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GI P2a > Public Health > Flashcards

Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

What is the sepsis 6?

A
  • Give O2 to keep oxygen above 94%
  • take blood cultures
  • give IV antibiotics
  • give a fluid challenge
  • measure lactate
  • measure urine output
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2
Q

What is the maximum units of alcohol that should be had in a week

A

14

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3
Q

What is the highest quality study design?

A

Systematic review

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4
Q

When should a new born baby check occur?

A

7-8 weeks

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5
Q

What is PHQ-9?

A

Tool for screening depression

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6
Q

What is divine command ethics?

A

Is it commanded by God?

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7
Q

What is virtue ethics?

A

looks at virtue or moral character of the person carrying out the action, rather than ethical duties or rules or consequences

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8
Q

What is utilitarism?

A

Actions are right if they do the most benefit to the most people

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9
Q

What is deontology?

A

morality of an action is based on the action itself rather than the consequences

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10
Q

What is consequentialism?

A

action is judged only by its consequences

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11
Q

What are the four phases of Iceberg concept of disease?

A

Pre-symptomatic, undiagnosed/wrongly diagnosed, diagnosed (uncontrolled), diagnosed (controlled)

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12
Q

What is an ecological study?

A

population-based data rather than individual data

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13
Q

What is a cross sectional study?

A

Prevalence study

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14
Q

What is a case control study?

A

looks at people with a disease and compares with a control

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15
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

incidence study, follows a group of people over a period of time

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16
Q

What is a intervention study?

A

do something and compare to no intervention

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17
Q

What is a confounding factor in a randomised controlled trial?

A

when the effect of an intervention is distorted because of the association with other factors that influences the outcome

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18
Q

What is the principle of necessity?

A

When a patient is unable to give consent, you can only give treatment to save life or limb in the emergency

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19
Q

What is the disability paradox?

A

people with a disability report a higher QoL

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20
Q

What is the R number?

A

defined as the average number of secondary cases generated by a primary case

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21
Q

What are the five focal virtues?

A

Compassion, discernment (why as well as how), trustworthiness, integrity, conscientiousness

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22
Q

what is objective uncertainty?

A
  • aleatory: can’t know any more

- epistemic: don’t know any more

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23
Q

What is subjective uncertainty?

A
  • ethical: don’t know what I should do

- choice: don’t know what I want to do

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24
Q

What are psychosocial factors that increase the risk of CHD?

A
  • type A personality
  • depression/anxiety
  • psychosocial work contracts: long work hours, high demand/low control
  • lack of social support
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25
Q

What is give in alcohol withdrawal?

A

chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride

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26
Q

What is given in severe alcohol dependence?

A

naltrexone

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27
Q

What is given in an opioid OD?

A

naloxone

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28
Q

What are two screening tools for alcoholism?

A
  1. Alcohol use disorders identification test (AUDIT)

2. CAGE

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29
Q

What are the 6 stages of change in the trans-theoretical model?

A
  1. precontemplation
  2. contemplation
  3. preparation
  4. action (<6 months stopped)
  5. maintenance
  6. relapse
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30
Q

What is sensitivity in regards to screening?

A

measures how well a test picks up those with disease

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31
Q

What is specificity in regards to screening?

A

measures how well it recognises those without disease

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32
Q

what is addiction defined as?

A

physical and psychological dependence

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33
Q

What is the defined BMI or % body weight in anorexia nervosa?

A
  • BMI <17.5

- 85% body weight

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34
Q

What vaccine should pregnant women get?

A

flu vaccine and whooping cough vaccine

35
Q

What vaccines are given to babies at 8 weeks

A
  • 6 in 1
  • rota virus
  • Men B
36
Q

What does the 6 in 1 vaccine protect from?

A

whooping cough, tetanus, diphtheria, HepB, Hib, polio

37
Q

What vaccines are given at 12 weeks?

A
  • 6 in 1 (second dose)
  • pneumococcal
  • rota virus (second dose)
38
Q

What vaccines are given at 16 weeks?

A
  • 6 in 1 (third dose)

- MenB (second dose)

39
Q

What vaccines are given at 1 year?

A
  • Hib/MenC
  • MMR
  • PCV (second dose)
  • MenB (third dose)
40
Q

What vaccines are given at 3 years and 4 months

A
  • MMR (2nd vaccine)

- 4 in 1 preschool booster

41
Q

What vaccine is given at 12 years?

A

HPV

42
Q

What vaccine is given at 65 years?

A
  • pneumococcal

- flu vaccine

43
Q

What vaccine is given at 70 years?

A

Shingles

44
Q

Is HIV a notifiable disease?

A

no

45
Q

What is the definition of bias?

A

systemic deviation from true estimation of association between exposure and outcome

46
Q

What is selection bias?

A

systemic error when selecting/allocating study participants

47
Q

What is information bias?

A

systematic error in measurement/classification

48
Q

what is absolute risk?

A

risk of developing a disease over a time period

49
Q

What is a relative risk?

A

risk of getting a disease in a exposed group compared to non exposed group

50
Q

What is attributable risk (aka ARR)

A

rate of disease in exposed that may be attributed to exposure

51
Q

What is NNT? (number needed to treat)

A

number of people needed to treat (for 1 person to benefit). NNT = 1/ ARR

52
Q

What is prevalence?

A

number of cases present in a particular population at a given time

53
Q

What is incidence?

A

number of new cases in a given time period

54
Q

What is the prevention paradox?

A

contradictory situation where majority of cases come from low risk group and majority from high risk group

55
Q

What is the inverse care law?

A

the availability of good health or social care tends to vary inversely with the need of the population served

56
Q

What is the unit from BMI?

A

kg/m^2

57
Q

What are the values for each BMI group?

A
  • underweight: <18.4
  • Normal range: 18.5-24.9
  • overweight: 25-29.9
  • obese (Class I): 30-34.9
  • obese (class II): 35-39.9
  • obese (class III): >40
58
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

preventing disease occurence

59
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

early detection and diagnosis of disease

60
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

targets controlling the disease once is has begun to progress, to avoid further complications

61
Q

What is quaternary prevention?

A

prevention of over medication and diagnosis of disease

62
Q

What age is the shingles vaccine offered at?

A

70 and 79

63
Q

What is the necessity concerns framework?

A
  • necessity beliefs: percieved personal need for medication
  • concerns: about adverse effects
  • adherence requires increased necessity beliefs, decreased concerns
64
Q

What are the four possible mechanisms set out in the black report to explain widening socio-economic health inequalities?

A
  1. artefact
  2. social selection
  3. behaviour
  4. material circumstances
65
Q

What are the main genera that cause influenza outbreak in humans?

A

A and B

  • A is more severe
  • B causes less severe disease, with sporadic outbreaks
66
Q

What is antigenic drift and what does it cause?

A

Minor genetic variation. Causes seasonal epidemics

67
Q

What is antigenic shift

A

Gene reassortment and major variation. Associated with pandemics

68
Q

What does naltrexone do in alcohol treatment?

A

cause rapid detox

69
Q

What is activation syndrome?

A

seen in alcohol withdrawal. Tremours, agitation, increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure. Seizures

70
Q

What is top down deductive?

A

one ethical theory consistenly applied to problems

71
Q

What is bottom-up ethical arguments?

A

previous medical problems guide practice

72
Q

Why does phase 1 and phase 2 drug processing occur?

A

Because the kidney can’t excrete lipid soluble things

73
Q

What are cholinergic receptors?

A

muscarinic and nicotinic. All synapses except post ganglion sympathetic
Respond to ACh

74
Q

What are adrenergic receptors?

A

alpha and beta.

- activated by catecholamines

75
Q

What do A1 receptors do?

A

vasoconstriction, increase blood pressure, increase peripheral resistance

76
Q

What do A2 receptors do?

A

inhibit noriepinephrine, ACh and insulin release

77
Q

What do B1 receptors do?

A

tachycardia, lipolysis

78
Q

What do B2 receptors do?

A

decrease peripheral resistance, bronchodilation, glycogenolysis

79
Q

What is organisation (pathology)

A

scarring (replacement of granulation tissue by fibrosis)

80
Q

What are the cells involved in acute inflammation?

A

neutrophils and monocytes

81
Q

What are the cells involved in chronic inflammation?

A

lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells

82
Q

What is suppuration?

A

formation of pus

83
Q

What cells are involved in arterial thrombus vs venous?

A
  1. arterial: platelets

2. venous: RBC

84
Q

What direction do malignant and benign tumours grow?

A
  • benign: outwards (exophytic)

- malignant: inwards (endophytic)

GI P2a (12 decks)

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