PTU quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five key components of the patient care process?

A

Collect, assess, plan, implement, follow up

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2
Q

What is the primary role of a pharmacy technician?

A

Assists the pharmacist with dispensing prescriptions

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3
Q

Depending on state law, who can perform the same tasks as pharmacists?

A

Intern

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4
Q

What does scope of practice provide pharmacy technicians?

A

Boundaries for duties pharmacy techs can and cannot perform

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5
Q

According to most state laws, what is the primary role of a pharmacist?

A

Counsels patients about their medication

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6
Q

Mr. Wagner has a prescription for promethazine syrup. What is one of your main roles as a pharmacy technician?

A

Gather a list of Mr. Wagner’s current medications and medical conditions

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7
Q

In which setting is a technician most likely to compound sterile products?

A

Hospital pharmacy

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8
Q

In which type of pharmacy will a pharmacy technician typically communicate with patients in person?

A

Community pharmacy

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9
Q

What is a basic description of a pharmacy technician’s role?

A

Works under pharmacist supervision to help and support patients

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10
Q

In which type of pharmacy will a pharmacy technician typically package medications to ship to patients via postal service?

A

Mail-order pharmacy

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11
Q

Scope of practice can differ for pharmacy technicians due to differences in:

A

Each state’s board of pharmacy

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12
Q

In which setting is a technician most likely to package medications in blister packs for nursing homes?

A

Long-term care pharmacy

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13
Q

What is the role of a physician when working with the pharmacy team?

A

Resolves medication therapy issues

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14
Q

How can pharmacy technicians help with the follow-up component of the patient care process?

A

Reschedule patients who miss appointments

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15
Q

According to most state laws, which duty can pharmacy technicians perform?

A

Manage pharmacy inventory

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16
Q

Who sets regulations and requirements to practice as a pharmacy technician?

A

State board of pharmacy

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17
Q

Completing continuing education courses is a way to:

A

Expand knowledge and grow professionally

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18
Q

A pharmacy technician who has listed with their state Board of Pharmacy for the sole purpose of keeping their information on file is considered:

A

Registered

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19
Q

What is an example of maintaining high standards of integrity and conduct?

A

Avoiding activities that discredit the pharmacy profession

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20
Q

Kelly, a mail-order pharmacy technician, makes sure that patient information is protected and safe. Which code of ethic is this an example of?

A

Supporting patient respect and confidentiality

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21
Q

What is a best practice for technicians to stay current with pharmacy practice and expand their knowledge?

A

Complete continuing education credits

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22
Q

If a state Board of Pharmacy requires pharmacy technicians to meet special qualifications, the technicians could be considered:

A

Certified

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23
Q

Nikki, a long-term care pharmacy technician, avoids illegal behavior. Which code of ethic is she following?

A

Being honest and maintaining integrity

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24
Q

Cory, a community pharmacy technician, follows his pharmacy’s protocols for keeping protected health information safe. Which code of ethic is this an example of?

A

Maintaining patient confidentiality

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25
Q

Regulations and requirements to practice as a pharmacy technician are set by:

A

State board of pharmacy

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26
Q

An example of a verbal prescription is one that comes to your pharmacy through a(n):

A

*A) Automated answering machine
B) Prescriber’s computer
C) Pharmacy’s fax machine
D) Patient’s computer

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27
Q

What should you do when a prescription is transferred to your pharmacy?

A

*A) Treat it like a new prescription
B) Call the pharmacy for refills
C) Tell the patient you can’t fill it
D) Wait 48 hours to fill after receiving it

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28
Q

Which medication must contain the prescriber’s DEA number on the prescription?

A

A) Amlodipine
B) Metoprolol ER
*C) Oxycodone
D) Telmisartan

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29
Q

If you have a prescription for metoprolol ER, what patient information should be on the prescription?

A

*A) Date of birth
B) Full address
c) Insurance ID number
D) Telephone number

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30
Q

Which medication should have the patient’s full address on the prescription

A

A) Lotensin HCT
*B) Percocet
C) Toprol-XL
D) Zocor

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31
Q

Noncontrolled prescriptions should contain the prescriber’s:

A

A) DEA number
*B) License designation
C) Telephone number
D) Fax number

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32
Q

A prescription for a noncontrolled substance should include the patient’s:

A

A) Home address
*B) Date of birth
C) Insurance information
D) Telephone number

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33
Q

When speaking with patients at drop off, you want to:

A

A) Avoid direct eye contact
B) Ask yes or no questions
C) Speak quickly and mumble
*D) Avoid using pharmacy jargon

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34
Q

Tamper-resistant paper is used to show:

A

*A) Alterations
B) Ink changes
C) Torn edges
D) Water stains

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35
Q

Which agency requires controlled prescriptions to include the patient’s full address?

A

A) CDC
*B) DEA
C) FDA
D) NIH

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36
Q

A prescription for a controlled substance must include the:

A

*A) Prescriber’s DEA number
B) Pharmacy’s DEA number
C) Insurance ID number
D) Pharmacy’s license number

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37
Q

If information is missing from a prescription, you should alert the patient at:

A

*A) Drop-off
B) Data entry
C) Filling
D) Pick up

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38
Q

What information is required on a prescription for tramadol?

A

*A) Patient’s full address
B) Prescriber’s NPI number
C) Patient’s insurance provider
D) Pharmacy’s DEA number

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39
Q

A prescription that comes to the pharmacy computer directly from the prescriber’s computer is considered what type of prescription?

A

*Electronic
Fax
Paper
Verbal

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40
Q

What piece of information helps verify the medication a patient wants refilled?

A

Prescriber name
*Prescription number
Patient representative name
Prescriber telephone number

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41
Q

What is required on a noncontrolled prescription?

A

Drug NDC number
*Medication strength
Pharmacy address
Prescriber’s telephone

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42
Q

How would you respond to a patient that is not pleased they are having to wait for clarification on their prescription?

A

*Empathetically
Frustratingly
Subliminally
Upsettingly

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43
Q

What can technicians do to help with the “transfer out” process?

A

A) Gather medication history for the patient’s profile
*B) Confirm the prescription isn’t expired before transferring it
C) Make sure the medication is in stock at the pharmacy that’s transferring out
D) Ask the patient for their insurance information before billing the prescription

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44
Q

Which Schedule of controlled substances are not allowed to be transferred?

A

*II
III
IV
V

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45
Q

What does it mean to “transfer in” a prescription?

A

A) The pharmacy who has the prescription on file places it “on hold.”
B) The pharmacy sending the prescription to another pharmacy fills it.
C) The pharmacy who has the prescription on file mails it to the patient.
*D) The pharmacy receiving the prescription from another pharmacy fills it.

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46
Q

What can technicians do to help with the “transfer in” process?

A

*A) Setup patient profiles
B) Fax transferring prescriptions to another pharmacy
C) Inform the receiving pharmacy of the last refill date
D) Ask patients nicely why they’re leaving the pharmacy

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47
Q

How involved can technicians get with the Rx transfer process?

A

A) No states allow pharmacy technicians to transfer prescriptions
B) Every state allows pharmacy technicians to transfer prescriptions
*C) State law determines whether technicians can transfer prescriptions
D) Staff pharmacists may allow pharmacy technicians to transfer prescriptions

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48
Q

What information is important to gather at drop-off for all patients?

A

Drug allergies

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49
Q

Mr. Ramsey is a new patient and is dropping off his prescription. What information do you need to obtain from Mr. Ramsey?

A

Current medications and medical conditions

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50
Q

Which type of question is a good way to ensure you are getting the right information from a patient?

A

Open-ended

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51
Q

A new patient comes to your pharmacy drop-off window. She hands you an OxyContin prescription written by an out-of-state prescriber. She tells you her insurance does not cover this medication and she’ll pay cash. What do you do?

A

Alert the pharmacist about the out-of-state prescriber.

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52
Q

A patient is at your pharmacy drop-off window talking about his medications. What do you need to do?

A

Make sure you are talking in a location where other customers cannot overhear.

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53
Q

What is an example of a red flag for a fraudulent prescription?

A

Using multiple prescribers to obtain prescriptions for the same controlled med

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54
Q

What is the process of accepting or denying a submitted claim called?

A

*Adjudication
Coinsurance
Formulary
Premium

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55
Q

Mrs. Huang just turned 65 and comes to your pharmacy wanting more information about Medicare. She asks when open enrollment of Medicare Part D is. Which date range do you tell her?

A

January 1 to April 15
May 1 to July 7
*October 15 and December 7
November 15 to December 31

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56
Q

PBMs (Pharmacy Benefits Manager) are:

A

Organizations who act as a middleman between the pharmacy and the insurer

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57
Q

What is a deductible known as?

A

An amount of money due before the insurance pays for healthcare costs

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58
Q

Insurance Premiums are:

A

Ongoing amount paid to keep insurance active

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59
Q

If a patient’s insurance plan requires a primary care physician, it’s likely they have which type of insurance?

A

*HMO
PBM
PPO
TRI

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60
Q

Once a patient has enrolled or made changes to Medicare Part D, when does it take effect?

A

*January 1
April 15
July 4
December 31

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61
Q

What does Medicare Part B cover?

A

Most outpatient prescriptions
Hospice
Hospital visits
*Prescriber visits

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62
Q

What is the role of third-party payers?

A

Reimburse healthcare providers for their services

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63
Q

What is a formulary known as?

A

A list of drugs covered by the insurance, organized in tiers by cost

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64
Q

Which Medicare plan combines original Medicare with a prescription plan?

A

Part A
Part B
*Part C
Part D

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65
Q

What does Medicare Part D cover?

A

Hospital visits
Nebulizer medications
*Outpatient prescriptions
Prescriber visits

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66
Q

Medicaid is run by:

A

Federal and state governments

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67
Q

What is it called when a percentage of the drug cost is to be paid, for each prescription?

A

*Coinsurance
Deductible
Formulary
Premium

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68
Q

Hospital visits, hospice, and skilled nursing facilities are covered by which Medicare part?

A

*A
B
C
D

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69
Q

What is a plan characteristic for patients with a PPO?

A

Able to see the prescriber of their choice

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70
Q

Which designation will you usually find on an insurance card that signifies pharmacy benefits?

A

Drug
Med
Pharm
*Rx

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71
Q

Which number is used as a second identifier to identify a specific plan within an insurance company?

A

Group
BIN
Member ID
*PCN

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72
Q

You are entering a prescription for Xeljanz for Mrs. Robinette into the computer. A message appears stating the prescribed medication is not covered and more information is needed from the prescriber before the drug is covered. What is this an example of?

A

Partial fill
*Prior authorization
Reconciliation
Refill too soon

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73
Q

What does a dual-eligible patient mean?

A

They have more than one insurance plan to cover the cost of medications

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74
Q

Mr. Rivas brings in his new prescription for clopidogrel. After you enter the prescription into the computer, you can see the claim is approved. What is this process known as?

A

*Adjudication
Cost-sharing
Med reconciliation
Prior authorization

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75
Q

How is the coordination of benefits process best described?

A

Submitting claims to dual-eligible third parties

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76
Q

What information does the BIN identify?

A

The third-party payer that’s billed by the pharmacy for a prescription

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77
Q

Which number on an insurance card is used to identify the policyholder?

A

Group
IIN
*Member ID
PCN

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78
Q

Which type of data entry error can flag an insurance company to perform an audit?

A

Late refill
Invalid member ID
*Invalid days’ supply
Missing dependent code

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79
Q

What action might an insurance company take when a pharmacy is dispensing refills too soon?

A

Audit

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80
Q

Which information is the dependent code used in determining?

A

The spouse or child who is receiving the prescription

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81
Q

What would you tell a colleague about billing diabetes testing supplies to Medicare Part B?

A

An ICD-10 groups of E08-E13 diagnosis code is needed to support medical necessity.

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82
Q

Which strategy will best help to avoid problems during a Medicare audit on DME orders?

A

Having proper documentation

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83
Q

Which item is generally covered under Medicare Part D?

A

Needles and syringes

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84
Q

What piece of information must be on an electronic order for diabetes testing supplies for a patient with Medicare?

A

Specific frequency for use

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85
Q

Which product can be classified as durable medical equipment?

A

Crutches

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86
Q

Which characteristic would you use to best describe medical supplies?

A

They are often used once, then discarded.

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87
Q

What is the maximum number of lancets Medicare will cover for a patient with diabetes who does not use insulin?

A

100 every three months

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88
Q

Which strategy would you recommend when dispensing and billing a DME prescription to Medicare?

A

Keep the documentation for proof of delivery in the pharmacy for at least 7 years.

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89
Q

Which item is generally covered under Medicare Part B?

A

Glucose control solution

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90
Q

Which personal protective equipment must be worn when cutting or crushing hazardous tablets?

A

Double gloves, respiratory protection, protective gown, and ventilation

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91
Q

Which statement must appear on all controlled substance prescription labels?

A

“Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the person for whom it was prescribed”

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92
Q

Which medication class may cause fetal harm or birth defects if inhaled or absorbed through the skin?

A

Chemotherapy

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93
Q

Which number would Mrs. Laurie find on her prescription label?

A

Prescription number

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94
Q

When you’re preparing creams or ointments and need to weigh your ingredients, you generally will use a(n):

A

Electronic balance

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95
Q

Which equipment will you need to fill a prescription for metformin 500 mg tabs?

A

Counting tray and spatula

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96
Q

A prescription label is important because it:

A

Tells the patient how to correctly take the medication

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97
Q

What is an example of tall man lettering?

A

Clonidine
*LaMICtal
SPIRONOLACTONE
topiriMate

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98
Q

What should be done after handling a hazardous medication?

A

Wash hands thoroughly

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99
Q

Which identifier should be double-checked when selecting a product from the pharmacy shelf?

A

NDC number

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100
Q

What is tall man lettering?

A

Name of a medication written with certain parts in capital letters

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101
Q

What strategy can reduce LASA medication errors?

A

Place LASA shelf tags on shelves in the pharmacy

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102
Q

Which type of label contains the information “May Cause Drowsiness?”

A

Auxiliary

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103
Q

Which drug is most likely to cause devastating harm if an error occurs?

A

Avodart
*Humulin N
Topamax
Viagra

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104
Q

Which medication is classified as a hazardous drug?

A

Citalopram
Fluoxetine
*Paroxetine
Sertraline

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105
Q

USP <800> standards are intended to do what?

A

Protect healthcare personnel, patients, and the environment from exposure to hazardous drugs

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106
Q

OSHA requires that you have access to which type of resource when handling certain hazardous drugs?

A

HZD
PDR
*SDS
USP

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107
Q

Your pharmacy’s policy requires you to wear gloves when handling tamoxifen tablets because the medication is classified as carcinogenic. This means tamoxifen may potentially cause which adverse effect when touched?

A

*Cancer
Diarrhea
Dizziness
Low blood pressure

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108
Q

Which pharmacy employee should be most concerned about handling broken colchicine tablets?

A

An employee who is pregnant

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109
Q

Which strategy would you share with a new colleague about dispensing hazardous drugs?

A

Wear chemo gloves when unpacking cartons and vials of hazardous drugs.

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110
Q

What will you likely find in a hazardous drug spill kit?

A

NIOSH list
Black waste bin
Closed-system transfer device
*Personal protection equipment (PPE)

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111
Q

Having your tablets in a single layer on the counting tray can:

A

*Prevent miscounts
Increase miscounts
Make counting slower
Make counting harder

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112
Q

When a patient receives more medication than what’s on the prescription label, it can lead to:

A

Refill-too-soon rejections
Paying more than they should
Treatment regimen being cut short
*Pharmacy shortages and lost money

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113
Q

Which medication would you generally need to double-count?

A

*Alprazolam
Escitalopram
Trazodone
Venlafaxine

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114
Q

What may occur when a medication needs to be packaged in its original container, but is exposed to light and moisture?

A

*Loss of potency
Decrease in size
Increase effectiveness
Medication changes form

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115
Q

Which section in the package insert would state whether a drug should be stored in its original container?

A

Indications and Usage
Warnings and Precautions
Dosage Forms and Strengths
*How Supplied/Storage and Handling

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116
Q

When a drug is given a pregnancy category A rating it means the drug:

A

Has been shown to cause no harm to the fetus

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117
Q

Mr. Greer comes into the pharmacy and asks you to refill his blood pressure medication. When you look into the computer you see that he has both Crestor and Diovan available for refill. Which section of the package insert provides information about which medication is used to treat high blood pressure?

A

Dosage and Administration
*Indications and Usage
Use in Specific Populations
Warnings and Precautions

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118
Q

Which section of the package insert contains the most important prescribing information that can be found quickly?

A

Dosage and Administration
*Highlights
Indications and Usage
Table of Contents

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119
Q

Which section of the package insert is a reference area to help find specific prescribing information?

A

Appendices
Charts
Highlights
*Table of Contents

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120
Q

Mr. Quarterman gives you a prescription for Chantix. The prescriber has “take as directed” written on the prescription. Which section of the package insert provides information about how a medication is usually taken?

A

Contraindications
*Dosage and Administration
Indications and Usage
Warnings and Precautions

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121
Q

Which section of the package insert contains the Postmarketing Experience?

A

*Adverse Reactions
Drug Interactions
Use in Specific Populations
Warnings and Precautions

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122
Q

Mrs. Roberts brings in a prescription for Augmentin 875 mg. She informs you that she is severely allergic to penicillin. What section of the package insert provides information about drug allergies?

A

*Contraindications
Dosage and Administration
Indications and Usage
Use in Specific Populations

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123
Q

Which section of the package insert provides information on a drug affecting a lab test?

A

Adverse Reactions
Contraindications
Indications and Usage
*Warnings and Precautions

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124
Q

The Use in Specific Populations section of a package insert lists:

A

Safety concerns when using the drug in elderly patients

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125
Q

How are package inserts organized?

A

Alphabetically
Chapters
Numerically
*Sections

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126
Q

Off-label use means:

A

Prescribing the medication for an unapproved indication

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127
Q

You input Ms. Wright’s new birth control prescription in the computer. You get a warning about Ms. Wright taking birth control while on carbamazepine. Which section of the package insert will inform you about the effects of taking birth control while on carbamazepine?

A

Adverse Reactions
*Contraindications
Drug Interactions
Warnings and Precautions

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128
Q

Ms. Woodenhall would like to get her acetaminophen with codeine prescription as a liquid because her throat is too sore to swallow tablets. Which section of the package insert will indicate if it’s available as a liquid?

A

Indications and Usage
Dosage and Administration
Use in Specific Populations
*Dosage Forms and Strengths

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129
Q

The Product Description section of a package insert lists:

A

The structural formula of the medication

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130
Q

Which section of the package insert highlights information as a tool for the pharmacist when explaining how to take a medication to a patient?

A

Patient Counseling Information

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131
Q

A package insert’s wording must be approved by:

A

Food and Drug Administration

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132
Q

The Clinical Pharmacology section of a package insert lists:

A

How a drug is absorbed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body

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133
Q

Which section of the package insert provides the signs and symptoms for when a patient takes too much of the medication?

A

Overdosage

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134
Q

Mr. Khan has just been prescribed Lyrica. In which section of the package insert can you find Lyrica’s controlled substance schedule?

A

Drug Abuse and Dependence

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135
Q

The How Supplied/Storage and Handling section of a package insert lists the medication’s:

A

Description of appearance

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136
Q

Ms. Supat is concerned about her cancer risk while taking her medication. Which section of the package insert would the pharmacist refer to?

A

Nonclinical Toxicology

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137
Q

Which section of the package insert provides information on how well the drug works for its approved indication?

A

Clinical Studies

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138
Q

The USP-NF can be used to look up:

A

Materials needed for compounding medications

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139
Q

A generic medication is identical in active ingredients, strength, and dosage form as the brand-name product. What else must be identical to be considered therapeutically equivalent?

A

Absorption and release in the body

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140
Q

An “AB” rating in the Orange Book means a brand and generic drug are:

A

Therapeutically equivalent

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141
Q

Natural Medicines provides information to:

A

Verify drug-herb interactions

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142
Q

Which drug information source provides generic substitution equivalence ratings for Lasix?

A

Prescribers’ Digital Reference

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143
Q

Which drug information resource provides compatibility information on parenteral medications?

A

Handbook on Injectable Drugs

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144
Q

The first letter in the Orange Book rating code indicates:

A

Therapeutic equivalence

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145
Q

When applying a prescription label, a good way to adhere the label is to move from:

A

Left to right

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146
Q

How many 8-ounce prescription bottles will you need to fill a prescription of 480 mL of cetirizine?

A

2

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147
Q

What is an example of an appropriate measuring device for patients?

A

Oral syringe

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148
Q

Prescription amber bottles are measured in:

A

Ounces

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149
Q

Which item is generally used when weighing a cream or ointment?

A

Glassine paper

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150
Q

Which button on a digital scale clears the memory and resets the scale to 0 g?

A

Tare

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151
Q

A graduated cylinder is used to measure:

A

Liquids

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152
Q

According to federal law, what information must be distributed to the patient when picking up a prescription?

A

Notice of Privacy Practice

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153
Q

Why is a patient identifier significant at the pick-up counter?

A

Verifies the right patient

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154
Q

What is the term used to describe a percentage of the medication’s cost?

A

Coinsurance

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155
Q

What does OBRA ‘90 require?

A

Patients to be counseled or offered counseling by the pharmacist

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156
Q

Where would you look to find a prescription for a non-controlled liquid medication that has been prepared for a patient?

A

Will-call area

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157
Q

Which prescription information are you allowed to inform patients about, according to most states?

A

Drug name

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158
Q

A patient’s co-pay is determined by their:

A

Health insurance

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159
Q

How can you prevent mishaps when mailing or delivering medications?

A

Store meds flagged for delivery separately from other meds.

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160
Q

What should you keep in mind when mailing or delivering medications?

A

The delivery date is the date of service with Medicare-billed DME.

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161
Q

What’s an important factor to consider with medication delivery?

A

It may increase the number of new patients.

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162
Q

What strategy is the most appropriate when packaging meds for mail or delivery?

A

Write “Fragile” on packages that contain liquid meds.

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163
Q

How can bar codes on medication stock bottles help with your pharmacy tasks?

A

Reordering medications from the supplier

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164
Q

What’s a good best practice for preventing a wrong patient med error?

A

Use verified home and mailing addresses.

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165
Q

Automation is used in the pharmacy to:

A

Increase accuracy

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166
Q

You scan Mr. Dorsey’s prescription bottle’s bar code to do which function?

A

Refill his medication

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167
Q

How can the use of automated dispensing devices help keep patients safe?

A

Reduces the amount of errors in the dispensing process

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168
Q

With which pharmacy function do automated dispensing devices help?

A

Filling prescriptions

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169
Q

What is a best practice for incorporating a new pharmacy service into workflow?

A

Divide tasks among co-workers

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170
Q

Which practice can help evaluate and improve workflow?

A

Identify areas that take a long time to complete

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171
Q

What can hinder pharmacy workflow?

A

Arriving to work after a scheduled shift

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172
Q

What is a strategy to optimize pharmacy workflow?

A

Keep the pharmacy clean and organized

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173
Q

Marco has downtime during his pharmacy shift. What can he do to help with the workflow?

A

Restock supplies

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174
Q

Insulin is a high-alert medication because it:

A

Is more likely to cause serious harm

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175
Q

High alert medication:

A

High-alert medications are drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when they are used in error.

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176
Q

Which pharmacy employee should be most concerned about handling broken colchicine tablets?

A

An employee who is pregnant

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177
Q

Prescription amber bottles are measured in:

A

Ounces

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178
Q

Which medication is classified as a hazardous drug?

A

Divalproex

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179
Q

What is an appropriate measure to take when handling a hazardous drug spill?

A

Double-bagging used supplies and garb after cleaning the spill

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180
Q

If you are pregnant or may become pregnant, why is it recommended that you do not handle broken or crushed hazardous meds?

A

They may be absorbed through your skin and cause birth defects

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181
Q

USP <800> standards are intended to do what?

A

Protect healthcare personnel, patients, and the environment from exposure to hazardous drugs

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182
Q

What is a benefit to using automated dispensing devices in the pharmacy?

A

Handles high prescription volume

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183
Q

What should you tell a colleague about dispensing hazardous drugs

A

Outer packaging of hazardous drugs is prone to contamination, leading to skin exposure.

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184
Q

Which personal protective equipment must be worn when cutting or crushing hazardous tablets?

A

Double gloves, respiratory protection, protective gown, and ventilation

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185
Q

Which section in the package insert would state whether a drug should be stored in its original container?

A

How Supplied/Storage and Handling

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186
Q

How can bar codes on medication stock bottles help with your pharmacy tasks?

A

Reordering medications from the supplier

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187
Q

Which safety precaution should be performed when dispensing methotrexate tablets?

A

Avoid handling broken tablets

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188
Q

What is an example of tall man lettering?

A

ALPRAZolam

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189
Q

Liraglutide is classified as hazardous because it can cause harm to an unborn baby. Which term best describes this potential adverse effect?

A

Teratogenic

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190
Q

Look-alike/sound-alike medications are found on the Institute for Safe Medication Practices List of:

A

Confused Drug Names

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191
Q

Which medication would you generally need to double-count?

A

Alprazolam C-IV

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192
Q

Which type of alert would most likely show up when filling an Accutane prescription for a woman of child-bearing age?

A

Drug-Condition

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193
Q

Ms. Sampson has two prescription insurance plans. What’s the process called when you submit a claim to both of her insurances for a medication?

A

Coordination of benefits

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194
Q

Which supplies are needed when filling a prescription for potassium chloride 20 mEq/15 mL oral solution?

A

Funnel and graduated cylinder

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195
Q

What temperature range should room temperature products be stored in the pharmacy?

A

59°F to 86°F

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196
Q

You are stocking inventory and notice a bottle of metoprolol tartrate 50 mg has an expiration date of January 2022. When will the product expire?

A

January 31, 2022

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197
Q

What temperature range is proper refrigerator temperature?

A

2°C to 8°C

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198
Q

Which inventory responsibility is usually assigned to a pharmacy technician?

A

Storing and placing stock in the pharmacy

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199
Q

A pharmacist usually handles which inventory responsibility?

A

Controlling par levels for perpetual inventory

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200
Q

Which temperature range should frozen medications be stored at inside the pharmacy?

A

-25°C to -10°C

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201
Q

According to the product label, Varivax should be stored at -15°C prior to reconstitution. Based on this information, where should you store the medication?

A

In the freezer

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202
Q

Which pharmacy zone should a Proair HFA inhaler be stored?

A

Prescription needed

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203
Q

Ms. Berger needs help locating items from her shopping list. Which item is generally found behind the counter in the pharmacy?

A

Pseudoephedrine

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204
Q

What is the definition of perpetual inventory?

A

An ongoing, real-time account of stock levels

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205
Q

How is a manual ordering process managed?

A

Keeping an eye on physical levels of current stock

206
Q

How is a manufacturer, when used as a supplier, described?

A

Provides limited distribution or meds have special storage requirements

207
Q

What is the reorder point for a specific medication called?

A

Par level

208
Q

Which order check-in step ensures items that are supposed to be delivered have been delivered?

A

Marking off items on the packing slip as they’re removed from the bin

209
Q

Which type of ordering process provides a listing of all products that need to be replenished?

A

Automated

210
Q

Which order check-in step maintains pharmacy compliance?

A

Filing the order invoice appropriately

211
Q

Which type of supplier is used first when products are needed before the pharmacy warehouse delivery?

A

Preferred supplier

212
Q

When a quantity level discrepancy is discovered for a medication, how should it be handled?

A

Research the discrepancy to see if it warrants the need to update the quantity.

213
Q

Why are recalled meds sent back to the pharmacy’s supplier?

A

The supplier or FDA sent a notice of meds that need to be sent back.

214
Q

In regard to inventory, what is automatic drug substitution?

A

When a supplier is out of stock of a med and sends a different size or manufacturer

215
Q

What strategy is used to provide affordable medication options to pharmacies?

A

Automatic drug substitutions

216
Q

Which scenario can make a pharmacy a target for robbery?

A

Leaving the pharmacy door open

217
Q

How should you handle meds that need to be returned to the supplier?

A

Place meds that need to be returned in a designated area.

218
Q

Why would a pharmacy send back overstock items to their supplier?

A

The pharmacy can earn credit for meds they likely won’t use.

219
Q

What is it called when a supplier sends another size or manufacturer of a medication because it’s less costly?

A

Automatic drug substitution

220
Q

Which strategy is used to reduce the amount of medication the pharmacy has out of stock?

A

Automatic drug substitution

221
Q

Why are short-dated products sometimes sent back to the pharmacy’s supplier?

A

Because patients likely won’t use the meds before they expire

222
Q

Where should non-controlled meds that are waiting to be returned to the supplier be stored?

A

Out of workflow

223
Q

Which situation is a red flag for diversion?

A

Missing a large quantity of expensive medication

224
Q

Which type of ordering process provides a listing of all products that need to be replenished?

A

Automated

225
Q

What strategy is the most appropriate to manage drug shortages?

A

Know when to allocate short supply meds

226
Q

Which DAW code can be used during a drug shortage when the generic product is not available in the marketplace?

A

8

227
Q

What example best describes a Class III recall?

A

A switch between types of blue dye in a tablet.

228
Q

What is one of the most common causes of drug shortages?

A

Drug recalls

229
Q

Medication therapy management refers to the:

A

Resolution of medication-related problems

230
Q

Where is the best place to find drug shortage lists to monitor?

A

FDA

231
Q

Why is medication therapy management beneficial?

A

It optimizes patient medication regimens

232
Q

Which criteria does the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services require patients to meet for medication therapy management services?

A

Are on multiple meds and have multiple chronic conditions

233
Q

Which duty can pharmacy technicians do to help with medication therapy management services?

A

Manage appointments

234
Q

How does a targeted medication review differ from a comprehensive medication review?

A

A comprehensive medication review is done annually while a targeted medication review is done when issues come up.

235
Q

Enhanced patient care services that focus on identification and resolution of drug-related issues, usually involving the creation of a medication action plan, is known as:

A

MTM

236
Q

What is a factor when determining a patient’s eligibility for MTM services?

A

Number of disease states

237
Q

What does “MAP” stand for?

A

Medication Action Plan

238
Q

What is an MTM function that techs can perform in most states?

A

Notify eligible patients of their MTM eligibility

239
Q

Which item should patients bring to their MTM appointments?

A

Medication list

240
Q

You’ve been working at a local retail pharmacy for two months that offers several health and wellness programs. Depending on your state law, which duty are you allowed to perform since you’re a new employee?

A

Identify patients who are eligible for health and wellness services

241
Q

What is the primary purpose of pharmacy health and wellness programs?

A

Help patients prevent, identify, and manage acute and chronic conditions

242
Q

Which test determines appropriate warfarin therapy?

A

INR (International Normalized Ratio - time it takes a blood sample to clot)

243
Q

Which duty can a pharmacy technician perform pertaining to health and wellness, depending on state law?

A

Manage documentation for health screenings

244
Q

What does an HCV test screen for?

A

Hepatitis C

245
Q

What is one benefit health and wellness services provide to pharmacies?

A

Additional income

246
Q

Mr. Bean has high blood pressure and is thinking of participating in your pharmacy’s hypertension wellness program. What would be a benefit for Mr. Bean if he participated in the program?

A

Provides monitoring, consultation, and medication adjustment recommendations in one healthcare visit

247
Q

Which test screens for prostate cancer?

A

PSA (Prostate Specific Antigen - Presence of prostate-specific antigens
in the blood)

248
Q

What is an MTM function that techs can perform in most states?

A

Notify eligible patients of their MTM eligibility

249
Q

What does a TSH test diagnose or monitor for?

A

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone - Amount of thyroid stimulating
hormone in the blood

250
Q

A patient-centered document that includes all medications, indications, directions, and prescriber information is known as:

A

PML -patient medication list

251
Q

What details should be included on a med list or history?

A

Medication name, strength, and dosing schedule

252
Q

What is a “best possible” medication list or history?

A

Contains all the medications a patient is taking, by any route, from any source, whether or not they require a prescription

253
Q

When would a patient likely have changes to their medication list?

A

After visiting the prescriber’s office

254
Q

What is the difference between medication lists and medication histories?

A

Medication history is a term used more frequently in the hospital setting.

255
Q

When gathering patient medication information, what is a good communication practice?

A

Make eye contact

256
Q

Ms. Gonzales has been feeling better after taking her medication, so she decided to stop taking it to see if she needs it anymore. This is an example of:

A

Intentional nonadherence

257
Q

How can pharmacy technicians help patients adhere to their medication regimens?

A

Explain pharmacy delivery services.

258
Q

What can happen when patients are nonadherent to their medication regimens?

A

Endure withdrawal symptoms

259
Q

Medication adherence can be described as:

A

Following directions for taking medications

260
Q

What is a characteristic of someone who is at risk for medication nonadherence?

A

Complains about side effects

261
Q

How does a viral vector vaccine work?

A

Uses a separate, modified virus to deliver genetic material to make a protein from the targeted pathogen

262
Q

How does a conjugate subunit vaccine work?

A

Uses pieces of the bacteria’s polysaccharide coat that are linked to a carrier protein

263
Q

Prevnar 20 is an example of which type of vaccine?

A

Conjugate

264
Q

How long does it generally take to establish immunity after receiving the final dose of a vaccine?

A

2 weeks

265
Q

Which vaccine could have yeast cell culture remnants?

A

Recombivax HB

266
Q

Hepatitis A is an example of which type of vaccine?

A

Inactivated

267
Q

What’s the purpose for adding aminoglycosides to some vaccines?

A

To prevent the growth of bacteria during production of the vaccine

268
Q

Which vaccine is a toxoid vaccine?

A

Tetanus

269
Q

What’s the purpose for using formaldehyde in some vaccines?

A

To kill pathogens or inactivate toxins

270
Q

What is an advantage of a live attenuated vaccine?

A

Antibody response is close to a natural infection

271
Q

How often should you have your patients fill out a vaccine screening questionnaire and consent form?

A

Each time they get a vaccine

272
Q

What is the minimum amount of time that a patient needs to wait after receiving a blood product before receiving a varicella vaccine?

A

3 months

273
Q

Mr. Silva tells you he had swelling in his face and wheezing a few minutes after receiving his last tetanus booster. What kind of reaction did Mr. Silva experience?

A

Anaphylactic reaction

274
Q

In which section of the immunization schedule will you find more information on additional risk factors and other indications?

A

Notes

275
Q

Which strategy could you use to identify patients who may be eligible for immunization?

A

Check their medical conditions

276
Q

Which vaccine may interact with oseltamivir?

A

FluMist Quadrivalent

277
Q

What should you consider when a patient is scheduled to receive two adjuvanted vaccines on the same day?

A

The patient may have more side effects.

278
Q

Which vaccine should pregnant patients receive to keep themselves and their baby healthy?

A

Inactivated influenza

279
Q

Mrs. Ellis is receiving a shingles vaccine today. If she has Medicare, which part will you bill?

A

Part D

280
Q

What temperature range should a refrigerator that stores vaccines be kept between?

A

2 to 8°C

281
Q

The vaccine order arrived at the pharmacy. What is the first step you should take?

A

Tend to the shipment immediately to ensure the vaccines arrived in good condition.

282
Q

A patient with Medicare is receiving a seasonal influenza vaccine in your pharmacy. Which Medicare Part will you bill?

A

Part B

283
Q

Which strategy can help prevent errors when processing prescriptions for Tdap and DTap vaccines?

A

Being aware of vaccine abbreviations that lead to errors.

284
Q

How often should you check the pharmacy’s refrigerator and freezer temperature if a continuous monitoring device is not available?

A

Twice per day

285
Q

You’re training a new technician to enter orders into the pharmacy computer. Which classification will you tell the new technician vaccines are under?

A

Prescription only

286
Q

According to federal law, when must you dispense a VIS to a patient receiving a human papillomavirus vaccine?

A

Before each dose

287
Q

Which strategy is useful to ensure the correct vaccine is selected?

A

Read the brand name on the package

288
Q

A patient of average size will be given a subcutaneous vaccine injection. Which length of needle will you need to select?

A

5/8”

289
Q

What is an example of a nonemergent systemic adverse reaction to a vaccine?

A

Fever

290
Q

Why should a patient remain seated after receiving a vaccination?

A

In case they have systemic adverse reactions

291
Q

A patient is receiving 0.5 mL of Shingrix vaccine. Which size syringe will you select?

A

3 mL

292
Q

What info must be documented on a vaccination administration record form?

A

Vaccine lot number

293
Q

Which degree angle does a needle need to be when an intramuscular vaccine is administered?

A

90

294
Q

Which is an example of a local reaction to a vaccine?

A

Pain at injection site

295
Q

When putting up a vaccine order, if a vaccine has an expiration date of 7/2024, which is the last day it can be administered to a patient?

A

7/31/2024

296
Q

Mr. Russo had an anaphylactic reaction to an influenza vaccine. Which symptom did Mr. Russo likely experience?

A

Difficulty breathing

297
Q

You hear a patient tell the pharmacist “I heard vaccines cause autism.” What is the most appropriate response by the pharmacist?

A

“This hasn’t been proven, and most childhood vaccines no longer contain thimerosal or mercury.”

298
Q

What does a yellow bar mean on a child and adolescent immunization schedule?

A

Range of recommended ages for all children

299
Q

Which time is most appropriate to assess the patient’s immunization status?

A

When enrolling a new patient

300
Q

Which regulatory body is responsible for publishing the immunization schedules each year?

A

CDC

301
Q

Which routine vaccine would typically be given to a pregnant patient?

A

Tdap

302
Q

According to federal law, which document must be presented to a patient receiving a COVID-19 vaccine?

A

EUA fact sheet

303
Q

What does a standing order allow?

A

A pharmacist to order vaccines for patients without an Rx from their prescriber

304
Q

Which vaccine is covered under Medicare Part B?

A

Pneumococcal

305
Q

Which vaccine is grown in chicken egg cell culture?

A

Afluria Quadrivalent

306
Q

A patient with which symptom can usually be vaccinated with a hepatitis B vaccine?

A

Diarrhea

307
Q

A patient received the last dose of MMR vaccine series 2 weeks ago. When is the earliest he can receive a dose of a varicella-containing vaccine?

A

2 weeks

308
Q

Which type of vaccine is created from a substance produced by certain bacteria?

A

Toxoid

309
Q

What time of the year should you begin to offer the flu vaccine to patients?

A

Late summer/early fall

310
Q

Varivax is which type of vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

311
Q

Which medication should be avoided for at least 24 hours before receiving a varicella vaccine?

A

Valacyclovir

312
Q

What is an example of a mRNA vaccine?

A

Coronavirus 19

313
Q

A coworker accidentally pulled Adacel out of the refrigerator instead of Daptacel for a vaccine order. Which strategy can help prevent this error in the future?

A

Use bar-code scanning to check the product matches the label.

314
Q

What is a vaccine?

A

Weakened or killed bacteria or virus that triggers immunity

315
Q

What is an advantage of a live attenuated vaccine?

A

Antibody response is close to a natural infection

316
Q

How does a conjugate subunit vaccine work?

A

Uses pieces of the bacteria’s polysaccharide coat that are linked to a carrier protein

317
Q

In which section of the immunization schedule will you find more information on additional risk factors and other indications?

A

Notes

318
Q

Why are stabilizers used in some vaccines?

A

To protect the vaccine from heat, light, acidity, or humidity

319
Q

Which medication can cause Reye’s syndrome if a patient takes it within six weeks after receiving a varicella-containing vaccine?

A

Aspirin

320
Q

Which is a primary function of a medication reconciliation technician?

A

Gathering a list of the patient’s medications

321
Q

A thorough medication reconciliation will always contain the drug’s:

A

Strength

322
Q

An omission error occurs when a patient:

A

Has a disease, but is not taking any medications to treat it

323
Q

Which is an example of a duplication error?

A

Two of the same antiseizure medications are taken at once

324
Q

Which is an example of an incorrect dose error?

A

Antibiotic dose is too high for patient’s infection

325
Q

Which is an example of a drug-drug interaction error?

A

Multiple combined medications causing severe high blood pressure

326
Q

Which resource contains enough meds to serve people in several large cities at the same time?

A

Healthcare Ready

327
Q

Which type of emergency is a pandemic?

A

Natural disaster

328
Q

A sudden and serious disruption of the functioning of a community causing widespread losses is known as a(n):

A

Disaster

329
Q

Which resource serves as a guide to the federal government’s emergency response?

A

National Response Framework

330
Q

Who is sent by FEMA to provide medical care to patients affected by a disaster?

A

Disaster Medical Assistance Teams

331
Q

Which federal government agency assesses vulnerabilities and threats to the U.S.?

A

DHS

332
Q

According to the Emergency Prescription Assistance Program, how often can prescriptions be renewed for eligible patients in federal disaster areas?

A

30 days

333
Q

Who should be located outside of your local area for your emergency plan?

A

Emergency responders

334
Q

What can you offer to patients to help prevent pandemics?

A

Vaccinations

335
Q

Whose emergency plans should you know?

A

Family’s work sites

336
Q

Ensuring employees take breaks and eat food during an emergency is part of which pharmacy emergency plan?

A

Safety

337
Q

An element for an emergency plan is:

A

Establish a meeting place

338
Q

When a hurricane is headed toward the island you live on, you should evacuate:

A

As quickly as possible

339
Q

Who is likely responsible for setting up Basic Life Support training for employees to prepare for emergency situations?

A

Program committee

340
Q

Prepare your pharmacy for an emergency by:

A

Anticipating supply chain problems

341
Q

During an emergency, a shelter may require your pet’s:

A

Immunization records

342
Q

How much water should be included in your emergency kit for one person?

A

1 gallon per day

343
Q

Besides your own emergency plan, which other should you know?

A

Employer

344
Q

What is one essential item needed in an emergency kit?

A

Batteries.

345
Q

What training would the pharmacy’s emergency program committee set up?

A

Basic life support

346
Q

During an emergency, a pharmacy staffing plan ensures employees:

A

Don’t work too many hours in a day

347
Q

How can your pharmacy prepare for an emergency?

A

Maintain medication inventory

348
Q

What element is part of an emergency plan?

A

Have an evacuation plan

349
Q

How many parts of sodium chloride 0.45% are in 100 parts of solution?

A

0.45

350
Q

Express rubbing alcohol 70% as a decimal.

A

0.7

351
Q

How is hydrocortisone 2.5% written as a fraction?

A

2.5/100

352
Q

You have 40 parts bleach in 100 parts water. How is this expressed as a percent?

A

40%

353
Q

Convert 0.0045 to a percent.

A

0.45%

354
Q

Why were USP <795> guidelines created?

A

To ensure patients benefit without significant risk of med errors

355
Q

Which statement best describes the process of combining, admixing, diluting, pooling, reconstituting, or altering a drug or bulk drug product is known as what?

A

Nonsterile compounding

356
Q

You compounded a nonsterile cream for Mr. Kim. Which documentation would you find the ingredients’ lot numbers on?

A

Compounding Record

357
Q

Which beyond-use date is assigned for nonpreserved, aqueous nonsterile compounds?

A

14 days

358
Q

Which USP chapter regulates nonsterile compounding?

A

795

359
Q

What must be included on the label of a nonsterile compound?

A

Beyond-use date

360
Q

Where can you find all the information necessary to compound an oral suspension for Ms. Ahmed?

A

Master Formulation Record

361
Q

Which type of product can be made by nonsterile compounding?

A

Topical creams

362
Q

Which duty may pharmacy technicians, who are trained in nonsterile compounding, perform according to most state laws?

A

Combine and mix ingredients.

363
Q

If you prepare a nonsterile, nonaqueous oral liquid for Mr. Kelly, what is the maximum beyond-use date you could put on the Rx label?

A

3 months

364
Q

Which resource does Dawn need to perform nonhazardous, nonsterile compounding?

A

A designated area

365
Q

You are compounding a suspension for Ms. Kobayashi that requires the crushing of tablets. Which piece of equipment would you use?

A

Mortar and pestle

366
Q

Which piece of equipment is suitable for measuring exact volumes of liquids?

A

Graduated cylinder

367
Q

Which step should be performed to maintain proper hygiene before performing nonsterile compounding?

A

Remove jewelry and sweaters

368
Q

You are asked to mix a powder and an ointment together for your patient, Ms. Nguyen. Which piece of equipment will help you transfer the dry powder?

A

Hard rubber spatula

369
Q

Mr. Huang’s nonsterile compound requires you to grind a crystalline powder into a fine powder with a mortar and pestle. Which compounding technique is this?

A

Trituration

370
Q

Which compounding technique uses an agent to help combine an insoluble solid with a cream or ointment?

A

Levigation

371
Q

After preparing a compounded nonsterile product, what item must be discarded before leaving the compounding area?

A

Gloves

372
Q

What is the general compounding term used for reducing a substance to fine particles?

A

Comminution

373
Q

Mr. Harris’ nonsterile compound is finished. Which personal protective equipment can be reused if it’s in good condition?

A

Gown

374
Q

What is the general compounding term used for mixing two substances together?

A

Blending

375
Q

Ms. Adino’s nonsterile compound requires you to start with the smallest quantity ingredient and add an equal amount of the second ingredient in a series of steps. Which compounding technique is this called?

A

Geometric dilution

376
Q

Which beyond-use date is given to nonsterile compounded suppositories?

A

180 days

377
Q

Which information must be included on the label of a nonsterile product?

A

Storage conditions, if kept at anything besides room temperature

378
Q

Which type of product falls under nonsterile compounding regulations?

A

Compounding kits

379
Q

An admitting order is a medication order that is filled when the patient is:

A

First accepted into the hospital

380
Q

Many inpatient medications are dosed on the patient’s:

A

Weight

381
Q

A computerized method of sending medication orders to the pharmacy is called:

A

CPOE (Computerized Prescriber
Order Entry)

382
Q

What is an example of a medication order that is filled when the patient is leaving the hospital?

A

Discharge

383
Q

What is an example of a medication order that must be filled quickly?

A

STAT

384
Q

All inpatient medication orders should contain the patient’s:

A

Date of birth

385
Q

The information on a (inpatient) hospital medication label usually requires the patient’s:

A

Room number

386
Q

Pregnant women should always use gloves when handling which medication?

A

Dutasteride

387
Q

Which medication dosage form needs a “shake well” auxiliary sticker?

A

Suspension

388
Q

What are unit-dose medications?

A

A packaged single dose of a medication

389
Q

A chemotherapy auxiliary sticker is usually which color?

A

Yellow

390
Q

Which medication needs a “do not shake” auxiliary sticker?

A

Epoetin solution

391
Q

Which product is required to be sterile?

A

Epidural injection

392
Q

Which is an example of what USP <797> covers?

A

Aseptic compounding by pharmacy

393
Q

Which is an example of a compounded sterile preparation?

A

A live tissue soak

394
Q

If a product is sterile, it is free from:

A

Microorganisms

395
Q

Which description applies to an ampule?

A

Sterile, sealed container made of thin glass

396
Q

The buffer room must be at least which ISO class?

A

7

397
Q

The pharmacy’s buffer room is used for:

A

Compounding sterile products

398
Q

Which action is performed in the anteroom?

A

Storing supplies for sterile compounds

399
Q

Which room in the pharmacy is used for storing compounding supplies?

A

Ante

400
Q

The area inside the PEC must be at least which ISO class?

A

5

401
Q

Rosemarie, a pharmacy technician, is about to aseptically wash her hands. She first wets her hands. What is she supposed to do next?

A

Take out the nail pick and clean underneath her fingernails

402
Q

What is an advantage of hand hygiene?

A

It helps prevent contamination of the sterile product

403
Q

Where is aseptic handwashing usually performed?

A

Anteroom

404
Q

Which items are usually garbed before hand hygiene?

A

Beard cover, hair cover, and face mask

405
Q

Why is PPE important?

A

Prevents contamination of compounds

406
Q

What can you tell a colleague about PPE?

A

Sterile gowns can be reused if they aren’t contaminated

407
Q

A PEC should be cleaned:

A

At the beginning of every shift

408
Q

The air flows top-to-bottom in which type of PEC?

A

Vertical

409
Q

The HEPA filter in the PEC needs to be changed at least every:

A

Six months

410
Q

You are about to use a sterilizing agent to clean your PEC before sterile compounding. Which product must you use to sterilize your PEC?

A

70% sterile isopropyl alcohol

411
Q

What is the PEC workbench primarily used for?

A

To place sterile compounding items

412
Q

Which type of PEC must be used to compound hazardous meds?

A

CACI

413
Q

What is the first area that should be cleaned in the LAFW?

A

Ceiling

414
Q

Which part of the needle is safe to touch?

A

Cap

415
Q

A luer-to-luer connector is used to:

A

Split the contents of one syringe into two syringes

416
Q

The slanted end of the needle is called the:

A

Bevel

417
Q

Which part of the syringe has volume demarcations?

A

Barrel

418
Q

Which supply item can be used to help prevent foaming when adding diluent to powdered medications?

A

Vented needle

419
Q

The device that’s used to prevent contamination of the syringe during transport is a syringe:

A

Cap

420
Q

Which needle gauge is generally used in most sterile compounding?

A

18G - 22 G

421
Q

When sterile compounding, which length needle will you normally use?

A

1” - 1.5”

422
Q

A filter needle is used to withdraw contents from an ampule to:

A

Prevent glass from drawing up into the syringe

423
Q

Jenny needs to puncture the same vial multiple times, but she’s worried about coring.

What supply item should she use to prevent coring?

A

Dispensing pin

424
Q

Which supply item should be used to protect an IV prep from light?

A

Amber bag

425
Q

An order calls for furosemide in dextrose 5% in water. Which base solution bag should you pull?

A

D5W

426
Q

What is a yellow sharps container primarily used for?

A

Trace hazardous medications

427
Q

It’s January 1, and Maria just compounded an order for calcium chloride. She notices the drug is in a multi-dose vial, but the label has no stated beyond-use date.

Which beyond-use date should she write on the vial?

A

January 29 (28 days)

428
Q

Which supply item should be used to protect the top of a used vial?

A

IVA seal

429
Q

What is normal saline?

A

0.9% sodium chloride

430
Q

The difference between single-dose vials and multi-dose vials is that multi-dose vials:

A

Usually contain preservatives

431
Q

How many times should you swipe a rubber stopper to sterilize it?

A

One time

432
Q

What is an advantage of dispensing a medication in an Add-a-Vial system?

A

A flow hood isn’t needed before dispensing

433
Q

Piercing the rubber stopper of the vial with a needle must be done at which angle?

A

45- to 90-degrees

434
Q

Where are used needles disposed of?

A

Sharps container

435
Q

George needs to withdraw 10 mL of fluid from a vial. How much air should be in his syringe before he inserts the needle into the vial?

A

10 mL

436
Q

Milking is the technique used to:

A

Inject small amounts of air into the vial at a time to prevent leaking

437
Q

The part of the needle that connects to the syringe is called the:

A

Hub

438
Q

Which part of the syringe is safe to touch?

A

Knob

439
Q

Which action is typically performed in the buffer room?

A

Cleaning of the PEC

440
Q

Which item is light-sensitive and may need an amber bag?

A

Aminophylline

441
Q

What is a common side effect of chemotherapy?

A

Diarrhea

442
Q

A chemotherapy order comes to your pharmacy for a patient. On the order, you see “dexamethasone 4 mg IV prn fever.” Which part of the sig should give the pharmacy concern?

A

Indication

443
Q

What are cancer drugs also known as?

A

Chemotherapies

444
Q

Why is an antiemetic given to patients receiving chemotherapy?

A

Minimize nausea and vomiting

445
Q

Which lab would a pharmacist be most concerned about with chemotherapy?

A

CBC (blood count) & Kidney (BUN) & Liver (Scr)

446
Q

Which chemotherapy medication pair is a look-alike/sound-alike example?

A

TaxOTERE and taxOL

447
Q

What is the generic name of Trexall?

A

Methotrexate

448
Q

You are compounding a chemotherapy medication, and you drop a vial on the ground. The powder spills everywhere. What should you do next?

A

Isolate the area

449
Q

Which USP chapter requires the use of CSTDs when compounding chemotherapy?

A

USP 800

450
Q

Which PPE is required to be worn during chemotherapy compounding?

A

Safety goggles

451
Q

Jenni just finished compounding chemotherapy. Where should she throw her empty medication vial?

A

Yellow sharps container

452
Q

When compounding chemotherapy, when should the tubing spike be inserted into the IV port?

A

Before adding chemotherapy to IV bag

453
Q

Which type of flow hood has an acrylic barrier, but the compounder is potentially still exposed to chemotherapy?

A

BSC

454
Q

Which governmental agency publishes the immunization requirements for children and adults each year?

A

CDC

455
Q

Which federal agency is responsible for the regulation of labeling on prescription and over-the-counter medications?

A

FDA

456
Q

Which law requires pharmaceutical manufacturers to prove a drug’s purity, strength, and safety before it can be sold?

A

Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

457
Q

A dietary supplement is recalled because it was found to contain ingredients that weren’t listed on the label. It’s considered:

A

Adulterated

458
Q

The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951:

A

Created two classes of medications, prescription and nonprescription

459
Q

According to the Poison Prevention Act of 1970, which medication class can be dispensed in a non-child-resistant package in an outpatient setting?

A

Oral contraceptives

460
Q

Which regulatory agency is responsible for creating standards for packaging to protect children from accidental poisonings with medications?

A

Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)

461
Q

According to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970, a Symbicort inhaler:

A

Can be dispensed in a non-child-resistant container

462
Q

The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 is responsible for requiring:

A

Child-resistant caps on prescriptions

463
Q

Which medication must be accompanied by a patient package insert?

A

Cenestin

464
Q

Patient package inserts contain information about the:

A

Benefits and risks of using a medication

465
Q

The Hatch-Waxman Act:

A

Allowed manufacturers to submit ANDAs for generic medications

466
Q

The Hatch-Waxman Act is also known as the:

A

Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984

467
Q

Which law requires the pharmacist to consult about new prescriptions with patients?

A

OBRA ‘90

468
Q

Which section of the NDC identifies the name, strength, and dosage form of the medication?

A

Second

469
Q

Each new drug is required to have an NDC number according to the:

A

Drug Listing Act of 1972

470
Q

The NDC number for Benicar 40 mg is 65597-104-30. The “30” identifies:

A

Package size

471
Q

A 10- or 11-digit number divided into three segments located on a medication container is known as the:

A

National Drug Code

472
Q

Which law requires manufacturer claims about vitamins and minerals to be true?

A

DSHEA

473
Q

Which section of the NDC identifies the manufacturer?

A

First

474
Q

Which medication must have an imprint code?

A

Fluconazole 150 mg tablet

475
Q

While filling Ms. Mason’s prescription, you accidentally printed two labels. According to HIPAA, how should you handle the extra label?

A

Put it in the bin to be shredded

476
Q

Federal law says that your pharmacy must complete a controlled substance inventory once every two years. Your state law says that your pharmacy must complete a controlled substance inventory every year. How often should your pharmacy complete a controlled substance inventory?

A

Once a year

477
Q

According to HIPAA, which is considered protected health information?

A

Patient’s prescription record

478
Q

Which regulatory body requires certain medications to be dispensed with Medication Guides?

A

FDA

478
Q

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996:

A

Governs patient privacy and the sharing of patient information

479
Q

Which is a principle of HIPAA?

A

To use and disclose the minimum necessary amount of protected information

480
Q

When must you provide a Medication Guide for medications that require one?

A

When an inpatient asks for a Medication Guide

481
Q

Which organization must the Investigational New Drug application be filed with?

A

FDA

482
Q

What is an investigational drug?

A

A drug compound undergoing clinical testing in humans

483
Q

Which involves introducing a drug for the first time in humans?

A

Phase 1 Testing

484
Q

Which responsibility may be performed by an IDS technician?

A

Drug preparation

485
Q

FDA may approve a Biologics License Application if the biologic proves to be:

A

Safe and effective

486
Q

Which committee approves patient consent forms and protects the welfare of drug research volunteers?

A

IRB

487
Q

Which type of drug is involved in a Class III recall?

A

Drugs unlikely to cause adverse events

488
Q

A drug is usually permanently withdrawn from the market because it is considered:

A

Harmful

489
Q

Which is an example of a medication that is part of a Class II recall?

A

A contaminated medication that could cause temporary, but reversible adverse effects

490
Q

An injectable medication is recalled because it contains pieces of steel. Since this is likely to cause life-threatening adverse effects, it’s an example of a:

A

Class I recall

491
Q

Who usually makes the decision to recall a drug product?

A

Drug company

492
Q

When a generic medication is identical in active ingredients, strength, dosage form, and route of administration as the brand-name product, it is considered a(n):

A

Pharmaceutical equivalent

493
Q

A brand-name drug that is relabeled and marketed under a generic product name is a(n):

A

Authorized generic

494
Q

FDA approved an ANDA. This means a manufacturer:

A

Can bring a generic medication to market

495
Q

Which resource contains TE codes to help guide generic substitution?

A

Orange Book

496
Q

If a product has a therapeutic equivalency code that begins with a “B” in the Orange Book, this means the product:

A

Does not meet necessary requirements to be equivalent

497
Q

When you receive a new drug in the pharmacy, what’s the medication under?

A

Protected brand name

498
Q

A therapeutic alternative is a drug that:

A

Contains a different active ingredient, but is in the same drug class and works similarly

499
Q

A drug that contains the same active ingredient, but is a different strength is considered a:

A

Pharmacologic alternative

500
Q

Topamax is an immediate-release topiramate tablet. Trokendi XR is an extended-release topiramate tablet. Both medications are used to treat the same condition. Topamax and Trokendi XR are:

A

Pharmacologic alternatives

501
Q

Quetiapine and aripiprazole are both atypical antipsychotics used to treat psychiatric disorders. Quetiapine and aripiprazole are therapeutic alternatives because they:

A

Contain different active ingredients, but in the same drug class

502
Q

A system that allows pharmacists to automatically substitute with certain pharmacologic or therapeutic alternatives without calling the prescriber each time is known as a:

A

Collaborative Agreement

503
Q

Which DAW code is rarely used and currently not in use?

A

9

504
Q

What does DAW 3 mean?

A

Substitution is allowed by the prescriber, but the pharmacist determines brand should be dispensed

505
Q

Which DAW code means that substitution is not allowed since the dispensing of the brand-name drug is mandated by law?

A

7

506
Q

Which DAW code means the brand-name product is dispensed as generic?

A

5

507
Q

Which DAW code means that substitution is not allowed by the prescriber?

A

1

508
Q

Which DAW code means that substitution is allowed by the prescriber, but the patient is requesting the brand-name product to be dispensed?

A

1

509
Q

Which DAW code means that substitution is allowed by the prescriber, but the patient is requesting the brand-name product to be dispensed?

A

2

510
Q

Which DAW code means that no product selection is indicated and substitution is allowed?

A

0

511
Q
A