Pt Care Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

It is okay to stand in the primary beam of an x-ray intended for a patient as long as you have a lead apron on.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What object in radiology is sterilized after use?

A

Non-disposable X-ray holders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When sanitizing the room after treatment of a radiology patient, you should first spray the equipment directly

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which is not a patient barrier to effective communication?

A

Gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which option is not considered a feature in the actual “content” of communication?

A

Emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

American’s least favorite mode of nonverbal perception is vocal/hearing.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which factor could impede a patient’s positive perception of their physician?

A

Crossing arms, fiddling with glasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ways to express empathy to a patient include all except…

A

self-exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It’s an ethical obligation to criticize another dentist’s work in front of a patient.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If you must judge, judge the ______ not the _________.

A

behavior; person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Small talk delays procedures and only exacerbates a patient’s nerves suffering from anxiety

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Self disclosure tells that patient that…

A

You have “walked in their shoes”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Negative personal experiences are the most common reason people avoid the dentist.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

More frequent check ups correlates with ______ anxiety, and more fillings correlates with _____ anxiety in a dental setting.

A

less; less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anxiety is a disorder characterized by ______.

A

excessive uneasiness, apprehension, compulsiveness, panic attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Perspiration of the upper lip is a ________ sign of anxiety.

A

Physiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

it’s best to start the procedure without a detailed explanation for patients with anxiety so they can get in and out of the appointment sooner.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Invisible disabilities discussed in class include all except…

A

third degree foot burn from a George Forman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acculturation is the socialization of two distinct cultural groups that causes a completely new culture in which the groups are now indistinct.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cultural factors that can affect oral health care include…

A

Eating habits, perception of time, gender roles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Health literacy is not associated with age or gender.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

It’s generally appropriate to offer to shake hands with a disabled person, even if they have a prosthetic limb.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The common abbreviation, UCHD, stands for…

A

Usual childhood diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Patients often realize the significance of their health history & can recall their health-related information accurately.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Orthopnea is described as…

A

Difficulty breathing when lying down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Women present with fatigue & back pain when having angina.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Unstable angina has a _____ frequency and involves pain _______.

A

Increasing; at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune disease, which can cause…

A

Stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Stress reduction protocol includes all of these features except…

A

Limiting vasoconstrictors to 5 carpules or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In order to treat a patient who has suffered MI…

A

The patient must have ejection fraction over 50
The patient should have a medical consult to determine health status before treatment.
The patient must wait 6 months for long treatments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which is not a factor in COPD?

A

Acute asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

COPD patients should only have low-flow oxygen because elevated CO2 levels in their arteries stimulate breathing.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Congestive heart failure is an official diagnosis.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Causes of cardiomyopathy include…

A

Viruses, Alcohol abuse, Hereditary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A patient with an unrepaired aneurysm should avoid elective treatment.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Chorea is a symptom that occurs in patients with…

A

Rheumatic Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is another name for…

A

Sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Proteinuria is an early stage symptom of HTN.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which pressure is given consideration in the monitoring of patients with HTN?

A

Systolic, Diastolic, Pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Resistance exercise for _____ minutes most days of the week can drop resting BP.

A

30-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A patient with a BP of 165/104 should…

A

not undergo elective treatment, get a med consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Identify the incorrect correlation with factor and BP level fluctuation.

A

Tobacco/decreases (lasts for 30 minutes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In acute alcoholism, drugs metabolize…

A

Slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Average lifespan of a patient with Alzheimer’s after diagnosis is…

A

8 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Anorexia occurs in how many females for every 1 male?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

INR units can be found in…

A

oral surgery and emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A PTT test detects…

A

Intrinsic pathway abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Osteoarthritis is characterized by _______ and is due to ______.

A

Asymmetry; normal wear & tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

NSAIDs are used commonly for treatment of severe asthma.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Forms of purging in bulimia include all except…

A

fasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Celiac disease causes damage to mucosal surface of the…

A

Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When taking a periapical radiograph, which anatomical features should you capture?

A

Crown, Root of tooth (including the apex), Surrounding bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The _________ technique is the preferred technique for intraoral radiographs and involves placing the film __________ to the tooth and positioning the cone and x-ray beam_________ to the tooth and film.

A

Paralleling; parallel; perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What shape of cone head do we use for the intraoral X-ray machine in the clinic?

A

Rectangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When taking a bitewing radiograph, what anatomical features should be captured?

A

crown, alveolar bone support, interproximal contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Advantages of panoramic radiography include

A

broad anatomic regions imaged, lower radiation dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Principle disadvantages of panoramic radiography include geometric distortion & overlapping of contacts.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which would be in violation of the A.L.A.R.A. guidelines?

A

Holding tubhead during exposure to ensure it doesn’t move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Transmission of infectious disease is most common from

A

patient to operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which would be an example of violating infection control procedure at UMKC?

A

Grab the lead apron & thyroid collar with gloves
Spray equipment directly for the best clean.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which is not a typical benefit of a good patient-professional relationship?

A

Patient is more likely to sue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What percentage of dentists feel they received only fair to poor training in communication at dental school?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Although dentists are detailed oriented and technically proficient, they are known to be weak interpersonal communicators.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Providing information is proficient in changing a patient’s behavior.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

60-70% of medical litigation cases cited _________as the primary cause.

A

communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The actual content of words is _____ of someone’s perception of what you’re saying.

A

1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The non-verbal delivery is ____ of someone’s perception of what you’re saying.

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which statement is false in regard to smiling in non-verbal communication?

A

A genuine smile is known as a social smile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which is a factor that could impede good listening as a dental professional?

A

multi-tasking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

_______ is a literal or dictionary meaning of a word whereas ________ is a subjective meaning dependent on context and patient.

A

denotative; connotative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Verbals that promote conversation include

A

Asking open-ended questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the proper pattern to express empathy to a patient?

A

Identify emotion you think you hear identify content reflect the two as a statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

As an educator you should do all of the following except…

A

Use jargon frequently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The number one reason people avoid the dentist is?

A

fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The strongest predictor of dental anxiety is _______, while the weakest predictor is ______.

A

Attitude towards dentists; annual income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The three major assessment categories for anxiety include self-report, behavioral signs, & physiological.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The best time to identify the fearful patient is AFTER a visit.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the proper sequence for reducing anxiety in children in a dental setting?

A

tell-show-do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are ways to reduce anxiety in patients?

A

Use N2O2 or oral sedatives, Schedule AM appointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are proper ways to interact with people who are def or hearing impaired?

A

Use pantomime, body language, & facial expression to convey meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are factors that increase stereotyping?

A

Time pressure
Lack of resources
High cognitive demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which are factors affecting cultural values?

A

Acculturation
Generational standing
Individual variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Cultural competency is a concept that can be mastered in a finite amount of time.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What factors are known to be influencers for level of health literacy?

A

education and race

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

It is NOT necessary to know all traditional illnesses, as there are many that vary among different cultures. It IS necessary to have good communication skills to elicit information about the patient’s perspective.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The proper sequence of obtaining a patient’s health history involves first a brief questionnaire the patient fills out and signs, and then a review with the DDS and another signature to verify their understanding.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Those who appear in good health are not required to fill out a health history.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

You can work on a patient without a faculty member signing you in as long as the treatment isn’t high risk.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which is not a MAJOR risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

A

stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Atherosclerosis affects ______ to _______ arteries.

A

medium; large

89
Q

Dyspnea is usually due to…

A

COPD and Asthma

90
Q

Dyspnea is difficult or labored breathing, but orthopnea is…

A

Difficulty breathing when lying down

91
Q

Stenosis is a ________ of arteries most commonly occurring in the ______ valve.

A

narrowing; aortic

92
Q

“Pitting” is a common symptom in…

A

severe edema

93
Q

Angina typically lasts…

A

5-15 minutes

94
Q

Symptoms of angina in men include fatigue and back pain, whereas women typically experience a sub sternal pain that radiates to their arm, jaw, or neck.

A

false

95
Q

Stable angina is ____________ and ___________ with rest.

A

Predictable; relieved

96
Q

If a patient suffers myocardial infarction, protocol is…

A

Not do elective treatment for 2 months
Not do long appointments for 6 months
Med consult to determine when minor treatment cant start

97
Q

An ejection fraction of _______ is ideal for patients who have suffered MI in order to do minor treatments.

A

> 50

98
Q

Patients who have suffered MI need an INR in the ranges of _____ to ______ in order to be cleared for treatment.

A

2;3

99
Q

A person suffering from complications of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) could benefit from…

A

Low-flow O2

99
Q

Which option is not a stress reduction protocol?

A

Long appointments with many breaks

100
Q

Common trends of congestive heart failure include…

A

Heart cannot pump enough blood

101
Q

If someone sleeps with more than 2 pillows under their head in order to sleep comfortably, this is indicative of…

A

Congestive heart failure

101
Q

The most common cause of congestive heart failure is…

A

Coronary heart disease

102
Q

Cardiomyopathy is a disease, which encompasses symptoms such as…

A

Enlarged heart and Impaired systolic function

103
Q

You’re a doctor. Congratulations. A patient mentions they are often tired throughout the day, which makes concentration at work difficult. His wife chimes in he snores “like a freight train” at night, so she’s moved to the guest bedroom. What do you suspect for the diagnosis?

A

Sleep apnea

104
Q

What is correct treatment protocol for patients suffering with angina?

A

If stable, elective treatment is OK

105
Q

Atelectasis means…

A

Airlessness of the lungs aka pulmonary collapse

106
Q

Stress reduction protocol for those suffering angina during a dental appointment include…

A

Avoiding vasoconstrictors
Nitroglycerin tables
Call 4444 if doesn’t subside in 5 minutes

107
Q

If you notice a patient with an arrhythmia you should…

A

Get a med consult to find cause & status
Stress reduction protocol

108
Q

For patients with repaired aneurysms, ___________ is recommended, whereas for patients with unrepaired aneurysms, ___________ is recommended.

A

Pre-medicating; avoiding elective treatment

109
Q

A patient presents with sore throat, fever, headache, & swollen tonsils with white patches. What are diagnosis & the most likely cause of this disease?

A

Rheumatic fever- group A, B-hemolytic strep

110
Q

For patients with rheumatic heart disease, pre medicating is ______.

A

Not included in latest recommendations

111
Q

_________ is not as severe as _____________, but may progress to _________.

A

Scarlet fever; rheumatic fever; rheumatic fever

112
Q

Which of the below options is not considered an early stage symptom of hypertension?

A

Proteinuria

112
Q

Identify the false statement regarding risk factors of hypertension.

A

Frequency of HTN is higher in younger populations.

113
Q

Which of the below is considered a late stage symptom of hypertension?

A

Rupture of retinal arteries
Dementia
Congestive heart failure

114
Q

Hypertension that increases pulse pressure is called ________ and results in an increase in _______ pressure but not _______.

A

Systolic; systolic; diastolic

115
Q

A patient with blood pressure reading 182/123 would prompt a professional to…

A

Refer for emergency medical care
Start oxygen
Perform emergency treatment only

115
Q

Secondary HTN can cause…

A

Renal disease
Renovascular disease
Adrenal disorders like Cushing’s Syndrome

115
Q

A patient with a blood pressure of 155/95 has ______ the risk of a cardiovascular event compared to someone with a blood pressure of 115/75.

A

Quadruple

116
Q

Every increase in _____ over _____ will _______ the risk of cardiovascular events.

A

20; 10; double

117
Q

Identify the false statement regarding patient factors of HTN.

A

“White coat” effect around professionals decreases blood pressure

118
Q

You take a patient’s blood pressure in the clinic & the reading comes back as 165/103. What’s standard protocol for this patient?

A

No elective treatment
Med consult
Get faculty approval for any procedure

119
Q

A blood pressure of 140/90 would prompt a professional to…

A

Alert patient to possible HTN diagnosis

120
Q

A patient who has coronary bypass graft surgery should wait at least _____ months to have elective treatment & have a medical consult after that.

A

2 months

120
Q

Familial onset of Alzheimer’s is also known as ______ onset and occurs in ______ of cases.

A

early; 10%

121
Q

Adrenal insufficiency symptoms include all except…

A

Constipation

122
Q

Males can have ______ oz of alcohol a day, whereas women can have _______ oz a day.

A

3-6; 1.5-3

123
Q

In acute alcoholism, drugs are metabolized _______, and in chronic alcoholism they are metabolized _______.

A

Slowly; quickly

124
Q

Binge drinking is consuming greater than _____ oz of alcohol in ________ hours.

A

5; 4

125
Q

Implications of anemia include all of the following except…

A

Decreased infection
B12 (folic acid) sufficiency

125
Q

Anorexia ratio of women to men is…

A

20 to 1

126
Q

Osteoarthritis is more common than rheumatoid arthritis.

A

True

126
Q

An INR of 3 would allow a patient to have

A

Complex extractions and Perio probing

126
Q

A child who has asthma attacks 3-5 times/week that last for 30 minutes to several hours has…

A

Moderate asthma

127
Q

An INR less than 2.5 would allow a patient to have

A

Perio surgery
Perio probing
Simple extraction

127
Q

An INR of 2 means it takes blood _____ as long to clot compared to a “normal” individual.

A

Twice

128
Q

A PT test detects ________ pathway abnormalities, whereas the PTT detects _______ pathway abnormalities.

A

Extrinsic; intrinsic

128
Q

A PTT test is used only when on heparin in the hospital.

A

True

129
Q

The most common form of disability is…

A

Arthritis

130
Q

A _____ and _____ climate is best for those suffering from arthritis.

A

Warm; dry

131
Q

Those with asthma should avoid…

A

Aspirin
Naproxen

132
Q

Patients with autism should start seeing the dentist later in life when they are more mature.

A

False

133
Q

A patient presents with perimylolysis. You suspect she has _______.

A

Bulimia; purging type

134
Q

Oral neoplasms can be caused by…

A

Tobacco
Poor nutrition
Physical inactivity
Germs

135
Q

Which forms of hepatitis are known to cause liver cancer?

A

HBV, HCV

136
Q

HPV is a known causative factor in the development of ______ cancer.

A

Cervical
Oropharyngeal

137
Q

Celiac disease involves an autoimmune reaction that is exacerbated by the intake of…

A

gluten

138
Q

Which statement is correct in regard to Cushing’s Syndrome?

A

Steroid use can exacerbate disease.

139
Q

Type I diabetes is _____ common than type II diabetes and is considered insulin _______

A

Less; dependent

140
Q

____ out of every ______ people has Type II diabetes.

A

1:10

141
Q

Type I diabetes usually involves childhood onset whereas Type II diabetes typically develops in adulthood.

A

true

142
Q

Which symptom is not a part of the classic triad in diabetes?

A

Polyuripedemia

143
Q

It is okay to treat a patient with diabetes if they have a blood sugar of _____.

A

6.5-8%

144
Q

It is okay to treat a patient with diabetes if they have a glucometer reading of ….

A

Fasting blood glucose of 85
129 two hours after eating a meal

145
Q

Identify the false statement regarding epilepsy.

A

Medications such as Dilantin cause gingival hypoplasia.

145
Q

Acceptable glucometer reading for fasting glucose in a diabetic patient is…

A

70-110

146
Q

Standard protocol for a patient suffering a seizure includes…

A

Stopping treatment
Removing rubber dam if possible
Turning patient on side
Calling 4444 if necessary

147
Q

Habits that alleviate GERD include…

A

Elevating upper body
Chewing gum

147
Q

Hypothyroidism is more common than hyperthyroidism.

A

true

148
Q

Hyperthyroidism symptoms…

A

Thin
Hand tremor
Tachycardia
Exopthalmos

149
Q

Hypothyroidism symptoms include all except…

A

hypotension

149
Q

The phase of hepatitis that encompasses symptoms such as jaundice & dark foamy urine is…

A

Icteric

149
Q

Transmission of HIV+ has been proven through…

A

Blood and Breast milk

150
Q

Saliva, sweat, urine, & tears have shown low levels of HIV+ virus. These have been proven in some instances to transmit the virus.

A

First sentence is true; second sentence is false

151
Q

A dental patient should have their appointments scheduled ________ their dialysis appointments.

A

the day after

151
Q

Ways to prevent latex allergic reactions in a dental setting include…

A

Using nitrile gloves

151
Q

Symptoms indicative of leukemia include…

A

Abnormal WBC count

152
Q

Leukemia patients with a WBC count of <1000/ml or an ANC of <500 ml should be pre-medicated.

A

true

152
Q

Which patient is statistically more at risk for developing lupus?

A

Black female

152
Q

Symptoms of lupus include do not include..

A

Candidiasis

153
Q

______ lupus erythematosis involves the skin only.

A

Discoid

154
Q

The HIV virus dies within ______ in air.

A

2-4 seconds

154
Q

DPT immunizations provide protection against…

A

Diphtheria, Pertussis, & Tetanus

155
Q

Detrol & Flomax are common prescribed to patients with…

A

Kidney or bladder disease

155
Q

Lyme’s Disease is the #1 vector borne disease in the US.

A

true

156
Q

A “bull’s-eye” rash is indicative of what stage of Lyme’s Disease?

A

Stage 1

156
Q

Stage 3 of Lyme’s Disease involves neurologic symptoms that occur often after a period of latency.

A

True

157
Q

Stage 2 of Lyme’s Disease occurs…

A

Weeks to months after the initial bite

158
Q

Multiple Sclerosis is an autoimmune disease and there is a cure.

A

First statement is true; second statement is false

158
Q

Blood volume in pregnant women increases…

A

30-60%

158
Q

Elective treatment for pregnant women should be avoided in the…

A

First trimester and Third trimester

159
Q

Lyme’s Disease is transmitted to humans via bites from…

A

Deer ticks

160
Q

Pregnant women are at an increased likelihood to develop periodontal disease.

A

true

160
Q

Treatment protocol for pregnant women involves…

A

Avoiding NSAIDs
Minimizing vasoconstrictors
Partially reclining patients

160
Q

Risk of pre-eclampsia increases with a multiple pregnancy.

A

true

161
Q

Danger signs of pigmented lesions include all except…

A

Symmetry

162
Q

All are common aspects of Tourette’s syndrome except…

A

Cursing

162
Q

Tuberculosis has a high incidence of coinfection with HIV.

A

true

163
Q

All are true for treating patients with active tuberculosis except…

A

Transmission is common

164
Q

Diabetes is an endocrine disorder. Fibromyalgia is a muscular disorder.

A

Both statements are true

164
Q

Identify the false statement regarding Trigeminal neuralgia.

A

Mostly in women younger than 50

164
Q

Pre-op treatment modifications include all except…

A

Hemostasis

165
Q

Intra-op modifications include upright chair positioning & minimizing epinephrine use.

A

true

166
Q

How should you administer Nitroglycerin to a patient?

A

Administer sublingually

167
Q

Post-op modifications include…

A

Analgesics (pain killers)
Antibiotics
Call for follow-up
Anti-fibrinolytic agents (prevent blood clots from breaking down)

167
Q

Select whether or not the following 2 statements are True or False:
a. Asthma is characterized by IRREVERSIBLE episodes
b. Asthma usually has a sudden onset

A

Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

167
Q

Which of the following is not a major risk for Cardiovascular disease?

A

Stress

168
Q

Primary Sjogren’s syndrome (Sicca syndrome) includes symptoms…

A

Dry eyes & mouth

168
Q

There is no treatment for Sjogren’s syndrome, but fluoride application, saliva substitutes, & hydration help alleviate its effects.

A

true

168
Q

Cushing’s disease is a result of ______ steroid levels and Addison’s disease is a result of _____ steroid levels.

A

High; low

168
Q

Oral steroids are commonly prescribed for these diseases except…

A

Cushing’s Disease

169
Q

Which of the following would NOT be appropriate to use for Triad asthmatics?

A

Aspirin

170
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Extrinsic asthma?

A

Can be induced by psychological and physiological stress

170
Q

Which of the following t happens during Epilepsy?

A

Aura
Diaphragmatic spasm
Irritability
Unusual smell or vision
Loss of consciousness

170
Q

If you administer bronchodilators (Ventolin) to a patient during an asthma attack and there is no improvement despite administering it 3 times already. What should you administer next?

A

Epinephrine

171
Q

Which of the following is characterized by a butterfly-shaped erythematous rash and
polyarthritis?

A

SLE

171
Q

Which of the following is characterized by dry, warm skin, fruity-smelling breath, and Kussmaul’s breathing?

A

Hyperglycemia

171
Q

Which of the following does not occur in Hyperglycemia?

A

Polydypnea

171
Q

Which of the following is false?

A

Type 1 diabetes is a slow onset

171
Q

A1c measures which of the following?

A

Average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months

171
Q

This stage of insulin shock is characterized by hunger, weakness, tachycardia, and pallor

A

Mild

171
Q

What would be an ideal HbA1c level if you are pre-diabetic?

A

6.0 or below

171
Q

Select 2 of the following that are characterized by poorly controlled urination

A

Congestive heart failure and Diabetes

171
Q

Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of heart disease?

A

Tremor

171
Q

How long after a Myocardial infarction should you wait to have dental treatment?

A

Over 2 months

171
Q

Which of the following is not a side effect of nitroglycerin?

A

Tired

171
Q

Which of the following are not characteristics of Anorexia nervosa?

A

Tachycardia

171
Q

Select the 2 choices that are characterized by an enlargement of their parotid glands

A

Excess alcohol use
Sjorgen syndrome

172
Q

What is a healthy INR score range for those patients on blood thinners?

A

2-3

173
Q

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A

Type 2 diabetes