Pt Care Test Questions Flashcards
1
Q
It is okay to stand in the primary beam of an x-ray intended for a patient as long as you have a lead apron on.
A
False
2
Q
What object in radiology is sterilized after use?
A
Non-disposable X-ray holders
3
Q
When sanitizing the room after treatment of a radiology patient, you should first spray the equipment directly
A
False
4
Q
Which is not a patient barrier to effective communication?
A
Gender
5
Q
Which option is not considered a feature in the actual “content” of communication?
A
Emotion
6
Q
American’s least favorite mode of nonverbal perception is vocal/hearing.
A
True
7
Q
Which factor could impede a patient’s positive perception of their physician?
A
Crossing arms, fiddling with glasses
8
Q
Ways to express empathy to a patient include all except…
A
self-exposure
9
Q
It’s an ethical obligation to criticize another dentist’s work in front of a patient.
A
false
10
Q
If you must judge, judge the ______ not the _________.
A
behavior; person
11
Q
Small talk delays procedures and only exacerbates a patient’s nerves suffering from anxiety
A
false
12
Q
Self disclosure tells that patient that…
A
You have “walked in their shoes”
13
Q
Negative personal experiences are the most common reason people avoid the dentist.
A
False
14
Q
More frequent check ups correlates with ______ anxiety, and more fillings correlates with _____ anxiety in a dental setting.
A
less; less
15
Q
Anxiety is a disorder characterized by ______.
A
excessive uneasiness, apprehension, compulsiveness, panic attacks
16
Q
Perspiration of the upper lip is a ________ sign of anxiety.
A
Physiological
17
Q
it’s best to start the procedure without a detailed explanation for patients with anxiety so they can get in and out of the appointment sooner.
A
true
18
Q
Invisible disabilities discussed in class include all except…
A
third degree foot burn from a George Forman
19
Q
Acculturation is the socialization of two distinct cultural groups that causes a completely new culture in which the groups are now indistinct.
A
False
20
Q
Cultural factors that can affect oral health care include…
A
Eating habits, perception of time, gender roles
21
Q
Health literacy is not associated with age or gender.
A
true
22
Q
It’s generally appropriate to offer to shake hands with a disabled person, even if they have a prosthetic limb.
A
true
23
Q
The common abbreviation, UCHD, stands for…
A
Usual childhood diseases
24
Q
Patients often realize the significance of their health history & can recall their health-related information accurately.
A
false
25
Orthopnea is described as...
Difficulty breathing when lying down
26
Women present with fatigue & back pain when having angina.
true
27
Unstable angina has a _____ frequency and involves pain _______.
Increasing; at rest
28
Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune disease, which can cause...
Stenosis
29
Stress reduction protocol includes all of these features except...
Limiting vasoconstrictors to 5 carpules or less
30
In order to treat a patient who has suffered MI...
The patient must have ejection fraction over 50
The patient should have a medical consult to determine health status before treatment.
The patient must wait 6 months for long treatments.
31
Which is not a factor in COPD?
Acute asthma
32
COPD patients should only have low-flow oxygen because elevated CO2 levels in their arteries stimulate breathing.
true
33
Congestive heart failure is an official diagnosis.
false
34
Causes of cardiomyopathy include...
Viruses, Alcohol abuse, Hereditary
35
A patient with an unrepaired aneurysm should avoid elective treatment.
true
36
Chorea is a symptom that occurs in patients with...
Rheumatic Fever
37
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is another name for...
Sleep apnea
38
Proteinuria is an early stage symptom of HTN.
false
39
Which pressure is given consideration in the monitoring of patients with HTN?
Systolic, Diastolic, Pulse pressure
40
Resistance exercise for _____ minutes most days of the week can drop resting BP.
30-45
41
A patient with a BP of 165/104 should...
not undergo elective treatment, get a med consult
41
Identify the incorrect correlation with factor and BP level fluctuation.
Tobacco/decreases (lasts for 30 minutes)
42
In acute alcoholism, drugs metabolize...
Slowly
42
Average lifespan of a patient with Alzheimer’s after diagnosis is...
8 years
43
Anorexia occurs in how many females for every 1 male?
20
44
INR units can be found in...
oral surgery and emergency
45
A PTT test detects...
Intrinsic pathway abnormalities
46
Osteoarthritis is characterized by _______ and is due to ______.
Asymmetry; normal wear & tear
47
NSAIDs are used commonly for treatment of severe asthma.
false
48
Forms of purging in bulimia include all except...
fasting
49
Celiac disease causes damage to mucosal surface of the...
Small intestine
50
When taking a periapical radiograph, which anatomical features should you capture?
Crown, Root of tooth (including the apex), Surrounding bone
51
The _________ technique is the preferred technique for intraoral radiographs and involves placing the film __________ to the tooth and positioning the cone and x-ray beam_________ to the tooth and film.
Paralleling; parallel; perpendicular
52
What shape of cone head do we use for the intraoral X-ray machine in the clinic?
Rectangular
53
When taking a bitewing radiograph, what anatomical features should be captured?
crown, alveolar bone support, interproximal contacts
54
Advantages of panoramic radiography include
broad anatomic regions imaged, lower radiation dose
55
Principle disadvantages of panoramic radiography include geometric distortion & overlapping of contacts.
true
56
Which would be in violation of the A.L.A.R.A. guidelines?
Holding tubhead during exposure to ensure it doesn’t move
57
Transmission of infectious disease is most common from
patient to operator
58
Which would be an example of violating infection control procedure at UMKC?
Grab the lead apron & thyroid collar with gloves
Spray equipment directly for the best clean.
59
Which is not a typical benefit of a good patient-professional relationship?
Patient is more likely to sue.
60
What percentage of dentists feel they received only fair to poor training in communication at dental school?
50%
61
Although dentists are detailed oriented and technically proficient, they are known to be weak interpersonal communicators.
true
62
Providing information is proficient in changing a patient’s behavior.
false
63
60-70% of medical litigation cases cited _________as the primary cause.
communication
64
The actual content of words is _____ of someone’s perception of what you’re saying.
1/3
65
The non-verbal delivery is ____ of someone’s perception of what you’re saying.
2/3
66
Which statement is false in regard to smiling in non-verbal communication?
A genuine smile is known as a social smile
67
Which is a factor that could impede good listening as a dental professional?
multi-tasking
68
_______ is a literal or dictionary meaning of a word whereas ________ is a subjective meaning dependent on context and patient.
denotative; connotative
69
Verbals that promote conversation include
Asking open-ended questions
70
What is the proper pattern to express empathy to a patient?
Identify emotion you think you hear identify content reflect the two as a statement
71
As an educator you should do all of the following except...
Use jargon frequently
72
The number one reason people avoid the dentist is?
fear
73
The strongest predictor of dental anxiety is _______, while the weakest predictor is ______.
Attitude towards dentists; annual income
74
The three major assessment categories for anxiety include self-report, behavioral signs, & physiological.
true
75
The best time to identify the fearful patient is AFTER a visit.
false
76
What is the proper sequence for reducing anxiety in children in a dental setting?
tell-show-do
77
What are ways to reduce anxiety in patients?
Use N2O2 or oral sedatives, Schedule AM appointments
78
What are proper ways to interact with people who are def or hearing impaired?
Use pantomime, body language, & facial expression to convey meaning
79
What are factors that increase stereotyping?
Time pressure
Lack of resources
High cognitive demands
80
Which are factors affecting cultural values?
Acculturation
Generational standing
Individual variation
81
Cultural competency is a concept that can be mastered in a finite amount of time.
false
82
What factors are known to be influencers for level of health literacy?
education and race
83
It is NOT necessary to know all traditional illnesses, as there are many that vary among different cultures. It IS necessary to have good communication skills to elicit information about the patient’s perspective.
true
84
The proper sequence of obtaining a patient’s health history involves first a brief questionnaire the patient fills out and signs, and then a review with the DDS and another signature to verify their understanding.
true
85
Those who appear in good health are not required to fill out a health history.
false
86
You can work on a patient without a faculty member signing you in as long as the treatment isn’t high risk.
false
87
Which is not a MAJOR risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
stress
88
Atherosclerosis affects ______ to _______ arteries.
medium; large
89
Dyspnea is usually due to...
COPD and Asthma
90
Dyspnea is difficult or labored breathing, but orthopnea is...
Difficulty breathing when lying down
91
Stenosis is a ________ of arteries most commonly occurring in the ______ valve.
narrowing; aortic
92
“Pitting” is a common symptom in...
severe edema
93
Angina typically lasts...
5-15 minutes
94
Symptoms of angina in men include fatigue and back pain, whereas women typically experience a sub sternal pain that radiates to their arm, jaw, or neck.
false
95
Stable angina is ____________ and ___________ with rest.
Predictable; relieved
96
If a patient suffers myocardial infarction, protocol is...
Not do elective treatment for 2 months
Not do long appointments for 6 months
Med consult to determine when minor treatment cant start
97
An ejection fraction of _______ is ideal for patients who have suffered MI in order to do minor treatments.
>50
98
Patients who have suffered MI need an INR in the ranges of _____ to ______ in order to be cleared for treatment.
2;3
99
A person suffering from complications of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) could benefit from...
Low-flow O2
99
Which option is not a stress reduction protocol?
Long appointments with many breaks
100
Common trends of congestive heart failure include...
Heart cannot pump enough blood
101
If someone sleeps with more than 2 pillows under their head in order to sleep comfortably, this is indicative of...
Congestive heart failure
101
The most common cause of congestive heart failure is...
Coronary heart disease
102
Cardiomyopathy is a disease, which encompasses symptoms such as...
Enlarged heart and Impaired systolic function
103
You’re a doctor. Congratulations. A patient mentions they are often tired throughout the day, which makes concentration at work difficult. His wife chimes in he snores “like a freight train” at night, so she’s moved to the guest bedroom. What do you suspect for the diagnosis?
Sleep apnea
104
What is correct treatment protocol for patients suffering with angina?
If stable, elective treatment is OK
105
Atelectasis means...
Airlessness of the lungs aka pulmonary collapse
106
Stress reduction protocol for those suffering angina during a dental appointment include...
Avoiding vasoconstrictors
Nitroglycerin tables
Call 4444 if doesn’t subside in 5 minutes
107
If you notice a patient with an arrhythmia you should...
Get a med consult to find cause & status
Stress reduction protocol
108
For patients with repaired aneurysms, ___________ is recommended, whereas for patients with unrepaired aneurysms, ___________ is recommended.
Pre-medicating; avoiding elective treatment
109
A patient presents with sore throat, fever, headache, & swollen tonsils with white patches. What are diagnosis & the most likely cause of this disease?
Rheumatic fever- group A, B-hemolytic strep
110
For patients with rheumatic heart disease, pre medicating is ______.
Not included in latest recommendations
111
_________ is not as severe as _____________, but may progress to _________.
Scarlet fever; rheumatic fever; rheumatic fever
112
Which of the below options is not considered an early stage symptom of hypertension?
Proteinuria
112
Identify the false statement regarding risk factors of hypertension.
Frequency of HTN is higher in younger populations.
113
Which of the below is considered a late stage symptom of hypertension?
Rupture of retinal arteries
Dementia
Congestive heart failure
114
Hypertension that increases pulse pressure is called ________ and results in an increase in _______ pressure but not _______.
Systolic; systolic; diastolic
115
A patient with blood pressure reading 182/123 would prompt a professional to...
Refer for emergency medical care
Start oxygen
Perform emergency treatment only
115
Secondary HTN can cause...
Renal disease
Renovascular disease
Adrenal disorders like Cushing’s Syndrome
115
A patient with a blood pressure of 155/95 has ______ the risk of a cardiovascular event compared to someone with a blood pressure of 115/75.
Quadruple
116
Every increase in _____ over _____ will _______ the risk of cardiovascular events.
20; 10; double
117
Identify the false statement regarding patient factors of HTN.
“White coat” effect around professionals decreases blood pressure
118
You take a patient’s blood pressure in the clinic & the reading comes back as 165/103. What’s standard protocol for this patient?
No elective treatment
Med consult
Get faculty approval for any procedure
119
A blood pressure of 140/90 would prompt a professional to...
Alert patient to possible HTN diagnosis
120
A patient who has coronary bypass graft surgery should wait at least _____ months to have elective treatment & have a medical consult after that.
2 months
120
Familial onset of Alzheimer’s is also known as ______ onset and occurs in ______ of cases.
early; 10%
121
Adrenal insufficiency symptoms include all except...
Constipation
122
Males can have ______ oz of alcohol a day, whereas women can have _______ oz a day.
3-6; 1.5-3
123
In acute alcoholism, drugs are metabolized _______, and in chronic alcoholism they are metabolized _______.
Slowly; quickly
124
Binge drinking is consuming greater than _____ oz of alcohol in ________ hours.
5; 4
125
Implications of anemia include all of the following except...
Decreased infection
B12 (folic acid) sufficiency
125
Anorexia ratio of women to men is...
20 to 1
126
Osteoarthritis is more common than rheumatoid arthritis.
True
126
An INR of 3 would allow a patient to have
Complex extractions and Perio probing
126
A child who has asthma attacks 3-5 times/week that last for 30 minutes to several hours has...
Moderate asthma
127
An INR less than 2.5 would allow a patient to have
Perio surgery
Perio probing
Simple extraction
127
An INR of 2 means it takes blood _____ as long to clot compared to a “normal” individual.
Twice
128
A PT test detects ________ pathway abnormalities, whereas the PTT detects _______ pathway abnormalities.
Extrinsic; intrinsic
128
A PTT test is used only when on heparin in the hospital.
True
129
The most common form of disability is...
Arthritis
130
A _____ and _____ climate is best for those suffering from arthritis.
Warm; dry
131
Those with asthma should avoid...
Aspirin
Naproxen
132
Patients with autism should start seeing the dentist later in life when they are more mature.
False
133
A patient presents with perimylolysis. You suspect she has _______.
Bulimia; purging type
134
Oral neoplasms can be caused by...
Tobacco
Poor nutrition
Physical inactivity
Germs
135
Which forms of hepatitis are known to cause liver cancer?
HBV, HCV
136
HPV is a known causative factor in the development of ______ cancer.
Cervical
Oropharyngeal
137
Celiac disease involves an autoimmune reaction that is exacerbated by the intake of...
gluten
138
Which statement is correct in regard to Cushing’s Syndrome?
Steroid use can exacerbate disease.
139
Type I diabetes is _____ common than type II diabetes and is considered insulin _______
Less; dependent
140
____ out of every ______ people has Type II diabetes.
1:10
141
Type I diabetes usually involves childhood onset whereas Type II diabetes typically develops in adulthood.
true
142
Which symptom is not a part of the classic triad in diabetes?
Polyuripedemia
143
It is okay to treat a patient with diabetes if they have a blood sugar of _____.
6.5-8%
144
It is okay to treat a patient with diabetes if they have a glucometer reading of ....
Fasting blood glucose of 85
129 two hours after eating a meal
145
Identify the false statement regarding epilepsy.
Medications such as Dilantin cause gingival hypoplasia.
145
Acceptable glucometer reading for fasting glucose in a diabetic patient is...
70-110
146
Standard protocol for a patient suffering a seizure includes...
Stopping treatment
Removing rubber dam if possible
Turning patient on side
Calling 4444 if necessary
147
Habits that alleviate GERD include...
Elevating upper body
Chewing gum
147
Hypothyroidism is more common than hyperthyroidism.
true
148
Hyperthyroidism symptoms...
Thin
Hand tremor
Tachycardia
Exopthalmos
149
Hypothyroidism symptoms include all except...
hypotension
149
The phase of hepatitis that encompasses symptoms such as jaundice & dark foamy urine is...
Icteric
149
Transmission of HIV+ has been proven through...
Blood and Breast milk
150
Saliva, sweat, urine, & tears have shown low levels of HIV+ virus. These have been proven in some instances to transmit the virus.
First sentence is true; second sentence is false
151
A dental patient should have their appointments scheduled ________ their dialysis appointments.
the day after
151
Ways to prevent latex allergic reactions in a dental setting include...
Using nitrile gloves
151
Symptoms indicative of leukemia include...
Abnormal WBC count
152
Leukemia patients with a WBC count of <1000/ml or an ANC of <500 ml should be pre-medicated.
true
152
Which patient is statistically more at risk for developing lupus?
Black female
152
Symptoms of lupus include do not include..
Candidiasis
153
______ lupus erythematosis involves the skin only.
Discoid
154
The HIV virus dies within ______ in air.
2-4 seconds
154
DPT immunizations provide protection against...
Diphtheria, Pertussis, & Tetanus
155
Detrol & Flomax are common prescribed to patients with...
Kidney or bladder disease
155
Lyme’s Disease is the #1 vector borne disease in the US.
true
156
A “bull’s-eye” rash is indicative of what stage of Lyme’s Disease?
Stage 1
156
Stage 3 of Lyme’s Disease involves neurologic symptoms that occur often after a period of latency.
True
157
Stage 2 of Lyme’s Disease occurs...
Weeks to months after the initial bite
158
Multiple Sclerosis is an autoimmune disease and there is a cure.
First statement is true; second statement is false
158
Blood volume in pregnant women increases...
30-60%
158
Elective treatment for pregnant women should be avoided in the...
First trimester and Third trimester
159
Lyme’s Disease is transmitted to humans via bites from...
Deer ticks
160
Pregnant women are at an increased likelihood to develop periodontal disease.
true
160
Treatment protocol for pregnant women involves...
Avoiding NSAIDs
Minimizing vasoconstrictors
Partially reclining patients
160
Risk of pre-eclampsia increases with a multiple pregnancy.
true
161
Danger signs of pigmented lesions include all except...
Symmetry
162
All are common aspects of Tourette’s syndrome except...
Cursing
162
Tuberculosis has a high incidence of coinfection with HIV.
true
163
All are true for treating patients with active tuberculosis except...
Transmission is common
164
Diabetes is an endocrine disorder. Fibromyalgia is a muscular disorder.
Both statements are true
164
Identify the false statement regarding Trigeminal neuralgia.
Mostly in women younger than 50
164
Pre-op treatment modifications include all except...
Hemostasis
165
Intra-op modifications include upright chair positioning & minimizing epinephrine use.
true
166
How should you administer Nitroglycerin to a patient?
Administer sublingually
167
Post-op modifications include...
Analgesics (pain killers)
Antibiotics
Call for follow-up
Anti-fibrinolytic agents (prevent blood clots from breaking down)
167
Select whether or not the following 2 statements are True or False:
a. Asthma is characterized by IRREVERSIBLE episodes
b. Asthma usually has a sudden onset
Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
167
Which of the following is not a major risk for Cardiovascular disease?
Stress
168
Primary Sjogren’s syndrome (Sicca syndrome) includes symptoms...
Dry eyes & mouth
168
There is no treatment for Sjogren’s syndrome, but fluoride application, saliva substitutes, & hydration help alleviate its effects.
true
168
Cushing’s disease is a result of ______ steroid levels and Addison’s disease is a result of _____ steroid levels.
High; low
168
Oral steroids are commonly prescribed for these diseases except...
Cushing’s Disease
169
Which of the following would NOT be appropriate to use for Triad asthmatics?
Aspirin
170
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Extrinsic asthma?
Can be induced by psychological and physiological stress
170
Which of the following t happens during Epilepsy?
Aura
Diaphragmatic spasm
Irritability
Unusual smell or vision
Loss of consciousness
170
If you administer bronchodilators (Ventolin) to a patient during an asthma attack and there is no improvement despite administering it 3 times already. What should you administer next?
Epinephrine
171
Which of the following is characterized by a butterfly-shaped erythematous rash and
polyarthritis?
SLE
171
Which of the following is characterized by dry, warm skin, fruity-smelling breath, and Kussmaul's breathing?
Hyperglycemia
171
Which of the following does not occur in Hyperglycemia?
Polydypnea
171
Which of the following is false?
Type 1 diabetes is a slow onset
171
A1c measures which of the following?
Average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months
171
This stage of insulin shock is characterized by hunger, weakness, tachycardia, and pallor
Mild
171
What would be an ideal HbA1c level if you are pre-diabetic?
6.0 or below
171
Select 2 of the following that are characterized by poorly controlled urination
Congestive heart failure and Diabetes
171
Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of heart disease?
Tremor
171
How long after a Myocardial infarction should you wait to have dental treatment?
Over 2 months
171
Which of the following is not a side effect of nitroglycerin?
Tired
171
Which of the following are not characteristics of Anorexia nervosa?
Tachycardia
171
Select the 2 choices that are characterized by an enlargement of their parotid glands
Excess alcohol use
Sjorgen syndrome
172
What is a healthy INR score range for those patients on blood thinners?
2-3
173
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
Type 2 diabetes
