pt 1 Flashcards

1
Q

disadvantage of assessment tools are

A

responses may be subjective bc of self reporting

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2
Q

disadvantage of assessment tools are

A

efficacy and reliability are not measured in the ADL and IADL

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3
Q

disadvantage of assessment tools are

A

interaction is needed to complete ADL and IADL assessments

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4
Q

disadvantage of assessment tools are

A

FAQ and FSS are determining functional status.

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5
Q

balancing a check book, prepare a meal, and grocery shopping are all

A

in the IADL assessment

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6
Q

dressing ones self and brushing teeth are

A

in BADL assessment

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7
Q

promoting rest and sleep and exercise and ambulation are interventions for what

A

poststroke pt 30 days after and now in home care rehab

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8
Q

• The nurse is caring for an 85-year-old woman 6 weeks following a hysterectomy secondary to ovarian cancer. The patient will need chemotherapy and irradiation on an outpatient basis. The nurse should identify and address which barriers to healing? (Select all that apply.)

A

Has no transportation to the oncology clinic, lives alone and has no nearby relatives, and experiences stress incontinence

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9
Q

“individual’s ability to perform the normal daily activities required to meet basic needs; fulfill usual roles in the family, workplace, and community; and maintain health and well-being.” is ____

A

functional ability

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10
Q

“Cognitive, social, physical, and emotional ability to carry out the normal activities of life required to meet basic needs; fulfill usual roles in family, workplace, and community; and maintain health and well being” is ____

A

functional ability

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11
Q

basic activities of daily living

A

BADL

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12
Q

relate to personal care and mobility

A

BADL

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13
Q

bathing, mouth care, and toilet are

A

BADL

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14
Q

dressing and eating are

A

BADL

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15
Q

these relate to personal care and mobilty

A

BADL

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16
Q

there are instrumental activities of daily living

A

IADL

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17
Q

these relate to more complex skills essential for living

A

IADL

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18
Q

managing money, grocery shopping and cooking are

A

IADL

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19
Q

house cleaning and laundry are

A

IADL

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20
Q

taking meds and using telephone are

A

IADL

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21
Q

accessing transportation are

A

IADL

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22
Q

developmental abnormalities, trauma or disease are

think increase or decreasefunctional impairment

A

Situations that increase risk for functional impairment

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23
Q

social and cultural factors are

think increase or decrease functional impairment

A

Situations that increase risk for functional impairment

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24
Q

advanced age, cog function, and depression level/mental health issues are

think increase or decrease risk of functional impairment

A

Situations that increase risk for functional impairment

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25
Q

comorbidities and SES factors are

A

Situations that increase risk for functional impairment

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26
Q

preclinical disability is

A

task modification w/o report or difficulty performing a specific activity

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27
Q

preclinical disability has been found to be an ___ predictor of future decline and disability

A

impt

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28
Q

preclinical disability is a

think if this increases or decreases FI

A

Situations that increase risk for functional impairment

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29
Q

self report tools provide info on the patients ____ of functional ability

A

perception

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30
Q

problems with self report measures stem from the ______ of an individuals personal characteristics and perferences and environmental factors

A

effect

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31
Q

problems with self report measures lie in the _____

A

interpretation that can vary

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32
Q

problems with self report measures are ability can be ____ or underreported by individuals based on personal reasons

A

overreported

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33
Q

performance based tools involve

A

actual observations of tasks, and completion judged by objective data

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34
Q

performance based assessments

think avoid or cause inaccurate measurement in self report

A

avoid potential for inaccurate measurement inherent in self report

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35
Q

performance based assessment can

A

measure functional ability with repetition and if task completed on time

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36
Q

functional ability changes across the lifespan, mostly in what stages

A

infant, toddler, preschool, school age, adolescent, young adult

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37
Q

in kids and infants, you see ____ milestones

A

developmental

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38
Q

in young and middle adulthood, you want to ___ problems ass with aging

A

ID

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39
Q

for older adults, functional status refers to the safe, ___ performance of ADL

A

effective

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40
Q

for the older population, do ___ focused on factors that will decline the functional ability

think screening or assessing

A

screening

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41
Q

this should be done on all ppl

A

comprehensive, interprofessional assessment, focused on observed functional, social, or cognition changes

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42
Q

if problems with ability develop, milestones in ____, gross and fine motor skills, and cog domains will be reviewed.

Think lang

A

language

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43
Q

how can you reduce risk and intervention

think….teach how to maintain high or low levels of FA

A

teach pts and families about factors maintaining high level functional ability

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44
Q

how can you reduce risk and intervention….teach about

A

well balanced nurtition and exercise

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45
Q

how can you reduce risk and intervention….teach about

A

checkups and stress management

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46
Q

how can you reduce risk and intervention….teach about

think what kind of activity

A

participate in meaningful activity

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47
Q

how can you reduce risk and intervention….teach about

A

fall prevention and don’t do drugs

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48
Q

how can you reduce risk and intervention….teach about

A

self care assisstance for IADL and BADLs

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49
Q

how can you reduce risk and intervention….teach about

A

assistive devices

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50
Q

if there is an ID’ed risk, you want to reduce it as a ___

A

priority

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51
Q

pts need teaching and guidance to develop ____ action plans designed to decrease the specific risks

A

effective

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52
Q

ongoing assessment of an individuals functionality can provide continual adjustment of resources to _____ independance over dependance

A

maximize

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53
Q

a ___ month old child can pay attention to faces

A

2

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54
Q

a ___ month old child can follow things with eyes and recognize ppl at a distance

think youngest age

A

2

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55
Q

a ___ month old child can begin to act bored (cries and fuss) if activity doenst change

think earliest tested on

A

2

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56
Q

a ___ month old child can hold head up and begins to pushing on then lying on tummy

think youngest age

A

2

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57
Q

a ___ month old child can make smoother movements with arms and legs

A

2

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58
Q

a ___ month old child can look around at things nearby

think second youngest age tested

A

6

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59
Q

a ___ month old child can bring things to mouth

A

6

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60
Q

a ___ month old child can show curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach

think second youngest age tested

A

6

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61
Q

a ___ month old child can begin to pass things from one hand to another

think second youngest age

A

6

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62
Q

a ___ month old child can roll over in both directions

think second youngest

A

6

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63
Q

a ___ month old child can stand, support weight on legs and might bounce

A

6

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64
Q

a ___ month old child can roll back and forth , sometimes crawling backward before moving forward

A

6

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65
Q

a ___ month old child can watch the path of something as it falls

think middle age tested

A

9

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66
Q

a ___ month old child can look for things he sees you hide

think middle age tested

A

9

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67
Q

a ___ month old child can play peek-a-boo

A

9

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68
Q

a ___ month old child can put things in mouth

A

9

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69
Q

a ___ month old child can move things smoothly from one hand to another

think middle age

A

9

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70
Q

a ___ month old child can pick up things like cereal between thumb and index figer

A

9

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71
Q

a ___ month old child can stand while holding onto things

A

9

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72
Q

a ___ month old child can get into sitting position

A

9

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73
Q

a ___ month old child can sit without support

A

9

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74
Q

a ___ month old child can pull to stand

A

9

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75
Q

a ___ month old child can crawl

A

9

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76
Q

a ___ year old child can count 10 or more things

A

5

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77
Q

a ___ year old child can draw a person with at least 6 body parts

A

5

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78
Q

a ___ year old child can print some letters or numbers

A

5

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79
Q

a ___ year old child can copy a triangle and shapes

A

5

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80
Q

a ___ year old child knows about things used every day, like money and food

A

5

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81
Q

a ___ year old child can stand on one foot for 10 seconds or longer

A

5

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82
Q

a ___ year old child can hop and maybe skip

A

5

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83
Q

a ___ year old child can do a somersault

A

5

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84
Q

a ___ year old child can use a fork and spoon and table knife

A

5

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85
Q

a ___ year old child can use the toilet on their own

A

5

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86
Q

a ___ year old child can swing and climb

A

5

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87
Q

the ability of individuals and/or their caregivers to engage in the daily tasks required to maintain health and well-being or to manage the physical, psychological, behavioral, and emotional sequelae of a chronic disease based on their knowledge of the condition, its consequences, and the plan of care co-developed with their health care team.”

A

self management

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88
Q

this is assessing if the pt can take care of themselves in the BADL and IADL

A

functional ability

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89
Q

the scope for ___ ___ is from completed dependence to complete independence

A

functional ability

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90
Q

the scope for __ ___ is from disability to full function

A

functional ability

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91
Q

the ability to care for oneself is influenced by what?

A

developmental stage and environment

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92
Q

the ability to care for oneself is influenced by what?

A

social and cognitive factors

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93
Q

the ability to care for oneself is influenced by what?

A

psychosocial and physical health

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94
Q

interventions for functional ability are

A

mulitdisciplinary approach

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95
Q

interventions for functional ability are

A

dependent on the cause like visual-hearing, mobility, cognitive, mental health and physical

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96
Q

nursing interventions for functional ability are

A

assist with IADL and BADL, fall prevention and education

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97
Q

The advantage to self reporting are

A

Less time to complete and no tools needed

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98
Q

The disadvantage for self reporting are

A

Pt perception of ability

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99
Q

The advantage of performance based assessment tools are

A

It involves direct observation of pt

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100
Q

The advantage of performance based assessment tools are

A

Measuring with repetition

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101
Q

The advantage of performance based assessment tools are

A

Timed tasks

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102
Q

The MoCA are use for ________ cog impairement

A

Mild

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103
Q

The TUG assess for risk of _____ and the ability to maintain balanced gait

A

Falls

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104
Q

The MMSE assess ____ impairment

A

Cognitive

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105
Q

The Lawton assess ____ living skills

A

Independent

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106
Q

The Katz is used for older adults and the ability to perform ____

A

ADL

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107
Q

Once pts ability to self manage own care is determined, you need to ______

A

Find the best way to teach/edu them

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108
Q

The nurse wants to help the pt discover their ability to change a behavior or lifestyle with

A

Self management

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109
Q

With self management, you need to believe you can make the change and have the power to do so….this is called

A

Self efficacy

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110
Q

With self management you need to determine learning needs like:

A

Age and developmental stage

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111
Q

With self management you need to determine learning needs like:

think EL and HB

A

Edu level and health beliefs

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112
Q

With self management you need to determine learning needs like:

A

Motivation and readiness to learn

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113
Q

With self management you need to determine learning needs like:

A

Health risks and knowledge and skills

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114
Q

When facilitating learning you…..

A

Have a partnership and readiness to learn as the learner

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115
Q

When facilitating learning you…..

think relevant or nonrelevant info

A

Have relevant info to the learner

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116
Q

When facilitating learning you…..

think neg or pos encounter and to start or end with what ur pt knows

A

Need a pos encounter and to start with what your pt knows

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117
Q

When facilitating learning you…..

think lang and culture

A

Use lang the pt understands and to be culturally sensitive

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118
Q

Self management involved pt edu and the need to

think: want pt to be ready or not ready to learn; want to see barriers or nonbarriers to health; and beneficial or non beneficial to change

A

be aware of if the pt is ready to learn and if they see a barrier in their health and if it will be beneficial to change poor health behaviors

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119
Q

this is the ability of the pt to manage their health care

A

self management

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120
Q

this is the ability to manage symptoms, treatment, physical and psychological aspects, and lifestyle changes

A

self management

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121
Q

if pt is going to self manage health, it needs to be their own ___ and ____

A

actions and initiative

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122
Q

the day to day tasks a person must undertake to control or reduce the impact of disease on physical health status

A

self management

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123
Q

the individuals ability to manage symptoms, treatment psychological and physical consequences and changes with chronic conditions.

A

self management

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124
Q

ability of individuals and/or their caregivers to engage in the daily tasks required to maintain health and well-being or to manage the physical, psychological, behavioral, and emotional sequelae of a chronic disease based on their knowledge of the condition, its consequences, and the plan of care co-developed with their health care team

A

self management

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125
Q

ability of individuals and/or their caregivers to engage in the daily tasks required to maintain health and well-being or to respond to the changing physical, psychological, behavioral, and emotional sequelae of a chronic disease based on their knowledge of the condition, its consequences, and the plan of care developed in cooperation with their healthcare team within the context of the daily demands of life

A

self management

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126
Q

the pt needs knowledge of chronic conditions and treatments for

A

self management

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127
Q

the pt must mon the condition and respond to info about disease state with

A

self management

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128
Q

the pt must be bale to convey impt info about condition and management to HCP with

A

self management

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129
Q

the interaction of health behaviors and related processes that patients and families engage in care for a chronic condition is

A

self management

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130
Q

having the confidence in ones knowledge and abilities to reach a desired outcome is

A

self efficacy

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131
Q

linked to self efficacy

A

pt engagement

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132
Q

having the knowledge, skills, ability, and willingness to be an active participant in ones health and care

A

pt engagement

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133
Q

any combo of learning experiences designed to help pts and caregivers improve health/condition

A

health edu

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134
Q

you want to enhance their knowledge, skills and confidence or influence attitutes

A

health edu

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135
Q

pt takes responsibility for their health/condition and HCP is the vehicle thru which self management occurs

A

pt provider relationship

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136
Q

system of coordinated health care interventions and communications for pts with chronic conditions that require significant self management efforts

A

disease management

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137
Q

this can increase thru education, doing tasks well, be part of health with HCP, link to services

A

self efficacy

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138
Q

the primary goal of what is to improve population health and reduce healthcare costs by mitigating the future complications of chronic conditions through effective self-care

A

disease management

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139
Q

this is based on the idea that an individuals expectations influence their behavior

A

Social Cognitive Theory

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140
Q

there is high efficacy ass with

A

Social Cognitive Theory

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141
Q

in good health remain confident can maintain health with pos health behaviors this is ass with

A

Social Cognitive Theory

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142
Q

there are person factors, behavior and environmental factor ass with( and all are intercorrelated)

A

Social Cognitive Theory

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143
Q

this is based on idea that individuals expectations influence their behavior

A

Social Cognitive Theory

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144
Q

there is observing other and modeling behavior ass with

A

Social Cognitive Theory

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145
Q

this takes into account a persons past experience and that factors into whether behavioral action will occur

A

Social Cognitive Theory

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146
Q

interventions for self efficacy are

A

pt engagement and health edu

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147
Q

interventions for self efficacy are

A

pt provider relationship and disease management

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148
Q

health enhancement and wellness interventions are

A

pts attend well visits and screening appts

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149
Q

predisease/disease preventions are

A

edu on factors that contribute to disease and risk of developing disease based on health status and risks

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150
Q

disease/new diagnosis interventions are

A

edu on disease and its management

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151
Q

acute event management interventions are

edu on new or old meds, changes or same lifestyle, and what health services(A)

A

edu on mew meds, changes in lifestyle, and ancillary health services

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152
Q

nursing interventions are finding the causes and ____ of common chronic disease

A

consequences

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153
Q

nursing interventions are med or symptom management and social ____

A

support

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154
Q

nursing interventions are

A

lifestyle and health promoting behaviors and comm with providers

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155
Q

there are four areas of self management one being ____

A

health enhancement and wellness

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156
Q

there are four areas of self management one being ____

A

predisease/disease prevention

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157
Q

there are four areas of self management one being ____

A

disease/new diagnosis

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158
Q

there are four areas of self management one being ____

A

acute event management

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159
Q

health enhancement and wellness include

A

welllness visits and screening appts

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160
Q

health enhancement and wellness include

A

lifestyle behaviors like good BMI, diet, exercise, sleep, manage stress, and reduce injury

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161
Q

health enhancement and wellness can be a _____

think 1 on 1 or 2 on 1

A

one on one

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162
Q

predisease/disease prevention includes

A

risk of developing full disease based on current health status and risk

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163
Q

predisease/disease prevention

A

is a state in which individuals dont meet the full diagnostic criteria for a diagnosistic but have one plus clinical markers indicating they arent healthy

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164
Q

predisease/disease prevention includes

A

prediabetic, prehypertension, and precancer lesions

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165
Q

predisease/disease prevention includes

A

can the pt make the changes and use suncreen

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166
Q

predisease/disease prevention includes

A

take low dose meds, dont smoke, and exercise and diet

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167
Q

predisease/disease prevention includes

consider the pt as a whole or parts, and the ____ to make changes is critical to successful management over time

A

consider pt with chronic disease holistically and understanding the capacity for making changes is critical to successful management over time

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168
Q

disease/new diagnosis includes

think making what kind of lifestyle changes

A

making significant lifestyle changes

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169
Q

disease/new diagnosis includes

A

edu abt disease

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170
Q

disease/new diagnosis includes

A

• considering patients with chronic disease holistically and understanding their capacity for making changes is critical to successful management over time

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171
Q

acute event management includes

A

stroke and MI

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172
Q

acute event management includes

A

asthma and hip fractures

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173
Q

acute event management includes

A

frequently life changing occurances

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174
Q

acute event management includes

A

achieving the best health possible given disease and preventing a recurrance of the event, the comorbidities, or even mortality

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175
Q

acute event management includes

A

self manage new meds

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176
Q

acute event management includes

A

changing lifestyle behaviors

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177
Q

acute event management includes

A

greater health are utilization due to increased monitoring, specialty care and ancillary health services

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178
Q

self management interventions include

A

education on preventative and supportive health measures

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179
Q

acute event management includes pt centered care plan that includes

think respect and partner

A

respect pt wishes and desires and they are a partner in their care

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180
Q

discharge planning needs to begin ______ the pt is alert, and able to learn and day one

A

the day

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181
Q

when discharging a pt, keep in mind the ways to facilitate ____

A

learning

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182
Q

when looking at self management, look at the ____ context to determine level of support pts need to successfully manage health

A

social

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183
Q

poverty involves __ AND IS PART OF SOCIAL CONTEXT

think paying for what two things

A

paying for health care and health insurnace

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184
Q

neighborhood violence and transportation to HCP are part of ___ context

A

social

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185
Q

once pt is discharged, they must adhere to their health care regime of ___, diet and exercise

think meds or treatment

A

meds

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186
Q

the extent to which a person actions coincide with HCP advice to maintain behaviors by result of participation and agreement

A

adherence

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187
Q

The nurse is assessing learning needs for a patient who has coronary artery disease. The nurse finds that the patient has recently made dietary changes to decrease fat intake and has stopped smoking. Which is the best initial response by the nurse?

A

“You did an excellent job of changing your eating habits and quitting smoking. This is so important for your heart health. Nice work!”

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188
Q

• A patient being treated for tuberculosis (TB) with a standard four-drug regimen continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli. Which actions should the nurse implement?

A

o Assist the patient with short-term goals and plan teaching according to these goals.

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189
Q

A patient being treated for tuberculosis (TB) with a standard four-drug regimen continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli. Which actions should the nurse implement?

A

Provide the patient with all the educational materials about drug-resistant TB.

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190
Q

A patient being treated for tuberculosis (TB) with a standard four-drug regimen continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli. Which actions should the nurse implement?

think what do you ask about meds?

A

Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed.

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191
Q

A patient being treated for tuberculosis (TB) with a standard four-drug regimen continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli. Which actions should the nurse implement?

A

Ask the patient about any barriers to obtaining medications

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192
Q

• The nurse determines a patient has not been taking antihypertensive medication as prescribed. How should the nurse proceed?

A

o Review and reinforce the need to take the medication as prescribed.

193
Q

• The nurse determines a patient has not been taking antihypertensive medication as prescribed. How should the nurse proceed?

A

o Assess the patient’s perception and attitude towards the risks associated with missing doses of medication

194
Q

• The nurse determines a patient has not been taking antihypertensive medication as prescribed. How should the nurse proceed?

A

o Evaluate the teaching plan to determine if there is a need to reeducate the patient

195
Q

• A patient is admitted to the long-term care setting. The nurse notes that the patient does not read or write well. Which nursing actions are priority while developing a teaching plan to increase adherence?

A

o Include the family in the orientation to the unit and include them in the teaching process.

196
Q

• A patient is admitted to the long-term care setting. The nurse notes that the patient does not read or write well. Which nursing actions are priority while developing a teaching plan to increase adherence?

A

o Assess what grade level the patient can read and write and tailor teaching strategies accordingly

197
Q

• A patient is admitted to the long-term care setting. The nurse notes that the patient does not read or write well. Which nursing actions are priority while developing a teaching plan to increase adherence?

A

o Assess what the patient knows about their health issues

198
Q

• A patient is admitted to the long-term care setting. The nurse notes that the patient does not read or write well. Which nursing actions are priority while developing a teaching plan to increase adherence?

think determine motivation or non motivation and the readiness or not readiness to learn

A

o Determine the patient’s motivation and readiness to learn

199
Q

has a pos connotation

A

adherence

200
Q

this is the self initiated action to promote wellness, recovery, and rehab

A

adherence

201
Q

the is the persistence in the practice and maintenance of desired health behaviors and is the result of active participation and agreement

A

adherence

202
Q

this involves pt edu, if they are ready to learn

think A

A

adherence

203
Q

part of adherence is seeing if there are ____to maintaining health

A

barriers

204
Q

part of adherence is to see if it will be ____ to change poor health behaviors

A

beneficial

205
Q

with adherence, ____

A

o In order to help individuals and families to achieve optimal states of health, it needs to be through their own actions and initiative. Remember therapeutic communication mutuality, working in partnership with patient

206
Q

the theory of planned behavior involves how actions are ___

A

guided

207
Q

the attitudes in Theory of Planned Behavior are

A

behavioral beliefs

208
Q

the subjective norms in Theory of Planned Behavior are

A

normative beliefs and the motivation to adhere

209
Q

the perceived behavioral control in Theory of Planned Behavior are

think about the influence on control _____ and confidence

A

influence on control beliefs and confidence

210
Q

attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral all lead to

think what intentions

A

behavioral intentions

211
Q

behavioral intentions and perceived behavioral control all lead to

think what word do they have in common

A

behavior

212
Q

the attitude in Theory of Planned Behavior is the ____ to completing treatment/motivation

think contract or agreeing

A

agreement

213
Q

the subjective norms in Theory of Planned Behavior are the ____ of social pressure pt feels to proceed

A

amt

214
Q

the perceived behavioral control in Theory of Planned Behavior is

A

the level of control pt feels they have over treatment or choice of treatment

215
Q

this predicts the occurence of a specific behavior if that behavior is intentional

A

Theory of Planned Behavior

216
Q

the key assumptions of _____ RT the prediction of whether a person intends to do something

think theory of ____ behavior

A

Theory of Planned Behavior

217
Q

this predicts the intention to perform a behavior

think theory of planned ____

A

Theory of Planned Behavior

218
Q

this looks at intentions and motivation that precede the actual behavior

A

Theory of Planned Behavior

219
Q

this reveals whether the pt has a pos or neg attitude abt revealing his nonadherent behavior

think ____ of planned behavior

A

Theory of Planned Behavior

220
Q

this is ass with seeing how the pt manages his DM

think theory of what behavior

A

Theory of Planned Behavior

221
Q

the ___ beliefs with Theory of Planned Behavior are: fam/friends/SO would approve of him telling the nurse

think what is normal

A

normative

222
Q

the ppl’s opinions are impt to the pt are ass with

think ____ of planned behavior
aka…other people’s opinion’s matter

A

Theory of Planned Behavior

223
Q

Whether the patient finds it difficult to discuss his diabetes self-management and adherence with the nurse, resulting in an appropriate treatment plan is ass with

A

Theory of Planned Behavior

224
Q

the ___hypothesis’s that ppl are more likely to initiate a health related behavior due to certain factors

think HBM

A

health belief model

225
Q

perceive they could become ill or be susceptible to the problem (e.g., perceived susceptibility) is a factor in ____

think HBM

A

health belief model

226
Q

believe that the illness has serious outcomes or will disrupt their daily functioning (e.g., perceived severity) is a factor in

think HBM

A

health belief model

227
Q

believe that the required recommendation will be effective in reducing symptoms (e.g., perceived benefits) is a factor in

think HBM

A

health belief model

228
Q

believe that there are few barriers to initiating the recommendation (e.g., perceived barriers) is a factor in

A

health belief model

229
Q

Having the confidence in ones knowledge and abilities to reach a desired outcome is

A

self efficacy

230
Q

the adherence spectrum defining characteristics are

A

compliance, persistence, and concordance

231
Q

obediance with a prescribed treatment promotes an undertone of blame toward the pts behavior doesnt meet HCP expectations

A

compliance

232
Q

measure of conformance

A

compliance

233
Q

behavior of conforming to treatment for a recommended length of time

A

compliance

234
Q

measure of continuation

A

persistence

235
Q

primarily within the context of chronic disease management therapires

A

persistence

236
Q

time from initiation to discontinuation of a recommended or prescribed treatment

A

persistence

237
Q

confirming how often a pt renews or refills the prescriptions is a measure of

A

persistence

238
Q

this is when the HCP and pt have a mutual agreement on regimen

A

concordance

239
Q

non adherence is ____ omission

A

complete

240
Q

partial adherence is intentional

and due to _____dose/frequency

A

adjusting

241
Q

partial adherence is non intentional and ____

purposeful or nonpurposeful

A

non purposeful

242
Q

pt RT nonadherence consequences are

aka what happens if the pt doesnt adhere

A

increase mortality and morbidly, conflict, embarrassment, changes in quality of life

243
Q

health profession RT consequences of nonadherance are

aka what happens when the health professional doesnt adhere

A

ambivalence, misinterpretation, avoidance, lack of empathy, and decisional conflict

244
Q

health care system RT non adherence consequences

think increased costs for what services

A

increase costs for health care services

245
Q

behavior of conforming to treatment

A

compliacne

246
Q

measure of continuation of prescribed treatment is

A

persistence

247
Q

mutual agreement and alliance with pts based on realistic expectations

think how all concordances agree on definitions

A

concordance

248
Q

interrelated concepts that influence the degree of adherence

think C and S

A

culture and spirituality

249
Q

interrelated concepts that influence the degree of adherence

think C and FD

A

cognition and fam dynamics

250
Q

interrelated concepts that influence the degree of adherence

think DS and pts FA

A

developmental stage and pts functional ability

251
Q

functional performance is

A

the actual ADL carried out by person

252
Q

functional impairment is

think abnormaities or norma & caused by what

A

physical abnormalities that underlie limitations and caused by disease

253
Q

function refers to

think interaction between condition and performance

A

POS OR NEUTRAL INTERACTON BETWEEN A PERSON’S HEALTH CONDITION AND ABILITY TO PERFORM ACTIVITIES

254
Q

FUNCTION IS

A

WHAT THE PERON CAN DO WITH HEALTH CONDITION

255
Q

disability is

A

neg aspects to a persons health condition and social or physical limitations

256
Q

two dimensions of functional ability are

THINK A and A

A

attributes and antecedents

257
Q

defining characteristics of functional ability are

THINK a

A

attributes

258
Q

the capacity to perform specific abilities are

A

attributes

259
Q

actual or required performance of functional abilities are

A

attributes

260
Q

events that must happen bf functional ability can exist

think bf/ante cedars

A

antecedents

261
Q

development of physiological process: neural , cog, endocrine, musculoskeletal and metabolic are all

think ante cedars

A

antecedents

262
Q

acquisition of development milestones and skills are

think ante cedars

A

antecedents

263
Q

put na

A

na

264
Q

jj

A

j

265
Q

kk

A

kk

266
Q

llll

A

lll

267
Q

llllllllllllllllll

A

lllllllllllllllll

268
Q

ppppppppppppp

A

ppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppp

269
Q

g

A

gg

270
Q

g

A

g

271
Q

g

A

g

272
Q

y

A

y

273
Q

the MMSE are used for older adults and to test __ function

A

cog

274
Q

an interdisciplinary lens includes: ___, mental health, medicine, and pharmacy

A

nursing

275
Q

in ___, you see a diagnosis with adherance behavior as the expected outcome

think N

A

nursing

276
Q

in mental health, it is impt them between pt nonadherence and the feelings of __ when about the nonadherence

A

embarassment

277
Q

in medicine, research of certain disease states attempts to answer Qs on how to predict, measure, intervene, and ___ pts who are nonadherent

think Trick or ___

A

treat

278
Q

in pharmacy, the ____ is on developing non adherence measuring tools to improve the adherence

think Ford _____

A

focus

279
Q

functional ability influence sexuality and _____

think E(poop)

A

elimination

280
Q

functional ability influence ___ and vise versa

think P and gas exchange

A

perfusion

281
Q

functional ability influence family dynamics and ______ and vise versa

think C

A

coping

282
Q

cognition, development, and ____ influence functional ability

think c

A

culture

283
Q

nutrition and mobility influence___ ___ and vise versa

think FA

A

functional ability

284
Q

sensory perception and gas exchange affect ____ ___ and vise versa

think FA

A

functional ability

285
Q

BADL and IADL are essential for ___ ___

A

ind living

286
Q

the assessment of milestones in how kids are able to move, speak, act, and play are

A

developmental milestones

287
Q

one action/question you see with developmental milestones for a 2 mth old is

think what does the head do with sound?

A

does the child turn their head toward sounds?

288
Q

one action/question you see with developmental milestones for a 6 mth old is

think what do they do when name is called?

A

does the child respond to their name?

289
Q

one action/question you see with developmental milestones for a 9 mth old is

A

are they able to pick up things with their hands/fingers?

290
Q

one action/question you see with developmental milestones for a 5 yr old is

A

can the child tell what’s real and make believe?

291
Q

harry and marilee ___ fit the criteria for developmental milestones. they are too old

A

dont

292
Q

the MoCA is for ____ ages

A

55-85

293
Q

the MoCA is for

A

screening all levels for cog impairment

294
Q

the MoCA looks at

think A and C

A

attention and concentration

295
Q

the MoCA looks at

think what kind of function and memory or nonmemory

A

executive functions and memory

296
Q

the MoCA looks at

think VCS and O

A

visuoconstructional skills and orientation

297
Q

the MoCA looks at conceptual thinking and _____

think caculator

A

calculations

298
Q

older adults have trouble remembering ___

think ppl or animals

A

animals

299
Q

the MoCA action will be to ___

A

name as many words as you can

300
Q

the score scale for the the MoCA is from

A

0-30

301
Q

27-30 is a __ result

A

normal for the MoCA

302
Q

21-26 is a ____

A

MCI for the MoCA

303
Q

0-20 indicates

A

dementia with the MoCA

304
Q

marilee and harry are able to take the

think coffee

A

MoCA

305
Q

you can use the MoCA is for

think drinking coffee at the park

A

parkinsons

306
Q

the TUG is for what age range?

A

60-90 yr olds

307
Q

the TUG is where a pt wears

A

regular footwear and can use a walking aid

308
Q

TUG test steps

A
  1. stand up from chair
  2. walk to line on floor
  3. turn
  4. walk back to the chair
  5. sit down
309
Q

fall risk is indicated in older adults with TUG GT >__seconds

A

12

310
Q

harry would do the TUG test but not ____

A

marilee

311
Q

the MMSE is for _____ yr olds

A

18-92 but esp. older adults

312
Q

the MMSE test cog ____

A

impairment

313
Q

the single cutoff for the MMSE is

A

LT 21

314
Q

if an MSSE score is LT 21 there is an ____ of dementia

A

increased odds

315
Q

if an MMSE score is GT ____ THERE IS A DECREASED ODD OF DEMENTIA

A

25

316
Q

if an MSSE score is 21 IT IS ___ FOR 8TH GRADE

A

ABNORMAL

317
Q

if an MSSE score is LT 23, THAT IS ABNORMAL FOR WHAT AGE

A

HIGH SCHOOL EDU

318
Q

IF THE mmse IS LT 24, it is ___ for college edu

A

abnormal

319
Q

to test the MMSE, ask things like…

A

where are we now? Stare? country? city? hospital?

320
Q

to test the MMSE, repeat things like…

A

“no ifs, and or buts”

321
Q

harry should use the MMSE not ____

A

marilee

322
Q

0-10 of a MMSE score is severe and the pt is not likely ____

A

testable and under 24 hr supervision and has ADL assistence

323
Q

10-20 of a MMSE is moderate and the formal assessment may be helpful if ____

A

there are specific clinical indications and there will be clear impairment and will require 24 hour supervision

324
Q

20-25 MMSE score is mild and you will do a formal assessment to determine pattern ad extent of deficits and requires_______

A

some supervision, support and assistance

325
Q

25-30 of MMSE score is questionably significant and do a assessment if sign of impairment are present. this affects the _______

A

most demanding ADL

326
Q

katz is ____

A

index of ind in ADL

327
Q

katz is used for

A

older adults and those who cant perform ADL’s

328
Q

this assesses ability to perform ADL(I or D) and for slef care

A

katz

329
Q

this is included with katz

A

bathing, dressing, toilet, transfer, continence and feeding

330
Q

a question ass with katz is

A

can the pt move in/out of bed or chair unassisted, or with just transfer aid?

331
Q

harry and marilee need to do katz. true or false

A

true

332
Q

adherence is affected by

think C and C

A

culture and cognition

333
Q

adherence is affected by

think pt FA and FD

A

pt functional abiity and fam dynamics

334
Q

adherence is affected by

think DS and S

A

developmental stage and spirituality

335
Q

aortic is at __ ICS

A

2nd

336
Q

pulmonic is at ___ ICS

A

2nd

337
Q

erbs point is at __ ICS

A

3rd

338
Q

tricuspid is at __ICS

A

4th

339
Q

mitral is at ___ ICS

A

5th

340
Q

use __ to listen to S1 and 2 /normal sounds

A

diaphragm

341
Q

use the bell to listen to abnormal sounds like _____

A

gallops, murmurs, thrills, and bruits

342
Q

S1 is the

A

“lub”, mitral/tricuspid closure

343
Q

S2 is the

A

“dub”, aortic/pulm closure

344
Q

gallops are what

A

extra heart sounds like S3

345
Q

S3 are ___gallops(ken-tuck’-y)

A

ventricular

346
Q

atrial gallops say

A

ten’-es-see

347
Q

murmurs are ____ or impeded flow(blowing or swishing sound)

A

increased

348
Q

thrills are

A

palpable vibrations

349
Q

bruits are

A

turbulent peripheral blood flow

350
Q

use bell to listen to

A

S3 adn S4

351
Q

questinons for a cardiac assessment

A

ask abt stress and diet

352
Q

questinons for a cardiac assessment

A

how often do you exercise and what is the effect

353
Q

questinons for a cardiac assessment

A

do you have cardiac history or take heart meds?

354
Q

questions for a cardiac assessment

A

ask about pain(PQRST)?

355
Q

in a cardiac assessment, you look for clamyness, _____, and pulse and veins

A

diaphoretic

356
Q

in a cardiac assessment, _____ for bruits

A

use bell of stethoscope

357
Q

in a cardiac assessment, you _____ apex of heart for PMI

A

palpate

358
Q

in a cardiac assessment,when you ausulcate heart sounds, you _____

think four steps

A
  1. pt breathes normal
  2. 5 precordial landmarks
  3. use diaphragm and note S1 and 2 presence
  4. use bell to auscultate abnormal sounds(S3, S4, murmurs, gallops, pericardial friction rub)
359
Q

with aging you see a _____ in systolic blood pressure

A

rise

360
Q

with aging you see a _____ of coronary blood vessels and LV

A

thickening

361
Q

with aging you see a ____ in CO and contraction strength

A

decrease

362
Q

with aging you see the heart valves ___

A

stiffen

363
Q

with aging you see a decrease in peripheral ____

A

circulation

364
Q

it is harder to push blood into heart s normal with ____

A

aging

365
Q

thrills are felt or listened to?

A

felt

366
Q

bruits are ____in the carotid

A

listened to

367
Q

thrills and carotids are in the _____

A

artery

368
Q

pleural friction rub is dry, ___, rubbing

A

grating

369
Q

pleural friction rub is due to ___

A

inflammation

370
Q

rhonchi/stridor is course, low pitched, and ____

A

fluid or mucus

371
Q

rhonchi/stridor can ___ with cough

A

clear

372
Q

crackles/rales are ___, coarse”bubbly”

A

fine

373
Q

wheezes are _____ pitched and like whistling

A

high

374
Q

wheezes are ___ or obstructed airways

A

narrow

375
Q

wheezes are ___ on expiration

A

louder

376
Q

with the resp. sys, you auscultate for

A

crackles, wheezes, rhonchi, and pleural friction rub

377
Q

you listen with the diaphragm and go back and forth on lobes in what system

A

respiratory

378
Q

get a HH and physical exam , subjective data, and obj data with assessing the ___ ____

A

resp. system

379
Q

get a degree of resp. distress with the

A

exam and HH

380
Q

impt health info and functional health patterns, and genetic risk are part of

A

subj data

381
Q

get a past HH including….

A

resp., allergies, body systems

382
Q

meds like OTC, prescribed, drugs, and O2 is

think sibj or obj data

A

subj data

383
Q

surgery and treatments are

think subjective or obj data

A

subj data

384
Q

health perception -health management pattern includes

A

smoking history/exposure and immunizations

385
Q

health perception -health management pattern includes

A

change in resp status and resp problems

386
Q

health perception -health management pattern includes

A

characteristics of cough and sputum and international travel

387
Q

A ____ yr old can find things even when hidden under mulitple layers

A

2

388
Q

A ____ yr old can sort out shapes and colors

A

2

389
Q

A ____ yr old can comeplete sentences and rhymes in familiar books

A

2

390
Q

A ____ yr old can play a simple make believe game

A

2

391
Q

A ____ yr old can become hand dominant

A

2

392
Q

A ____ yr old can follow 2 step directions

A

2

393
Q

A ____ yr old can name items in a pic book like cats and dogs

A

2

394
Q

A ____ yr old can stand on tip toes

A

2

395
Q

A ____ yr old can kick a ball and run

A

2

396
Q

A ____ yr old can climb on furniture without help

A

2

397
Q

A ____ yr old can walk on stairs holding on

A

2

398
Q

A ____ yr old can throw overhand

A

2

399
Q

A ____ yr old can make or copy lines and circles

A

2

400
Q

Genetic risk includes fam history of cystic fibrosis, asthma, and COPD and included in the ____ data and functional health patterns

A

Subj

401
Q

When inspecting the resp. Sys, you want to look at appearance(______)

A

Position, evidence of resp. Distress and retractions

402
Q

When inspecting the resp. Sys, you want to look for thorax shape, diameter, symmetry, and ____

A

Movement

403
Q

When inspecting the resp. Sys, you want the A/P diameter to transverse to be ____:___

A

2:1

404
Q

When inspecting the resp. Sys, you look at the ____ oximetery, RR, depth and rhythm

A

Pulse

405
Q

When inspecting the resp. Sys, you look at cough presence, clubbing and cyanosis and ____midline

A

Trachea

406
Q

When inspecting the resp. Sys anteriorly and posteriorly, note muscle mass, bone ____, and nodules

A

Defects

407
Q

When inspecting the resp. Sys, look at masses and crepitus and ask about ____

A

Tenderness

408
Q

When auscultating the resp. Sys, look for breath _____

A

Sounds

409
Q

Bronchial breath sounds are

A

High pitched and loud and hollow

410
Q

Bronchial breath sounds are _____ longer than inspiration

A

Expiration

411
Q

Bronchial breath sounds are from the _____

A

Trachea

412
Q

Bronchovesicular breath sounds are _____/blowing over large airways

A

Medium

413
Q

Bronchovesicular breath sounds are ____ expiration and inspiration

A

Equal

414
Q

Vesicular breath sounds are soft/_____, breezy

A

Low

415
Q

Vesicular breath sounds are over the ____fields

A

Lung

416
Q

Vesicular breath sounds are _____longer than expiration

A

Inspiration

417
Q

EF of aging in the resp. Sys are ____chest expansion and functional alveoli

A

Reduced

418
Q

EF of aging in the resp. Sys are ____ in cilia function

A

Decrease

419
Q

EF of aging in the resp. Sys are ____ in cough reflex

A

Decrease

420
Q

EF of aging in the resp. Sys are _____ due to osteoporosis and weak cartilage

A

Kyphosis

421
Q

Crackles in lungs are due to _____ edema and fluid

A

Pull

422
Q

Rhonchi sounds like a

A

Snore

423
Q

Bronchial breath sounds are over the _____

A

Trachea

424
Q

Bronchiovesicular breath sounds are over the main _____

A

Bronchi

425
Q

Vesicular breath sounds are over the ___bronchi, bronchioles and lobes

A

Lesser

426
Q

Vesicular breath sounds are over the whole ____area

A

Lung and trachea

427
Q

Abdomen structures are the ANS which includes ____ and ____

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic

428
Q

Parasympathetic are the excitatory part and are ____

think C

A

Cholingeric

429
Q

Sympathetic is inhibitory and _____

A

Adrenergic

430
Q

The enteric NS____ motility and secretion along the entire GI tract

A

Regulates

431
Q

The main function of the GI system is what three things?

A

Ingestion, digestion, and absorption

432
Q

Ingestion and propulsion of food by _____ and deglutition(swallowing)

A

Mastication

433
Q

Swallowing includes: _____, pharynx, and esophagus

A

Mouth with salivary glands

434
Q

Digestion happens in the_____

A

Stomach

435
Q

Absorption happens in the ____

A

SI

436
Q

Gastric secretions involve what kind of cells?

A

Chief and parietal

437
Q

Chief feels secrete

A

Pepsinogen

438
Q

Parietal cells secrete ____, water and intrinsic factor

A

HCl acid

439
Q

In digestion you see ____ and chemical breakdown of food into absorbable substances

A

Physical

440
Q

With digestion you see ____ in the mouth as where it starts

A

Saliva

441
Q

With digestion you see protein broken down by pepsin in ____

A

Stomach

442
Q

With digestion you see carbs, __ and proteins broken down in SI

A

Proteins

443
Q

The LI does ____regulation

A

Water

444
Q

The SI does _____

A

Absorption

445
Q

The stomach does ____

A

Digestion

446
Q

Elimination happens in the ___

A

LI

447
Q

When listening to the abdomen, you want to use the ___ in all four quadrants

A

Diaphragm

448
Q

Bowel sounds are

A

Irregular normally

449
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to look for

A

Distension

450
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to look for

A

Ab irregularly or contour

451
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to look for

A

Skin problems

452
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to ask

A

Is the ct guarding or splinting abdomen?

453
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to note

A

Umbilicus(the shape, color, discharge, position, and masses present)

454
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to look for

A

Shape/contour of abdomen and if there is a presence of hernias

455
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to assess the skin for

A

Lesions and scars

456
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to assess for

A

Masses and color

457
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to assess the skin for ascites and stretch marks. True or false

A

True

458
Q

When inspecting the abdomen, you want to look for

A

Presence of visual peristalsis or pulsations

459
Q

The abdomen can be flat, rounded, ____ or protruberant

A

Scaphoid

460
Q

When ausculatating the abdomen, you want to look for

A

Movement of air and fluid (bowel sounds)

461
Q

When ausculatating the abdomen, you want to listen is all 4 quadrants and expect

A

Several sounds per min

462
Q

When ausculatating the abdomen, you want to look for the quality in each quadrant and see if hyperactive or absent ____

A

Sounds

463
Q

When palpating the abdomen, you want to palpate all _____

A

Quadrants

464
Q

When palpating the abdomen, you want to use a ______ motion

A

Circular

465
Q

When palpating the abdomen, you want to look for masses or tenderness as this is seen in “_____”(tension of muscles)

A

Guarding

466
Q

When palpating the abdomen, you want to look for and note verbal or nonverbal pain _____

A

Cues

467
Q

When palpating the abdomen, you want to look for rebound tenderness which indicates

A

Inflammation/irritation in cavity

468
Q

Subj data with abdomen assessments are

A

Health info(HH, meds, surgery) and functional health patterns

469
Q

Obj data with abdomen assessments are inspecting and palpating the ____

A

Mouth

470
Q

Obj data with abdomen assessments are

A

The exam order(I,A,P); good lighting; supine and relaxed

471
Q

Obj data with abdomen assessments are

A

Knees slightly flexed, warm hands, and empty bladder

472
Q

Aging considerations with GI sys are

A

Weak Ab muscles and more adipose tissue

473
Q

Aging considerations with GI sys are

think teeth

A

Dental caries and periodontal disease

474
Q

Aging considerations with GI sys are

A

Decreased taste buds and less smell sense

475
Q

Aging considerations with GI sys are

A

Less saliva(Xerosotmia) and constipation

476
Q

Aging considerations with GI sys are

A

Slower esophageal and SI motility

477
Q

Aging considerations with GI sys are

A

Inability to obtain food and decreased food intake

478
Q

Aging considerations with GI sys are

A

Gallbladder disease and liver size decreased

479
Q

Aging considerations with GI sys are

A

Decreased HCl acid secretions