH risk mean and how do you manage this?

A

Risk of imminent or serious harm:

  • Refer to MARAC/IDVAS (wherever possible with consent).
  • CAN break confidentiality.
200
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

What is MARAC?

A

Multi-Agency Risk Assessment Conference:
- Meeting where information is shared on the highest risk domestic abuse cases between representatives of local police, health, child protection, housing practitioners, IDVAS, probation + other specialists.

201
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

What will happen in the MARAC?

A
  • Representatives discuss options for increasing safety of victim + turn these into a coordinated action plan with primary focus of safeguarding victim.
  • MARAC will also make links to safeguard any children + manage the behaviour of the perpetrator so it considers all those involved.
202
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE
What is IDVAS?
What do they do?

A
  • Independent Domestic Abuse Advisers.

- Help victims to navigate the domestic abuse services.

203
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

How do IDVAS help victims navigate the domestic abuse services?

A
  • Advocacy + advice around domestic abuse, safety planning.
  • Support through court proceedings.
  • Signposting to specialist services (housing, legal services).
  • A voice in the MARAC process + a single point of contact.
204
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

What do individuals want a doctor to do in terms of domestic abuse?

A
  • Take initiative + ask.
  • Try + speak to them alone.
  • Document everything they say + any injuries.
  • Display helpline posters + contact cards to create comfortable environment.
  • Ask direct questions being non-judgemental + reassuring.
  • Only report to police if safe to do so – focus on patient’s + children’s safety.
  • Give info + refer where appropriate (work with other agencies).
205
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

In terms of domestic abuse, what should doctors not do?

A
  • Assume someone else will take care of things (they may be their only contact).
  • Ask about domestic abuse in front of family/informal interpreters.
  • Tell them what to do, they are the expert in their own situation.
206
Q

DOMESTIC ABUSE

What is the impact of children living with domestic abuse?

A
  • Affects their physical + psychological health, has long-term impacts on self-esteem, relationships, education + stress.
  • Link between child abuse + domestic abuse so always consider safeguarding duty.
207
Q

UNDERAGE SEX

What are some issues related to teenage pregnancy?

A

Negative outcomes for both mothers + child:

  • Poor health.
  • Lower academic achievement, socioeconomic status + self-esteem.
  • Under achievement at work.
208
Q

UNDERAGE SEX

What are some compliance issues with contraception?

A
  • SEs like acne, weight gain.
  • Mood changes.
  • Fertility concerns.
  • Bleeding patterns.
209
Q

UNDERAGE SEX

What does the law regarding underage sex state?

A
  • Child <13 CANNOT consent to sex so it is rape in ANY circumstance.
  • Child 13–15 is underage for sex but can legally consent (if mutually agreed + not abusive or exploitative).
  • Confidentiality can be broken in a case of safeguarding or child welfare.
210
Q

UNDERAGE SEX

What is meant by Gillick Competence + Fraser guidelines?

A
  • Refers to Gillick court case about underage contraception.
  • Fraser guidelines are criteria that judges the competence of a young person to make decisions about contraception without parental consent.
  • If they satisfy the criteria, they are Gillick competent.
211
Q

UNDERAGE SEX

What are the Fraser guidelines?

A
  • Patient understands the advice given.
  • It’s likely that the patient will continue to have sexual intercourse ± contraception.
  • The patient’s physical or mental health may suffer as a result of withholding contraceptive advice or treatment.
  • It’s in the best interests of the patient + the doctor to provide contraceptive advice + treatment without parental consent.
  • Patient cannot be persuaded to inform their parents.
212
Q

DEFINITIONS
Define…
i) salutogenesis.
ii) emotional intelligence.

A

i) Favourable physiological changes secondary to experience which promote healing + health.
ii) Ability to identify + manage one’s own emotions as well as those of others.

FINALS (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions