Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychopathology > Psychotic Disorders > Flashcards

Psychotic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What does DSM stand for?

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give the five symptom dimensions of psychotic disorders.

A

Delusions, hallucinations, disorganised thinking, grossly disorganised or abnormal motor behaviour, and negative symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name five positive symptoms.

A

Hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder, motor disturbances, and disorganisation in thought and behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define thought disorder.

A

A state of highly disorganised thinking characteristic of individuals with schizophrenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give three negative symptoms.

A

Affective flattening, alogia, and avolition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define avolition.

A

The inability to initiate or persist with important activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define affective flattening.

A

A severe reduction or the complete absence of affective responses to the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define alogia.

A

A deficiency in the quantity of speech.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give two other names for thought disorder.

A

Formal thought disorder or loosening of associations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does the DSM-5 define a hallucination?

A

A perception-like experience with the clarity and impact of a true perception but without the external stimulation of relevant sensory organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Roughly __% of patients with schizophrenia report hallucinations.

A

75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Between what percent of people with schizophrenia report auditory hallucinations, particularly those of voices?

A

60-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Between what percent of people with schizophrenia report command hallucinations?

A

33-74%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give an example of a visual hallucination.

A

Seeing the face of a tormentor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give an example of an olfactory hallucination.

A

Smelling something rotting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give an example of a gustatory hallucination.

A

Tasting something metallic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give an example of a tactile hallucination.

A

A hand on your shoulder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a somatic hallucination?

A

A perception of a physical experience inside the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give an example of a multimodal hallucination.

A

A voice accompanied by the image of a figure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the neurological conditions that can result in hallucinations. (4)

A

Temporal lobe lesions, complex partial seizures, migraines and brain injuries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is intoxication with hallucinogens associated with?

A

Alterations in visual perception of the colour, size and shape of objects and the perception of more abstract images.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What percent of psychotic experiences disappear over time?

A

70-95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define hallucination.

A

A psychotic symptom entailing perceptual experiences that are not real, which can occur in any sensory modality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define hallucinogens.

A

Substances including LSD and MDMA that can produce perceptual illusions and distortions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define delusion.

A

A psychotic symptom entailing a strongly held belief that is not consistent with what almost everyone else believes and despite obvious proof to the contrary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define paranoid delusion.

A

A false belief of delusional intensity that someone is seeking to harm the individual or their interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does the person’s beliefs and expectations influence the extent of distress associated with symptoms?

A

Distress is more likely if the voice is perceived as malevolent than benevolent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Give another name for paranoid delusions.

A

Persecutory delusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are delusions of references?

A

A false belief strongly held by an individual that environmental stimuli have a particular significance for them, for example, messages of a highly personal nature are being conveyed through neutral sources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which form of delusion is most commonly reported in clinical settings?

A

Paranoid delusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a somatic delusion?

A

A false belief of delusional intensity regarding the appearance of functioning of one’s body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What can somatic delusions be accompanied by? (2)

A

Somatic hallucinations, like a feeling of electricity through the body or heightened vigilance for internal bodily sensations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define grandoise delusions.

A

A false belief of delusional intensity about the self including ideas of inflated worth, power, knowledge, ability, identity or relationships with well-known figures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are grandoise delusions most often associated with?

A

The manic episodes of bipolar disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Between what percent of people with schizophrenia have religious delusions?

A

25-39%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are nihilistic delusions and delusions of guilt commonly associated with?

A

Episodes of severe major depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do nihilistic delusions involve?

A

A conviction that one is dead or that parts of the body or environment have ceased to exist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do delusions of guilt involve?

A

Beliefs of personal responsibility and the idea that a punishment is deserved for specific events or outcomes of catastrophic proportions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Give two other names for jealousy delusions.

A

Morbid jealousy, and Othello syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do jealousy delusions usually involve?

A

The belief that a partner has been unfaithful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How may people experiencing jealousy delusions arrive at the conclusion that their partner is unfaithful?

A

Based on illogical evidence, like coded messages from the television.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are erotomanic delusions?

A

A false belief that the patient’s romantic feelings for another, often a person perceived by the patient to be of significant status or influence, are reciprocated by the other person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do people experiencing erotomanic delusions justify a disavowal of feelings from the other party?

A

By alternative interpretations, including the conclusion that the person is prevented from directly expressing their love by other parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Are stalkers with psychotic disorders more or less likely to by violent than other stalkers?

A

Less likely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is passivity phenomena?

A

Delusions that entail a belief that the patient is under the control of some person, force or agency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Give some examples of passivity phenomena. (2)

A

A belief that thoughts are being interfered with, either being implanted or removed from the mind, or the belief that actions, impulses or emotions are being directly influenced by external forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Give an example of a non-bizarre delusion.

A

The neighbour is spreading malicious gossip.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Give an example of a bizarre delusion.

A

Thought broadcasting, the belief that one’s thoughts can be heard by others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are primary delusions.

A

Delusions that have formed without a prior psychopathological event or process having led to the false conclusion, seemingly out of the blue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are secondary delusions.

A

Delusions that are secondary to abnormal changes in mood, memory or perception, particularly hallucinations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How are complex delusional belief systems affected by a change in environment?

A

They are highly adaptive, and will change to incorporate the new environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Name Haddock, McCarron, Tarrier, and Faragher’s inventory for measuring psychotic symptoms.

A

The Psychotic Symptom Rating Scales (PSYRATS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Who developed the Psychotic Symptom Rating Scales? (4)

A

Haddock, McCarron, Tarrier, and Faragher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What do the Psychotic Symptom Rating Scales measure? (3)

A

The degree of preoccupation and distress associated with the delusional belief, the level of conviction in the belief, and the disruption to the person’s life caused by the belief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does formal though disorder refer to?

A

Disturbances in the logical sequencing and coherence of thought.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How is the severity of formal thought disorder measured?

A

Through assessments of the person’s speech, particularly thought sequencing (flow) and form (structure or coherence).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What can disturbances in the coherence of speech range from?

A

Subtle increases in the use of vague language to highly incoherent speech where the individual’s phrases are disjointed and nonsensical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What can disturbances in thought be divided into?

A

Positive or negative manifestations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Name some examples of positive thought disorder. (7)

A

Circumstantiality, tangentiality, derailment, clang associations, echolalia, using words idiosyncratically, and neologisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Define circumstantiality.

A

Speech that is very indirect and long-winded in conveying meaning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Define tangentiality.

A

Oblique or irrelevant responses to questions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Define derailment.

A

The person’s comments slip off one idea onto another, only partially-related topic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are clang associations?

A

A more extreme manifestation of thought disorder, where phrases become linked through sounds instead of meaning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is echolalia?

A

Occurring during acute phases of psychosis, repeating the utterances of others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are neologisms?

A

False words.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is catatonic behaviour?

A

Marked motor abnormalities like adopting unusual postures or repetitive movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Name the twelve symptoms of catatonia.

A

Stupor, catalepsy, waxy flexibility, mutism, posturing, mannerism, stereotypy, agitation, grimacing, echolalia, and echopraxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Define stupor.

A

No psychomotor activity not related to environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Define catalepsy.

A

Maintaining a rigid body posture or rigidity of the limbs even when this would normally require effort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Define waxy flexibility.

A

A tendency to remain in a posture even when limbs are moved into place by another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Define mutism.

A

Opposition or no response to instructions or external stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Define posturing.

A

Spontaneous and active maintenance of a posture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Define mannerism.

A

Odd, circumstantial caricature of normal actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Define stereotypy.

A

Repetitive, abnormally frequent, non-goal directed movements.

75
Q

Define grimacing.

A

Odd facial movements like baring teeth in the absence of provocation.

76
Q

Define echopraxia.

A

Mimicking another’s movements.

77
Q

How can grossly disorganised or abnormal motor behaviour be defined?

A

Any form of goal-directed behaviour, leading to difficulties in performing daily activities.

78
Q

What suggests that catatonia has a neurological basis?

A

It is less responsive to treatment than schizophrenia.

79
Q

What is the presence of catatonic symptoms associated with? (2)

A

Early onset of psychotic illness and poorer overall functioning.

80
Q

What may alogia include?

A

Thought blocking; the cessation of speech mid-sentence.

81
Q

How may people account for thought blocking?

A

Thought control from external sources.

82
Q

What can negative symptoms be difficult to distinguish from? (2)

A

Adverse effects of medication and symptoms of depression.

83
Q

Give the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia.

A

Lasts at least six months, with at least one month of two or more symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganised speech, grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviour, and negative symptoms; the person’s functioning is below prior functioning, or there is a failure to achieve expected levels of functioning.

84
Q

What is schizotypal personality disorder?

A

A pattern of pervasive social and interpersonal deficits and cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behaviour beginning before early adulthood.

85
Q

What is schizophreniform disorder?

A

Equivalent to schizophrenia except the disturbance is of lesser duration (one to six months).

86
Q

Explain schizoaffective disorder?

A

The co-occurence of the symptoms of schizophrenia and a major mood episode, in addition to at least a two-week period of delusions or hallucinations without mood disturbance, with mood symptoms present for the majority of the total duration of the disorder.

87
Q

Explain delusional disorder.

A

At least one month of delusions.

88
Q

Define brief psychotic disorder.

A

A psychotic disturbance lasting more than one day but less than a month with eventual return to premorbid level of functioning.

89
Q

Explain psychotic disorder due to another medical condition.

A

Prominent hallucinations or delusions that are the direct physiological consequence of another medical condition.

90
Q

What is substance/medication induced psychotic disorder?

A

Delusions and/or hallucinations that develop during or soon after substance intoxication or withdrawal or after exposure to medication.

91
Q

Define other specified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder.

A

Symptoms of psychosis that cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning but which do not meet full criteria for any other psychotic disorders, and the clinician must provide specific reasons for why the criteria for another disorder is not met.

92
Q

What is unspecified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder?

A

Symptoms of psychosis that cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning but which do not meet full criteria for any other psychotic disorders.

93
Q

What does attenuated psychosis syndrome involve?

A

Psychotic symptoms that are less severe and more transient, and the sufferer has insight into the pathological nature of the symptoms.

94
Q

Define depression.

A

A state marked by sad mood or anhedonia, as well as hopelessness, suicidal ideation, psychomotor agitation or retardation, appetite and sleep disturbance, fatigue, poor concentration and a sense of worthlessness.

95
Q

What is the reason for the high rates of suicide associated with psychotic disorders?

A

Comorbid depression.

96
Q

What percent of people with schizophrenia commit suicide?

A

5-10%

97
Q

What may the increased risk of suicide among people with schizophrenia over the past 100 years be attributable to? (3)

A

Deinstitutionalisation, side effects of antipsychotic medications, and the effects of withdrawal from antipsychotic medications.

98
Q

Give two anxiety disorders commonly comorbid with psychotic disorders.

A

Social phobia and PTSD.

99
Q

Give two factors that can lead to comorbidity of anxiety and psychotic disorders.

A

Trauma associated with the experience of psychosis, and coercive interventions during psychotic episodes.

100
Q

What percent of psychosis patients report current cannabis use?

A

23%

101
Q

What does cannabis have an increased risk of?

A

Relapse of psychosis.

102
Q

What does COMT stand for?

A

Catechol-O-methyltransferase.

103
Q

What is COMT?

A

An enzyme involved in the breakdown of dopamine and other neurotransmitters releases into synapses.

104
Q

How does COMT relate to psychosis?

A

Variations of the gene are thought to cause a slower breakdown of dopamine, which is related to the positive symptoms of psychosis.

105
Q

What percent of people with psychotic disorders are unemployed?

A

40-50%

106
Q

What did Emil Kraepelin originally call schizophrenia?

A

Dementia praecox.

107
Q

What does dementia praecox mean?

A

Senility of the young.

108
Q

Define paranoia.

A

A state characterised by false beliefs that one is being harassed, persecuted, or unfairly treated, which may reach delusional intensity.

109
Q

Who coined the term schizophrenia?

A

Eugen Bleuler.

110
Q

Give three psychologists who had a significant role in defining schizophrenia.

A

Kraepelin, Bleuler, and Schneider.

111
Q

Give Kurt Schneider’s first rank symptoms. (3)

A

Hearing voices arguing, hearing voices commenting on the individual’s actions and bizarre delusions including passivity phenomena.

112
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia?

A

Between 1 and 2%.

113
Q

Give the gender ratio for schizophrenia.

A

3 men:2 women

114
Q

What is the peak period for onset of psychotic disorders?

A

Late adolescence and early adulthood.

115
Q

Give the phases of psychotic disorders. (4)

A

The premorbid phase, prodromal phase, acute phase, and the recovery phase.

116
Q

Explain the premorbid phase.

A

The presence of risk factors prior to the onset of psychosis, like viral infections in utero, or behavioural problems may be subtle markers of risk for psychosis.

117
Q

Define prodromal symptoms.

A

Milder symptoms prior to an acute phase of the disorder during which behaviours are unusual but not yet psychotic.

118
Q

What are the active symptoms of psychosis normally preceded by?

A

A period of gradual deterioration in the individual’s mental state and functioning.

119
Q

Explain the prodromal phase.

A

The preliminary period of change, preceding the onset of delusions, hallucinations and other symptoms of psychosis.

120
Q

What are acute psychotic episodes characterised by?

A

The emergence of persistent positive and negative symptoms.

121
Q

What is the DUP?

A

Duration of untreated psychosis.

122
Q

Give two reasons why there is a delay in seeking treatment in people experiencing psychosis.

A

The individual withdraws from others, and health professionals fail to accurately diagnose the disorder.

123
Q

The longer the DUP, the longer:

A

The patient’s symptoms take to improve with treatment.

124
Q

What may occur during the early recovery phase?

A

Problems with depression and social anxiety may emerge for the first time as the person reflects on their diagnosis.

125
Q

What recovery style is improved recovery most associated with?

A

An active effort to make sense of experiences and understand their vulnerability.

126
Q

Name some challenges that occur in the late recovery phase. (3)

A

Re-integrating into social, recreational and vocational pursuits.

127
Q

What is recurrence of psychotic symptoms associated with? (4)

A

Discontinuation of antipsychotic medication, the use of cannabis and amphetamines, poorer premorbid adjustment, and conflictual interpersonal relationships.

128
Q

Explain expressed emotion (EE).

A

A family interaction style in which family members are overly protective and self-sacrificing towards the person with a psychological disorder while also expressing high criticism and hostility.

129
Q

Name the three components of EE.

A

High levels of criticism, hostility, and emotional over-involvement.

130
Q

Give some characteristics of enduring psychosis. (2)

A

Periods of very acute symptoms that require hospitalisation, interspersed by continuing symptoms that do not fully disappear.

131
Q

What are more severe and persisting forms of psychosis associated with?

A

An earlier and more gradual onset of symptoms.

132
Q

Give some risk factors for enduring psychosis.

A

Co-occurrence of substance abuse and long standing personality traits, which may compromise the person’s ability to cope with stress.

133
Q

Name three cognitive processes affected by enduring psychosis.

A

Attention, memory and executive functioning.

134
Q

Explain the diathesis-stress model in the context of psychotic disorders.

A

A psychotic episode occurs when a triggering event interacts with an underlying vulnerability and overwhelms the coping resources of the individual.

135
Q

Describe an adoption study.

A

A study of the heritability of a disorder by finding adopted people with a disorder and then determining the prevalence of the disorder among their biological and adoptive relatives in order to separate contributing genetic factors from environmental factors.

136
Q

Describe a family study.

A

A study of the heritability of a disorder involving identifying people with a particular disorder and people without the disorder and then determining the disorder’s frequency within each person’s family.

137
Q

What is concordance rate?

A

The probability that both members of a twin pair will develop the same disorder.

138
Q

Family studies indicate that the risk of developing schizophrenia increases as what increases?

A

The degree of relatedness with an affected individual.

139
Q

Give the percentage of schizophrenia in children with two parents affected.

A

46.3%

140
Q

Give the percentage of schizophrenia in children with one parent affected.

A

9.4%

141
Q

Give the percentage of schizophrenia in children with grandparents affected.

A

2.8%

142
Q

What kinds of genetic structural variations occur in higher rates in people with psychotic disorders?

A

Microdeletions, or replications of genes that are known to play a role in neurodevelopment.

143
Q

Define neurotransmitters.

A

Biochemicals released from a sending neuron to a receiving neuron so as to transmit messages in the brain and nervous system.

144
Q

Explain the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.

A

Excessive dopaminergic function in the central nervous system is associated with the occurrence of schizophrenia.

145
Q

Give two pieces of evidence that support the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.

A

Drugs which reduce dopamine activity are effective in treating schizophrenia, and amphetamines, which release dopamine, can produce symptoms of schizophrenia.

146
Q

What proves that people with schizophrenia do not have higher levels of dopamine?

A

People with schizophrenia have the same amount of homovanillic acid as controls.

147
Q

What is homovanillic acid?

A

The major breakdown product of dopamine.

148
Q

How has the dopamine hypothesis been revised?

A

Schizophrenia is proposed to be associated with excessive numbers of or oversensitive dopamine receptors.

149
Q

How do enlarged ventricles contribute to psychosis?

A

They indicate a loss of brain tissue.

150
Q

Negative symptoms are associated with loss of grey and white matter in which brain area?

A

The prefrontal cortex.

151
Q

Explain how abnormalities in the hippocampus predate the onset of psychosis.

A

People with schizophrenia, but no prior family history, have a smaller left hippocampus, and people with chronic schizophrenia have smaller bilateral hippocampal size.

152
Q

Give some social factors that increase the chance of developing psychosis. (4)

A

Living in an urban environment, migration, being socially excluded and experiences of childhood abuse.

153
Q

The annual prevalence rates for schizophrenia in Maori individuals is ___ times higher than non-Maori’s.

A

Three.

154
Q

Why are racial and ethnic minorities more likely to develop psychosis?

A

Accumulated adverse social and environmental circumstances, like racial discrimination.

155
Q

How do cognitive models attempt to explain the development of psychosis?

A

Early experiences (like exposure to stress or trauma) result in dysfunctional cognition that trigger psychotic symptoms.

156
Q

What is the core of Morrison’s cognitive model for the development of positive psychotic symptoms.

A

Psychosis entails culturally unacceptable interpretations of intrusions into awareness, which are defined as thoughts, images or impulses that intrude upon consciousness and are uncontrollable.

157
Q

What does Morrison believe culturally unacceptable interpretations result from?

A

Faulty knowledge about the self and others, which is the result of life experiences.

158
Q

What is central to the development of psychosis in Morrison’s cognitive model?

A

The manner in which intrusions into awareness are interpreted.

159
Q

Give the final aspect of Morrison’s cognitive model.

A

Interpreting intrusions into awareness in a culturally unacceptable and typically distressing manner triggers responses that serve to increase the likelihood of further intrusions.

160
Q

Name some of Morrison’s counterproductive responses to intrusions into awareness. (5)

A

Disturbances in mood and physiological arousal, behaviours designed to keep the individual or others safe, selective attention, and attempting to suppress intrusive thoughts, images and impulses by pushing them out of consciousness.

161
Q

Name some triggering events in the development of psychosis.

A

Biological processes, psychosocial processes, or an interaction between the two.

162
Q

What is the pituitary?

A

A major endocrine gland that produces the largest number of different hormones and controls the secretions of other endocrine glands.

163
Q

What does a larger volume of the pituitary indicate?

A

Higher levels of stress hormones.

164
Q

What does the dysfunction in auditory imagery theory state?

A

Individuals prone to auditory hallucinations are able to imagine particularly vivid sounds, which are so lifelike they are mistaken for real sounds.

165
Q

What is the basis of the refined auditory imagery theory?

A

Hallucinating individuals typically experience deficits in the vividness of their auditory imagery so that when they experience unusually vivid auditory imagery, this is more likely to be confused for actual sound.

166
Q

What does Seal believe auditory hallucinations result from?

A

A dysfunction in verbal self-monitoring.

167
Q

Explain Seal’s theory of auditory hallucinations.

A

Auditory hallucinations stem from a breakdown in the individual’s ability to notice their intention to make internal speech, causing confusion between internally generated actions with externally generated actions.

168
Q

What evidence supports Seal’s theory of auditory hallucinations?

A

Hallucinating patients are more likely that non-hallucinating patients to misattribute their own speech to an external source when it is distorted in some way, which suggests they do not notice their intention to speak.

169
Q

Bentall and Fernyhough developed a model of hallucinations that integrates: (3)

A

Cognitive deficits with dysfunctional beliefs and environmental adversity.

170
Q

Explain Bentall and Fernyhough’s model of hallucinations.

A

Trauma may lead to increased susceptibility to intrusive and unwanted cognitive activity and that poor self-monitoring ability may result in trauma-related cognitions being misattributed to an external source.

171
Q

Where did Rossell and David find dysfunction and what was the result of this?

A

Dysfunction in the information storage system, or the normal connections between related terms that are stored closely together in memory is impaired, leading to retrieval problems.

172
Q

Give the Personal Assessment and Crisis Evaluations’s criteria for identifying individuals at high risk for psychosis. (4)

A

Less severe features of psychosis, transient psychotic symptoms, a substantial deterioration in general psychological functioning, and a family history of psychosis in a first-degree relative.

173
Q

Give an example of a less severe feature of psychosis.

A

An increase in suspicious thinking.

174
Q

Give an example of transient psychotic symptoms.

A

Auditory hallucinations that might appear intermittently for brief periods of time.

175
Q

What percentage of individuals defined as being at risk for psychosis via PACE develop psychosis within nine months?

A

40%

176
Q

What did two interventions did PACE find reduced the development of psychosis in high-risk individuals?

A

Early use of anti-psychotic medication and CBT.

177
Q

Give one advantage of using CBT as an intervention for high-risk individuals.

A

It avoids giving antipsychotic medications, which have serious side effects, to people who may not have psychosis.

178
Q

In the case of first-episode psychosis, what is the initial priority? (4)

A

Comprehensive assessment of mental state and physical health, family history, and presence of previous mental health issues.

179
Q

What is the most common treatment for acute psychosis?

A

Medication, antipsychotics or neuroleptics for positive symptoms, and benzodiazepines for sleep regulation and reducing anxiety.

180
Q

Name some commonly prescribed antipsychotics. (5)

A

Risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine and clozapine, as well as haloperidol.

181
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

A neurological disorder characterised by involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth or jaw, which can result from taking neuroleptic drugs.

182
Q

What is the relapse rate one year after hospitalisation among those who have discontinued their medication?

A

65%

183
Q

What medication is usually prescribed for people with long-term psychosis with persistent positive symptoms?

A

Alternative antipsychotic medications like clozapine.

184
Q

What does the consumer recovery model highlight? (6)

A

Hope, personal responsibility, empowerment, respect from the broader community, the resilience of the consumer, and the importance of peer support.

Psychopathology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions