Psychology / Sociology Flashcards
Top-down processing
beliefs, ideas, expectations guide perceptions
bottom-down processing
sensory input guides perception
Which psychophysiology concept determines how high the volume of the tone must be for participants to detect it roughly half the time
A) absolute threshold
B) difference threshold
C) just noticable difference
D) sensory adaptation
A) absolute threshold
Nonoverlapping confidence interval error bars
always imply a statisitcally significant difference between groups. The opposite is not always true
Researchers have identified a set of factors associated with an increased risk of developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, including low birth weight, respiratory infections before age 2 , low SES in childhood, adolescent smoking, and occupational exposure to airborne irritants as an adult.
This finding best reflects:
A) the sick role theory approach
B) the illness experience perspective
C) the social construction of chronic disease
D) the life course approach to illness
D) the life course approach to illness
The life course approach is a holistic, multidiscplinary framework for understanding how psychological, biological, and sociocultural factors across a lifetime have a cumulative effect on health outcomes
Common sense theory of emotion
Stimulus –> subjective epxerience of fear –> body response (arousal)
Report: “my heart is pounding because I am afraid”
James-Lange theory of emotion
stimulus –> body response (arousal) –> subjective experience of fear
“I am afraid because my heart is pounding”
Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
stimulus –> body response (arousal) + subjective experience of fear
“my heart is pounding and the wolf makes me feel afraid”
Schachter-Singer theory of emotion
stimulus –> body response (arousal) –> interpretation –> subjective experience
“my pounding heart signifies fear because I have appraised the situation as dangerous”
Which statement best identifies the promotion of false consciousness in popular media? A magazine article about heart disease in women that emphasizes the role of:
A) genetics in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of social influences on disease etiology
B) global inequalities in access to health care, which lead to growing disparities in mortality rates between nations
C) individual choices in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of systemic inequality in access to health care
D) social class inequalities in access to health care, which lead to unequal rates of heart disease among the wealthy and poor
C) individual choices in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of systemic inequality in access to health care
False consciousness: "This article is right: my poor health is entirely my fault." Class consciousness: "this article doesn't consider how much harder it is for people in my social class to see a doctor."
A study found that over time, compared to white immigrants, immigrants of color experience poorer health overall. The researchers hypothesized that these immigrants, while living in the US, are confronted with implicit and explicit negative messages about their outsider status as both a racial “minority” and as “immigrants,” which have a cumulative impact on their health. This hypothesisi is most related to which pair of factors?
A) intersectionality and racialization
B) cultural transmission and racialization
C) intersectionaly and stereotype threat
D) cultural transmission and stereotype threat
A) intersectionality and racialization
intersectionaltiy = describes how individuals hold multiple, interconnected, marginalized social identities that impact their lives, perspectives, and treatment in society
racialization = the process by which one group designates another group with a racial identity, often based on shared group qualities, such as physical attributes (skin color) or behaviors (religious practices). The designating group has more social power (dominant group) and exerts social control over the designated group, which has less social power (subordinate group)
Research has shown that when indiviudals consume the same food stimulus, they reach satiety faster compared to when they consume varied food stimuli. This finding suggestions that satieity, which involves a reduction in both physiological and behavioral responses to food stimuli, may be partly due to :
A) desensitization
B) habituation
C) operant conditioning
D) generalization
B) habituation
Appetitie and satiety are influened by internal and external cues. The research finding that when individuals consume the same food stimulus they reach satieity faster than when they consume varied food stimuli suggests that satiety may be partly due to habituation
Not desensitization. The research findings did not show an increased response followed by a decreased response
habituation
decreased response to a stimulus over time (no longer noticing that a sweater feels scratchy after wearing it for a few minutes)
dishabituation
a renewed response to a previously habituated stimulus (after taking off the sweater and putting it back on, it feels scratchy again
sensitizaiton
increased response to a stimulus over time (sweater’s scrachiness becomes more irritating until it is unbearable)
desensitization
decrease response to a previously sensitived stimulus over time (irritation from previously unbearable scratchiness diminishes over time)
In a two-part procedure for teaching children with diabetes to self-inject insulin, a child is first shown a video of same-aged peers self-injecting insulin and is then given a sticker for each attempt to self-inject. This procedure utilizes:
A) classical conditioning and secondary reinforcement
B) classical conditioning and a token economy
C) observational learning and a token economy
D) observational learning and secondary reinfocement
D) observational learning and secondary reinfocement
not a token economy because no trade
primary reinforcers
naturally rewarding (eg, candy)
secondary reinforcers
conditioned to be desirable (eg, candy)
Symptoms of a myocardial infarction can differ between individuals, Women who experienced a myocardial infarction were later interviewed by a researcher about their decision to seek treatment. Many participants noted they delayed seeking treatment because their symptoms didn’t match the prototypical heart attack symptoms they had seen in the media. Which concept best explains this phenomenon?
A) representative heuristic
B0 available heuristic
C) actor observer bias
D) hindsight bias
A) representative heuristic
availability heuristic
how easily something comes to memory (eg, assuming shark attacks are common after seeing one reported on the news)
representativeness heuristic
how well something matches a mental prototype (assuming a woman dressed in scrubs is a nurse rather than a surgeon)
A researcher is testing a patient’s neurological function. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient’s right visual field, he can correctly vocalize what he saw. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient’s left visual field, he is unable to saw what he saw but can correctly draw it. Which of the following is most likely damaged in this patient?
A) left retina
B) wernicke area
C) right occiptal crtex
D) corpus callosum
D) corpus callosum
Individuals with split-brain syndrmoe have a severed corpus callosum, preventing interhemispheric communication
Which best exemplifies instinctive drift?
A) childrne are born with a biological predispostion to prefer sweet foods and to dislike bitter foods, which are more likely to be toxic
B) in humans it is easier to condition a fear response to innately dangerous stimuli, such as snakes, than to harmless stimuli, such as rabbits
C) animals trained to perform a specific behavior will often lose that behavior in favor of innate behaviors, even when reinforcement is present
D) animals who become ill after one exposure to a noxiosu stimulus will quickly learn to avoid that stimulus in the future
C) animals trained to perform a specific behavior will often lose that behavior in favor of innate behaviors, even when reinforcement is present
role exit
indiviudal disengages from a social role, often replacing it with a new social role
Ex: a college student graduates and begins a full-time employment
Which statement most accurately applies the general adaptation syndrome to the stress associated with parentign children with disabilities (p. 1)
A) the stress resulting from the prejudice of others would not impact physiological processes because it is a social stressor
B) at the first onset of a child’s symptoms, parents increased resistance to stress
C) the physiological impact of parenting a child with a serious disability will be similar for all parents
D) as a child’s medical condition continues over a prolonged period, parents experienced decreased resistance to stress
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D) as a child’s medical condition continues over a prolonged period, parents experienced decreased resistance to stress
- Alarm : decreased resistance to stress
- Resistance : increased resistance to stress
- Exhaustion: decreased resistance to stress
The humanisitic psychotherapy peer mentor would habe been most likely to have participants focus on:
A) accepting the circumstances of their child’s condition and pursuing personal growth
B) replacing negative, maladaptive thoughts with positive, adaptive thoughs
C) uncovering unconscious conflicts and feelings about their child’s condition
D) treating underlying physiological causes of their depression before engaging in therapy
A) accepting the circumstances of their child’s condition and pursuing personal growth
cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
attempts to change negative thoughts / belieds (cognitions) & maladative behaviors
various techniques (eg, desensitization, self-talk) used to replace destructive thoughts/behaviors with healthy ones
psychanalytic therapy (talk therapY)
attempts to uncover how unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood shape behaviros
various technqiues (eg, free association, dream analysis) used to analyze unconscious
humanistic therapy ( person-centered therapy)
attempts to empower individual to move toward self-actualization
unconditional positive regard & empathy used to encourage client to reach full potential
A researcher criticizes Study 1, claiming that nonrepresentative sampling led to results that may not apply to many families of children with disabilities. This criticism is most concerned with:
A) internal validity
B) reliability
C) confounding variables
D) generalizability
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D) generalizability
internal validity
describes causality
if a change in the independent variable is really causing a change in the dependent variable
major threats to:
- confounding variables
- selection bias
- maturation
- repeated testing
- regression toward the mean
increases as the experiment becomes more tightly controlled
decreases as experiment becomes more like the real world
external validity
describes generalizability
if the observed relationship applies outside the experiment to another situation or other people
major threats to:
- artificial research environment
- nonrepresentative sample
- measurement effects
decreases as experiment becomes more tightly controlled
increases as experiment becomes more like the real world
Inclusive fitness theory
direct fitness (# of offspring an organism produces) + indirect fitness (# of relatives an organism aids through altruistic behavior) –> overall fitness (# of genes passed on to next generation)
defining features of bureaucracies
- division of labor : specialized employees increase efficiency
- hierachial organization : centralized authority and clear chain of command
- standardization : formal procedures and rules increase uniformity and continuity
- impersonal : same impersonal criteria applied to all increase equality
secure attachment
- develops from sensitive, responsive caregivers
- infants readily explore a new environment when caregiver is near
- infants are distressed by a caregiver leaving and comforted on return
- associated with better long-term effects (more satisfaction in adult relationships, greater health outcomes)
insecure attachment
- develops from insensitive, unresponsive caregivers
- in a new environment, infants are apathetic or overly clingy toward caregiver
- infants are indifferent to, or not comforted by, a caregiver’s return
- associated with worse long-term effects (less satisfaction in adult relationships, worse health outcomes)
Which scenario best illustrates dishabitation? An ICU nurse:
A) finds the beeping from medical monitors increasingly annoying over time
B) no longer notices the beeping from medical monitors over time
C) ignores the background noise of medical monitors beeping but notices and responds to a critical alarm
D) no longer noticed the beeping from medical monitors before vacation but notices it again upon returning to work
D) no longer noticed the beeping from medical monitors before vacation but notices it again upon returning to work
factors correlated with increased obedience
- personal factors
status: lower status, less power - situational factors
proximity: authority figure is closer, victim is farther away
legitimacy: authority figure seems more legitimate, prestigious
consensus: everyone else is obeying - cultural factors
collectivism: societies that value the group over the individual
normative organization
membership is based on shared goals and/or values
utilitarian organization
membership is driven by compensation (eg money or certification/diplomas)
coercive organization
membership is not freely chosen and/or maintained
dissociative identity disorder
presence of two or more distinct personalities; amnesia
dissociative amnesia
inability to recall important authobiographical information
Cluster A personality disorders
Odd/ecentric
Paranoid
Schizoid
Schizotypal
Cluster B personality disorders
Dramatic/emotional/erratic
Antisocial
borderline
histrionic
narcissistic
cluster c personality disorders
anxious/fearful
avoidant
dependent
obsessive-compulsive
somatic symptom disorder
extreme concern regarding one or more physical symptoms (eg fatigue, pain)
conversion disorder
“neurological symptoms” (eg paralysis, blindness) that are not explainable by a medical condition
illness anxiety disorder
preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious disease (eg HIV, cancer)
factitious disorder
symptoms or illness are intentionally fabricated without obvious external gain (eg disability benefits)
functionalism
society = an organism
each part of society works to maintain dynamic equilibrium (homeostasis)
macrosociology
functionalism theorists
emile durkheim, talcott parsons
conflict theory
soceity = struggle for limited resources
inequality based on social class
macrosociology
conflict theory theorists
karl marx, max weber
social constructionism theory
social actors define what is real
knowledge about world based on interactions
macro or micro sociology
symbolic interactionism
meaning and value attached to symbols
individual interactions based on these symbols
microsociology
symbolic interactionism theorists
charles cooley, george herbert mead
rational choice / social exchange theory
individual behaviors and interactions attempt to maximize personal gain and minimize personal cost
microsociology
feminist theory
examines gender inequality in society
macro or micro sociology
denial
inability or refusal to recognize unacceptable thoughts/behaviors
EX: insisting one is not angry when actually angry
projection
attributing unacceptable thoughts/behaviors to someone or something else
EX: calling the sidewalk stupid after tripping
rationalization
making excuses for unacceptable thoughts/behaviors
ex: justifying cheating because the course is impossible
regression
behaving as if much younger to avoid unacceptable thoughts/behaviors
ex: moving back in with parents to avoid personal responsibilities
repression
blocking unacceptable thoughts/behaviors from consciousness
ex: being unaware of a traumatic past experience
displacement
taking out unacceptable thoughts/behaviros on a safe target
ex: punching a pillow when angry at parents
sublimation
transforming unacceptable thoughts/behaviors into acceptable ones
ex: taking up boxing as a way to channel one’s anger
reaction formation
behaving in a manner opposite unacceptable thoughts/behaviors
ex: expressing love for a person one despises
escape learning
current undesirable stimulus removed
ex: teenager fakes illness while doing dishes, gets to stop
avoidance learning
future undesirable stimulus prevented
ex: teenager stays late at school to avoid evening chores
At an inpatient hospital, patients are encouraged to engage in certain behaviors through reinforcement. Each time a patient engages in a desired behavior, they are given a secondary reinforcer, which can be exchanged for more attractive rewards. This scenario illustrates which of the following?
A) modeling
B) classical conditioning
C) token economy
D) stimulus generalizaiton
C) token economy
Which of the following sets of symptoms is most consistent with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder? A 39 year old man who reports:
A) difficulty sleeping, fatigue, low appetite, and loss of interest in activities he previously enjoyed
B) repeated surges of overwhelming anxiety with racing heart, difficulty breathing, sweating, and a fear that he is losing his mind
C) an exaggerated startle response, nightmares, avoidance of certain situations, and negative thoughts and moods
D) difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, fatigue, and worry about his health, finances, and family
D) difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, fatigue, and worry about his health, finances, and family
widespread worry and multiple physical symptoms
generalized anxiety disorder
- excessive, uncontrollable worry about a range of topics
- muscle tension; difficulty concentrating or sleeping, feeling restless, fatigued, or irritable
panic disorder
-repeated, uncontrollable, and predictable panic attacks (ie overwhelming surges of anxiety that peak within minutes)
specific phobia
excessive, irrational fear of a specific situation (eg, flying) or animal/object (eg, spiders)
social anxiety disorder / social phobia
intense fear of scrutiny or rejection in social situations (eg public speaking, asking someone on a date)
Demographic Transition Model Stage 1
In preindustrial societies, birth and death rates are both high and population growth is slow
Demographic Transition Model stage 2
as societies begin to industrialize, death rates drop as food/medicine availability and sanitation increase, and population growth is rapid
Demographic Transition Model Stage 3
As societities urbanization, the population continues to grow, but birth rates begin to decline as access to contraception increases
Demographic Transition Model Stage 4
in developed societies, birth and death rates are both low and population growth is slow
Demographic Transition Model stage 5
for highly developed societies with very low birth rates, the population may decline
Population pyramid of a population that is most likely to decrease in size in near future
peak population at age 15, thin out as age increases and decreases
expanding population pyramids
broad bases (lots of younger people) and narrow tops (few older people) and are characteristic of developing countries with high birth/death rates and an increasing population size
stationary population pyramids
broad bases and broad tops, characteristic of developed countries with low birth/death rates and a stable population size
contracting population pyramids
narrower bases than midlines and are characteristic of developed countries with very low birth rates and a gradually population size
A survey of medical students found that most believe the surgical specialty has its own clearly defined “masculine” subculture, and that to succeed as surgeons, individuals need to “adopt masculine characteristics.” These beliefs best reflect which aspect of surgical medical education?
A) teacher expectancy
B) manifest functions
C) hidden curriculum
D) material culture
C) hidden curriculum
stimulants
speeds up CNS function, elevates mood
ex: amphetamines, cocaine
depressants
slows down CNS function
EX; alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazapines
narcotic analgesics “painkillers”
lessen sensation of pain
Ex: morphine, codeine, heroin
hallucinogens
triggers mind-altering effects
ex: lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Which of the following scenarios best represents intragenerational vertical mobility?
A) an hourly wage employee has a son who becomes a neurosurgeon
B) a cardiologist loses her medical license and struggles to find a new job
C) a general surgeon in Denver moves his surgical practice to Dallas
D) a dentist inherits his mother’s dental practice
B) a cardiologist loses her medical license and struggles to find a new job
intragenerational horizontal mobility
no change in status
ex: doctor moves her practice from Atlanta to Chicago
intragenerational upward mobility
increase in social status , 1 generation
ex: after 10 years, nurse goes back to school to earn MD
intragenerational downward mobility
decrease in social status, 1 generation
ex: doctor loses license to practice medicine
intergenerational horizontal mobility
no change in status, 2+ generations
ex: son of doctors becomes a doctor
intergenerational upward mobility
increase in social status, 2+ generations
ex: son of high school dropouts becomes a doctor
intergenerational downward mobility
decrease in social status, 2+ generations
ex: son of doctors becomes a high school dropout
caste system
- individual social status is ascribed from birth
- social groupings are rigid
- social mobility is very difficult
class system
- individual social status is at least partially achieved through merit (eg, ability, hard work)
- social groupings are flexible/fluid
- social mobility is possible
A patient who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed a neuroleptic medication. Which of the following symptoms, if present, is this medication most likely to improve?
A) apathy
B) inability to experience pleasure
C) emotional flattening
D) disorganized speech
D) disorganized speech
neuroleptic / antipsychotic mediations are effective in reducing positive symptoms
in-group
group to which an indiviudal identifies and belongs, others in in-group viewed favorable
out-group
group to which an individual does not identify or belong, out-group members viewed unfavorably
reference group
comparison group to which an individual compares self, individual may or may not belong to this group
primary group
group of individuals who are emotionally close, smaller in size, high degree of interaction (eg family)
secondary group
group of individuals who come together to accomplish something, larger in size, more impersonal (eg, coworkers)
Compared to women’s social networks, men’s social networks tend to be larger, have more weak ties, and provide more information about work-related topics; therefore men’s social networks most likely confer
A) less social capital and less social mobility
B) more social capital and more social mobility
C) less social capital but more social mobility
D) more social capital but less social mobility
B) more social capital and more social mobility
social networks = informal and nonhierachial webs of interaction bewteen nodes, with are linked by ties. Nodes can be individuals or organizations. Ties describe the connections between the nodes and are defined as strong or weak. Weak ties are loose/flimsy connections, such as those between acquaintances, whereas stronge ties are more solid connections, such as those between family and close friends
social capital = persons network that can be converted into economic gain. men’s networks are larger and provide more information about work-related topics, such as where there are job openings or promotion possibilities. Therefore, men’s networks connections confer more social capital because these connections can be more easily converted into economic gain
social mobility = movement of individuals, groups, or families between or within status categories in society (eg, from middle class to upper class). By providing more social captial (potential economic gain), men’s networks also provide more social mobility
Standardized protocols, patient checklists, and clinical guidelines are meant to increase efficiency, calculability, predictability, and control in the clinical setting. However, critics of standardizing medicine suggest that these sort of practices may lead to :
A) a manifest function of medical care
B) the McDonaldization of health care
C) an increase in the cultural capital of doctors
D) a decrease in the ascribed status of patients
B) the McDonaldization of health care
McDonaldization
Efficiency
- intended to increase optimization
- unintended result is decrease in individuality
- fast food ex: customer orders at register and cleans own table
- med ex: patient goes to a “minute clinic” for specific concerns
calculability
- intended to increase quantity
- unintended result is decrease in quality
- fast food ex: increased amount of food can be purchased
- med ex: increased number of patient can be seen
predictability
- intended to increase uniformity and standardization
- unintended result is decrease in uniqueness
- fast food ex: all restaurant chains appear the same, have the same products
- med ex: standardized patient checklists make appointments uniform
control
- increase in automation
- unintended result is decrease in skilled workforce
- fast food ex: pre-prepared frozen food
- med ex: electronic patient portals allow patients to see test results
modernization
the social progress and transition of a society brougt about by industrialzation. This process results in a society becoming less traditional and more bureaucratized, with a reduction in the importance of religion
secularization
reduced power of religion as religious involvement declines
fundamentalism
renewed commitment to traditional religion as a reaction to secularization
What prediction is compatible with the sociologist’ assertion in the fourth paragraph? The increase of medicalization will result in medical professionals having:
A) greater power and authority
B) reduced power and authority
C) greater authority, but no effect on their power
D) greater power, but no effect on authority
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A) greater power and authority
As medicalization increases in a society, individuals will increasinfly rely on medical professionals, rather than clergy, as legitmate sources of guidance on lifestyle behaviors. Therefore, medical professionals will have more power (ie, influence on people) and authority, as that power will be seen as legitimate
Alternative hypothesis
based on prior evidence and assumes that a significant relationship or difference exists between variables (and often predicts the nature of that relationship or difference)
null hypothesis
states that there is no significant difference or relationship between the variables measured
Erikson’s stage : 0-1
- infancy
- conflict: trust vs mistrust
- resolution: ability to have faith in others
Erikson’s stage : 1-3
- early childhood
- conflict: autonomy vs shame/doubt
- resolution: sense of self-control and independence
Erikson’s stage : 3-6
- play age
- initiative vs guilt
- resolution: ability to take initiative with peers
Erikson’s stage : 6-12
- school age
- conflict: initiative vs guilt
- resolution: sense of confidence in skills and abilities
Erikson’s stage : 12-20
- adolescence
- conflict: identity vs confusion
- resolution: sense of self-identiy
Erikson’s stage : 20-40
- early adulthood
- conflict: intimacy vs isolation
- resoltuion: ability to commit to and love others
Erikson’s stage : 40-65
- middle age
- conflict: generativity vs stagnation
- resolution: concern for others and society
Erikson’s stage : >65
- old age
- conflict: integrity vs despair
- resolution: sense of accomplishment and fulfillment
A feminist theories would be most interested in which of the following?
A) equalizing pay between females in pink-collar and blue-collar occupations
B) removing barriers to entry in all occupations for females
C) creating more access for males in pink-collar occupations
D) balancing the percentage of females in males within each occupation
B) removing barriers to entry in all occupations for females
Not D because balancing the numbers would seem to remove career choice, which is not a feminist goal. Removing the barriers so that all occuptations become legitimate options for females would be the feminist focus
mechanoreceptors
- detect movement
- stimuli: sound waves, touch
- ex: hair cells (ear)
chemoreceptors
- detects chemicals
- stimuli: molecules, solutes
- ex: taste buds (tongue)
thermoreceptors
- detects temperature
- stimuli: heat, cold
- ex: skin
photoreceptors
- detects light waves
- stimuli: visible light
- ex: rods, cones (retina)
sensorimotor stage
- <2 years
- experiencing the environment via senses and actions
- object permanence
- stranger anxiety
pre-operational stage (piaget)
- age 2-7
- representing real things with words and images
- pretend play
- egocentrism
- language development
concrete operational (piaget)
- age 7-11
- thinking logically about concrete events
- grasping concrete analogies
- performing arithmetic
- conservation
- mathematical transformation
formal operation (piaget)
- age >12
- thinking about hypothetical scenarios
- grasping abstract thought
- abstract logic
- moral reasoning develops
folkways
ex: wearing clothes backward
- least deviant
- minor punishments (eg, staring)
mores
ex: wearing no clothes in public
- more deviant
- more serious punishment (eg, arrest)
taboos
ex: incest, suicide
- most deviant
- most serious punishment (eg, incarceration)
ascribed status
assigned social position (eg, race)
achieved status
attained social position (eg, doctor)
master status
dominant social position (eg, ex-convict)
stereotypes
generalized beliefs (good or bad) about social groups , based on cognition
prejudice
negative belief & feeling about someone based on membership in a social group, based on emotion
Besides reducing stereotype threat, the presence of a cultural liasion during a doctor’s appointment increases:
A) the number of group members, making groupthink more likely
B) the number of group members, making group polarization more likely
C) the number of social ties, making the group more stable
D) the number of social ties, making the group more intimate
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C) the number of social ties, making the group more stable
dyad
- 2 members
- 1 social tie
- more intimate
- group ceases to exist if one member withdraws
triad
- 3 membres
- up to 3 social ties
- one member can leave and group still exists
tetrad
- 4 members
- up to 6 social ties
- tends to be the least stable
- will usually split into 2 groups of 2
larger groups
- 5+ members
- many social ties
- social processes may occur (eg, groupthink, social loafing)
A researcher wants to train a mouse to run on an exercise wheel. the LEAST effective way to train this new behavior would involve
A) rewarding the mouse at first for touching the wheel, then for climbing on it, then for running on it
B) providing reinforcement every 5 minutes, as long as the mouse runs on the wheel at some point during that time
C) first depriving the mouse of food for 24 hours, then using food pellets as a reward
D) providing positive reinforcement each time the mouse runs on the exercise wheel
B) providing reinforcement every 5 minutes, as long as the mouse runs on the wheel at some point during that time
A fixed-interval reinforcement schedule is not an optimal way to train an animal to perform a new behavior because it is more difficult for the animal associate the desired behavior with the reward
A woman who wants a baby but is opposed to using medical intervention to become pregnant is informed by her doctor that she will never conceive without medical intervention. Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that this woman is most likely to do all of the following, except:
A) seek a second opinion from another doctor
B) change her attitude about using medical intervention to become pregnant
C) accept her doctor’s diagnosis while maintaining her own opposition to medical intervention
D) decide that she does not want to have a baby
C) accept her doctor’s diagnosis while maintaining her own opposition to medical intervention
this action would maintain the dissonance
preparatory stage: theory of the social self (george herbert mead)
- infancy, toddler
- imitation: often lacks understanding
- “i”
play stage: theory of the social self (george herbert mead)
- preschool age
- role-taking: taking on role of specific others
- transitioning from “i” to “me”
game stage: theory of the social self (george herbert mead)
- school age
- generalized other: understanding all roles & overarching rules
- “me”
Before Sarah sought therapy, her cleaning rituals acted as:
A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) positive punishment
D) negative punishment
B) negative reinforcement
undesirable stimulus is removed, encourages behavior to happen again
Sarah’s cleaning rituals act as negative reinforcement because she experienced a reduction in anxeity (ie removal of an undesirable stimulus) after performing cleaning rituals, leading her to perform the cleaning rituals more often (behavior increases)
A conditioned fear response during phase 2 occurs as a result of which type of memory?
A) implicit memory
B) procedural memory
C) explicit memory
D) semantic memory
A) implicit memory
emotional/reflexive
Based on the passage and the principles of taste aversion, which strategy should physicians suggest to their patients undergoing chemotherapy? On the day of chemotherapy, patients should
A) pair their favorite foods with a novel beverage
B) eat their favorite foods several hours before chemo treatment
C) only consume favorite beverages, not water
D) avoid eating their favorite foods entirely
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D) avoid eating their favorite foods entirely
This strategy will prevent patients from developing a taste aversion to these foods. If a favored food is consumed prior to the experience of nausea (resulting from chemo), it is possible that the food will be permanently associated with the nausea
In a follow up to study 2, the control participants returend to the chemotherapy room to fill out surveys every day for a week after their final chemo treatment. By the end of the week, particiants anticipatory nausea had significantly decreased. This initiates which phenomenon?
A) acquistion
B) stimulus
C) extinction ‘
D) spontaneous recovery
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C) extinction
If the control participants repeatedly return to the chemotherapy room to fill out surveys, they would experience the conditioned stimulus (ie, the room, equipment) in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus (chemotherapy medication) which should result in a reduction of the conditioned resposne (ie, AN)
If the survey from Study 3 that assessed the patients’ level of AN was determined to be reliable, which of the following statements is true:
A) researchers can confidently extrapolate from study 3 to all patients with cancer
B) survey administration is consistent across medical settings
C) the survey is an accurate measure of nausea symptoms
D) nausea scores on the survey will be similar from one survey administration to the next
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D) nausea scores on the survey will be similar from one survey administration to the next
randomized controlled trial
- experimental
- random allocation into treatment & placebo groups
- can determine efficacy of the intervention
nonrandomized design
- nonrandom allocation into treatment and placebal groups
- can determine efficacy of the intervention
- experimental
longitudinal
- observational
- data gathered at multiple time points
- can assess risk factors or outcomes
cross-sectional
observational
- data gathered at one point in time
- can determine prevalence of an outcome in a population
case-control
- observational
- data gathered from individuals with the condition of interest (cases) and compared to individuals without the condition (controls)
case study
- observational
- detailed information gathered about one individual (or a small group of individuals)
meta-analysis
- review
- data from multiple studies are statistically combined and analyzed
sick role theory (talcott parsons)
rights
- exemption from normal social roles and responsibilities
- lack of accountability for illness
obligations
- must attempt to get well
- must seek and comply with treatment
The biomedical approach to mental illness is best demonstrated by:
A) the systematic underdiagnosis of BD by the medical community
B) pharmaceutical companies attempting to raise awareness about BD
C) BD patients’ inability to recognize symptoms of mania as problematic
D) proactive strategies encouraging self-identification of manic symptoms
B) pharmaceutical companies attempting to raise awareness about BD
activity approach to aging
remaining physically and socially active improves quality of life for older adults
continuity approach to aging
older adults attempt to maintain the habits and behaviors from their youth
disengagement approach to aging
older adults withdraw from social relationships/society as society withdraws from them
life course theory
aging viewed holistically in terms of social, biological, cultural, and psychological contexts
fertility rate
measure of the number of people being added to a given population through birth (as opposed to immigration)
total fertility rate
the average number of children born per woman during her lifetime
The interactionist theory of language development suggests that
A) praise for speaking a new word reinforces young children to say that word again
B) children who are deprived of language exposure early in life are unable to achieve full fluency
C) young children are unable to think about concepts for which they have not yet learned the words
D) innate factors combined with contact between children and their caregivers produce language
D) innate factors combined with contact between children and their caregivers produce language
learning perspective of language
language acquisition learned via operant conditioning, language imitation and practice
nativist perspective of language
language acquisition is innate and biologically predetermined
-occurs during a critical (time-sensitive) period early in life
interactionist perspective of language
language acquisition is biological (due to normal brain development) and social (due to interaction, reinforcement, desire/motivation to communicate)
Which of the following best explains the role of social facilitation in accounting for the results of Study 2?
A) Individuals perfrom more efficiently when they know they are being observed compared to when they know they are not being observed
B) individuals prefer to perform familiar tasks in the presence of others but unfamiliar tasks when alone
C) An indivudal’s performance is less predictable when acting in the presence of others than when acting alone
D) the impact that the presence of others has on an individual’s performance depends on the nature of the task
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D) the impact that the presence of others has on an individual’s performance depends on the nature of the task
social facilitation : enhanced performance of familiar tasks
social impairment: impaired performance of unfamiliar tasks
A researcher in Study 1 beleives the results are due to deindividuation. Is this conclusion justified?
A) No, because races in which individuals are being timed do not impair personal responsibility
B) No, because bicycle races do not involve groups that are large enough to influence behavior
C) Yes, because large bicycle races induce feelings of anonymity among competitiors
D) Yes, because team competition reduces one’s sense of personal identity
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A) No, because races in which individuals are being timed do not impair personal responsibility
Dramaturgical approach to understanding behavior
Front-stage self
- behavior in social situation s
- “actor” performs based on expectations of the “audience”
- impression management: meant to shape perceptions of others
- focus on appearance, manners, and social status
Back-stage self
- behavior in private
- “actor” can relax and no longer needs to perform
- behavior is spontaneous and free from evaluation or judgement by others
To test whether the process of deliberation described in the passage had its hypothesized effect (paragraph 3) , researchers would need to operationalize which dependent variable?
A) deliberation
B) patient’s weight
C) psychological reaction
D) number of options presented to the patient
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C) psychological reaction
Not B - hypothesis was deliberation would result in the reduction or avoidance of psychological reactance, not weight loss
How would incentive theory explain a patient’s motivation for continuing to smoke?
A) smoking is a more immediate external motivator than the reward of future health
B) smokers are motivated to continue smoking due to a physical addiction to nicotine
C) smokers are internally motivated to preserve their freedom to smoke
D) smoking reduces undesirable with-drawl symptoms
A) smoking is a more immediate external motivator than the reward of future health
incentive theory: external, positive rewards motivate behavior
Korsakoff syndrome
Symptoms
- Memory loss
- Confabulation (memory fabrication without the intension to lie)
Causes
-Extreme thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency resulting from chronic alcohol consumption, eating disorders and/or chronic malnutrition
treatment/prognosis
-vitamin B1 supplementation can reverse most/all symptoms if caught early
Matching healthy control group in terms of age, gender, and premorbid IQ was meant to account for all of the following except:
A) biological factors that affect cognition
B) influence of environment on cognitive development
C) cognitive changes that occur in late adulthood
D) correlation between types of intelligence
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B) influence of environment on cognitive development
Central executive
- Working memory
- regulates attention and task switching
visuospatial sketchpad
- working memory
- employed when manipulating visual and/or spatial information
phonological loop
- working memory
- employed when manipulating spoken and written information
episodic buffer
- working memory
- responsible for temporal processing (understanding the timeline of events) and integrating information from long-term memory into working memory (eg, remembering how to multiply when figuring out a tip at a restaurant)
Researchers designed the two distraction conditions to require multitasking and predicted that the hands-free conversation condition would be less distracting than the texting condition because of:
A) task dissimilarity
B) the cocktail party effect
C) the interference effect
D) speech shadowing
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A) task dissimilarity
divided attention / multitasking
task similarity
- easy: dissimilar tasks (listening to an audiobook while running)
- hard: similar tasks (listening to audiobook while writing a paper)
task difficulty
task practice
personal identity
intragroup: different from other in-group members
- defined by one’s self
- experience self as an individual
social identity
- intergroup: different from out-group members
- defined by society
- experience self as a member of a group
EEG / electroencephalogram
- electrodes placed on scalp and connected to an amplifier
- measures voltage fluctuations in the brain over time
CT / computerized tomography
- computer combines multiple x-rays taken at different angles
- measures detailed structure of internal organs & tissues at a single point in time
functional magnetic resonance imaging / fMRI
- scanner detects the differential properties of oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin
- changes in blood oxygenation in the brain over time
positron emission tomography (PET)
- scanner detects radioactive tracer attached to a glucose analog
- changes in glucose metabolism in the brain over time
On the implicit association test, faster response times when pairing negative traits with less sex catagorized faces most plausibly reflect:
A) dissonance
B) social stigma
C) discrimination
D) functional fixedness
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B) social stigma
Long-term potentiation
describes the neural changes responsible for learning, memory, and associations. Occurs when a neuron’s firing rate increases after repeated stimulation or simultaneous stimulation by multiple inputs (association). LTP results from an increase in neurotransmitter release and postsynaptic receptors
consanguineal kinship
based on genetic relationship (eg, biological parents)
affinal kinship
based on marriage (spouses)
fictive kinship
social ties that are not consanguineal or affinal (eg, adoptive children)
emotional support
love, affection, intimacy
esteem support
encouragement, confidence
tangible support
money, resources, food, a place to sleep when needed
informational support
advice, information
companionship support
mere presence, sharing in an activity
Sigmund Freud
- personality
- psychosexual development
- five psychosexual stages, focused on childhood
- unresolved childhood conflict impacts adult personality
erik erikson
- personality
- psychosocial develpoment
- eight psychosocial stages throughout life
- unresolved crisis at any age impacts adult personality
len vygotsky
- cognition
- sociocultural development
- child’s cognitive development based on social interaction
jean piaget
- cognition
- cognitive development
- four universal stages of childhood cognitive development
- cognitive development is based on age
lawrence kohlberg
- -moral development
- six stages of lifespan moral development
- most individuals do not progress past stage 3 or 4
three components of attitude
- affective (feelings about object)
- cognitive (beliefs about object)
- behavioral (behaviors related to object)
expectancy theory of motivation
- expectancy: belief that one will be able to achieve the desired outcome
ex: asking participants to rate how successful they will be - instrumentality : belief that one has control over the desired outcome
ex: asking participants to rate how much control they believe they have over their success - valence: value they placed on the desired outcome
ex: asking participants to rate how much they want to lose weight
Normative social influence is most likely to arise in the group
A) containing several members who have expertise regarding cancer
B) composed of all females from the same university
C) with an assigned group spokesperson
D) whose members are the most disparate in SES
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B) composed of all females from the same university
social influence when an individual conforms to fit in or avoid rejection by others
normative social influence
- individual conforms in order to fit in, gain approval, avoid disapproval/rejection
- most likely to occur when individual identifies with group members, wants to be accepted by the group
informational social influence
- individual conforms due to uncertainty of what to do, believing others know what to do
- most likely to occur when individual views other group members as experts
groupthink
causes
- biased leadership
- high group cohesiveness
- homogenity of group members
- stressful decision, external threats
- insulation from alternative viewpoints
group-characteristics
- closed-mindedness
- opposition demonized
- members pressured to conform
- dissent self-censored, suppressed
- overestimation of group power, group morality
causes of social loafing
- diffusion of responsibility: as group size increases, individuals feel less responsible for the success of the group
- lack of motivation: individuals perceive their efforts as less influential on the overall group performance
- avoidance of over-effort : no one wants to be the hardest working member of the group without being rewarded accordingly
- lack of oversight : without an arbiter recording each person’s effort, individuals feel able to get by with minimal effort
- non-cohesive group: when group members lack a sense of cohesion, social loading is more likely to occur
kohlberg’s preconventional stage
direct consequences to the individual
- obedience and punishment (avoiding punishment by authority, ex: i’m not going to steal because I’ll get spanked)
- self-interest (expecting equal exchange to further own self-interest, ex: i’ll help you if you help me)
kohlberg’s conventional stage
society’s norms and values
- conformity and interpersonal accord (wanting to be good to secure the approval of others, ex: I’ll do my homework so the teacher likes me)
- law and order (obeying laws of society, ex: i’m going to speed because it’s against the law)
kohlberg’s post-conventional stage
own ethical principles
- social contract (maxmizing benefit for the largest amount of people, ex: it’s okay to break a law if it saves a life
- universal ethical principles (following own ethical principle of justice above all else, ex: i take action against laws violating basic human rights)
symbolic culture
nonmaterial aspects of society used to communicate and convey meaning
ex: folklore, values, laws
material culture
physical items valued by society
ex: clothing, tools, computers
cultural transmission
passing on of information from an older generation to a younger generation
ex: a child learns how to cook from a parent
cultural diffusion
spreading of culture from one group to another
ex: people in the US celebrate cinco de mayo
Identity diffusion
low commitment, low exploration
people at this level lack direction, have not explored options, and have not committed to a particular career path or futre
identity foreclosure
high commitment, low exploration
people at this level have accepted an identity that they have been assigned (typically by a parent or authority figure) without contemplation or exploration
identity moratorium
low comittment, high exploration
people at this level are still trying new activities and thinking about a career path, but have not yet arrived at a decision
identity achievement
high commitment, high exploration
people at this level have explored their options and typically feel confident about who they are and what they want to do in their future
fluid intelligence
ability to apply logic and creative thinking to new situations
-decreases with age
crytstallized intelligence
ability to apply facts and acquired knowledge to situations
episodic memory
ex: buying first car, first day of college
decreases with age
flashbulb memory
ex: where you were during 9/11
decreases with age
source memory
ex: what news source reported the story, who announced the information
declines with age
stable with age
semantic memory
ex: names of people, colors, vocabulary
procedural memory
ex: riding a bike, driving a car, serving a tennis ball
stable with age
If the researchers in the third study wanted to test the influence of aging on context-dependent memory effects, they could:
A) show the faces to the older participants in one room, then move half of these participants to a new room to identify faces
B) show the faces to all participants in one room, then move half of the participants in each group to a new room to identify faces
C) provide background information about the faces to half of the older adult participants while faces are being memorized
D) provide background information about the faces to half of participants in each age group while faces are being memorized
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B) show the faces to all participants in one room, then move half of the participants in each group to a new room to identify faces
Context refers to the physical environment in which the original learning took place or the original memory was encoded. Context-dependent memory helps to explain. why, when you meet people in one context (eg, in class) and then run into them in another context (eg, at Starbucks), you may have trouble remembering their names or how you know them
In this example, if participants are first exposed to images of faces in one room, they are more likely to recognize those same faces if they are in the same room rather than if they are in a different room.
The design must be performed on participants from both age groups so that this effect can be compared. In this way, context-dependnet memory effects in the younger adults will serve as a baseline to determine the influence of aging on context-dependent memory effects
D) not D because background information or context would not influence context-dependent memory, which applies to the context in which memory is acquired and retrieved
Positive reinforcement
desirable stimulus added to encourage behavior
Ex: toddler gets candy for using the toilet
positive punishment
undesirable stimulus added to DISCOURAGE behavior
ex: toddler gets spanked for running into the street
negative reinforcement
undesirable stimulus taken away to encourage behavior
ex: teenager doesn’t have to do chores after getting all A’s
negative punishment
desirable stimulus TAKEN AWAY to discourage behavior
ex: teenager gets grounded for getting bad grades
fixed ratio
consistent, based on responses
reinforcement after consistent number of behaviors
rapid response rate, short pause after reward
variable ratio
behavior rewarded after an inconsistent number of responses, usually after some AVERAGE number of responses.
Ex: AVG3 (400547) schedule might provide a reward after four correct responses, then after two, then after three, and so on
rapid, steady response rate, most resistant to extinction
Fixed interval
behavior rewarded after a consistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred.
EX: exmployees who are paid a weekly salary receive the same amount of money each Friday regardless of how hard they have worked during the week
slower response rate after reward, faster response rate right before
variable interval
behavior rewarded after an inconsistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred.
EX: when awaiting an email, the frequency with which users refresh their in-boxes does not affect when a new email arrives
slow, and steady response rate, resistant to extinction
Suppose one of the participants in Study 1 earned several candy bars and became very ill after consuming them. This participant would most likely:
A) avoid participating in any future research studies
B) avoid playing computer games for awhile until she feels better
C) develop a long-lasting aversion to the specific candy bars she consumed
D) develop a short-term aversion to the candy bars available during the study
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C) develop a long-lasting aversion to the specific candy bars she consumed
aversions continue long-term!
central route of processing
- high-interest receiver
- deep processing of the message
- route of persuading: lasting attitude or behavior change
peripheral route of processing
- appeals to the low-ability receiver
- superficial processing of the message
- temporary attitude or behavior change
Which of the following cognitive biases is most analogous to the self-positivity bias?
A) actor-observer bias
B) confirmation bias
C) optimism bias
D) overconfidence bias
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C) optimism bias
Self-positivity bias, as described in passage, occurs when people believe they are less vulnerable to negative outcomes than other people
Optimism bias: describes the tendency for people to underestimaate the probability that bad things (eg, cancer, car accident) will happen to them. The two cognitive biases are most similar because each describes the human prediction for miscalculating the likelihood that adverse events will impact them
D) not overconfidence bias! This occurs when the degree to which people are sure of their belief is greater than the accuracy of that believe (ie, people overestimate their subjective knowledge compared to objective facts)
counterbalancing
used to control for the potential effects that the order of intervention administration may have on the results
ex: if participants were given two different interventions, A and B, a counterbalancing measure would involve separating participants into two groups, one receiving intervention A first, and the other receiving intervention B first
* if only one type of intervention used, then counterbalancing measures are not required
type I error
rejecting true null hypothesis , leads to the incorrect conclusion that there is a difference between groups (false positive
fail to reject null hypothesis
correctly concluded there is no difference
reject null hypothesis
correctly conclude that there is a true difference
type II error
false negative:
falsely conclude there is no difference
id
selfish, compelling us to seek pleasure and avoid pain
ego
realistic, compelling us to behave in ways that are socially acceptable, and acts as a mediator between the id and the superego
superego
moralistic and idealistic, compelling us toward perfection
parasomnias
disorders involving abnormal function of the nervous system during sleep
- most likely to occur in childhood
- ex: somnambulism, night terrors
dyssomnias
- disorders involving difficulty falling/staying asleep, poor sleep quality, inappropriate sleep timing
- most likely to occur during adulthood
- ex: insomnia, sleep apnea, narcolepsy
In which region of the brain would a lesion most likely disrupt the sleep/wake cycle?
A) anterior pituitary
B) posterior pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) hippocampus
C) hypothalamus
hypothalamus has several nuclei that have specialized functions; one of these nuclei is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which regulates the circadian pacemaker that controls circadian rhythms
photoreceptors in the retina project information about light levels to the SCN. When light levels are high, the SCN downregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland. When light levels are low, the SCN upregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland
Light levels regulate SCN activity, which regulates melatonin release and establishes an internal circadian clock. This clock mechanism helps maintain sleep patterns and other 24-hour circadian cycles, such as those involving blood pressure and core body temperature changes
Largest proportion of REM sleep occurs during
infancy , thought to aid the rapid neurological development seen during this period
What is the least applicable to a diagnosis of muscle dysmorphia?
A) persistent, intrust, and repetitive thoughts or urges
B) physical behaviors that help reduce anxiety
C) excessive, repetitive behaviors
D) obsession with losing weight
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D) obsession with losing weight
MD involves an obsession with a larger and more muscular body. An obsession with losing weight is the least applicable to a diagnosis
gestault principle of subjective contours
aka reification or illusory contours,
-describes how our mind fills in the gaps
Spatial disorientation experienced by pilots and divers would be least affected by information processed by the:
A) organ of corti
B) otolith organs
C) semicircular canals
D) somatosensory system
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A) organ of corti
maintenance of spatial orientation and balance relies on coordinated inout from the visual system, vestibulary system, and somatosensory system
How does steropsis contribute to the processing of 2D retinal images into objects having 3D depth?
A) The presence of rods and cones allows for processing different types of light
B) component attributes such as color, motion, and form, are integrated in the occipital lobe
C) the relative location of each retina allows for different images of the object to be processed
D) the movement of ciliary muscles controlling the lens provides depth cues to the cortex
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C) the relative location of each retina allows for different images of the object to be processed
Stereopsis = perception of depth that arises from the integrated information received from both eyes. Binocular depth cues allow accurate perception of depth through the integration of slightly different information from the left and right eyes
Binocular depth cues include retinal disparity and convergence:
- retinal disparity: distance between the two eyes, results in slightly different images projected onto the respective retinas. The closer an object or scene is to the two eyes, the more dramatic the disparity. Higher-order processing in the brain compares the difference between the 2D retinal images to help give rise to the perception of 3D depth.
- convergence : occurs because of the angular positioning of the eyes. The closer an object is to the observer, the more the eyes turn inward (or converge) to focus on that object. The brain interprets the angle of convergence as an indication of distance from the observer.
Binocular cues are less informative at great distances because retinal disparity and convergence decrease as distance increases. Therefore, monocular cues become more important for depth perception over great distances.
If you fixate on the black plus sign in the middle of this image without moving your eyes, the grey circle around the plus sign eventually disappears. Known as the Troxler effect, this occurs because of:
A) opponent processing
B) interposition
C) sensory adaptation
D) the blind spot
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C) sensory adaptation
Sensory adaptation = a diminshed response by the nervous system when presented with an unchanging stimulus over a period of time. Decreased nervous system responsiveness results in the diminished perception of that stimulus
According to the monoamine hypothesis:
A) abnormaly high serum cortisol levels underlie most depressive symptoms
B) abnormalities in a single neurotransmitter cause most depressive symptoms
C) abnormalities in various neurotransmitters cause depressive symptoms
D) DBS would be an ineffective treatment for depressive symptoms
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C) abnormalities in various neurotransmitters cause depressive symptoms
Monoamine hypothesis is a biomedical model of depression. Central to this hypothesis is the idea that depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters in the CNA directly causes depression symptoms. The monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) are neutrotransmitters that have a single amine group in their molecular structure and are associated with emotion regulation
Serotonin: associated with a positive mood, feelings of satisfaction, and social dominance.
Norepinephrine: in the CNS, enhances alertness, attention, and memory function
Dopamine: associated with feelings of pleasure and reward.
Support for the monoamine hypothesis comes from evidence that taking antidepressant medications that increase the levels of some or all of these neurotransmitters alleviates depression symptoms for many individuals
Which of the following brain regions is most likely the most effective DBS target for a Parkinson disease patient?
A) Amygdala
B) Basal ganglia
C) hippocampus
D) motor cortex
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B) Basal ganglia
Parkinson disease is a progressive neurogenerative disease cause dby death of dopaminergetic neurons in the substantia nigra, located in the midbrain. The substantia nigra is part of a group of neural structures collectively known as the basal ganglia, which are involved in the selection and execution of voluntary motor programs
D) not motor cortex, as motor cortex sends motor commpants from the brain to the muscles of the body. DBS of the motor cortex would likely cause disruptions in movement
Stimulation of the nucleus accumbens would be expected to alleviate which of the following symptoms of depression?
A) Anhedonia
B) difficulty concentrating
C) fatigue
D) insomnia
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A) Anhedonia
anhedonia = lack of pleasure
nucleus accumbens is a structure that is part of the reward pathway in the brain. The reward pathway also includes the ventral tegmental area (which produces dopamine) and portions of the prefrontal cortex. DBS of these structures could help alleviate symptoms of depression, as activation of the reward pathway is associated with feelings of pleasure and the reinforcement of rewarding behaviors
Which of the following is an inherent limitation in assessing the efficacy of DBS for controlling depression symptoms?
A) a placebo control group would be unethical
B) depressed patients are a vulnerable population
C) the benefits do not outweight the risks of the procuedure
D) the mechanism of action of DBS is unknown
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A) a placebo control group would be unethical
A placebo control group for this experiment would receive a sham surgery, with all of the same procedures as the treatment groups (including the insertion of electrodes into the brain), but without the electrical impulse.
Exposing patients to the risks associated with a surgical procedure (eg, infection, damage to brain tissue) for an inactive sham procedure would be unethical
In such cases, an active control group (in which the patient receives a standard approved treatment) is recommended for comparison
Which of the following is true regarding two classes of drugs commonly used to treat depression, SSRIs and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
A) both classes of drugs stimulate the release of serotonin into the synaptic cleft
B) SSRIs block uptake of serotonin into the post-synaptic neuron
C) MAOIs decrease the breakdown of serotonin within the pre-synaptic neuron
D) MAOIs promote uptake of serotonin into the pre-synaptic neuron
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C) MAOIs decrease the breakdown of serotonin within the pre-synaptic neuron
Antidepressant medications usually function via one of four general mechanisms:
1) increasing production of neurotransmitters within the presynaptic neuron
2) promoting release of neurotransmitters from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft
3) blocking reabsorption (reuptake) of neurotransmitters into the presynaptic neuron
4) decreasing breakdown of neurotransmitters within the presynaptic neuron
For instance, MAOIs inhibit monoamine oxidase, an enzyme attached to the mitochondria in axon terminals that catalyzes the oxidation (breakdown) of monoamines such as serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. This enzyme functions in the presynaptic neuron to recycle monomaines that have been removed from the synaptic cleft. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase therefore increases the cocentrations of monoamines in the axon terminal and eventually within the synaptic cleft.
SSRIs belong to another class of antidepressants that selectively block the reabsorption (reuptake) of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron, thereby prolonging the presence of serotonin in the synaptic cleft
Not B because reuptake inhibitors such as SSRIs block the uptake of neurotransmitters into the PREsynaptic cleft, where they were originalyl synthesized and released
The recall of which of the following should be most subjected to serial position effects?
A) the vocabulary words presented at the beginning and end of the list
B) the toy objects presented at the beginning and the end of the sequence
C) the vocabulary words that were the most familiar to the subjects
D) the toy objects to which the subjects had a personal connection
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B) the toy objects presented at the beginning and the end of the sequence
not the vocab words because these words were presented as a list and the students were allowed to study that list for 10 minutes, so there is no way to know how long and in what order they studied each definition. Because the vocabulary words were not presented one at a time (like the toy objects), recall would be less subject to serial position effects
Awake, relaxed (EEG)
alpha waves
sleep stage 1
EEG
theta waves
sleep stage 2
EEG
theta waves
sleep spindles
K complex
sleep stages 3&4
EEG
delta waves
social desirability bias
the tendency of research participants to provide the most favorable or acceptable responses to research questions.
Participants may overemphasize positive behaviiors (eg, studying), while downplaying or underreporting undesirable behaviors (eg, consuming alcohol)
In this study, the vocabulary recall task most directly assessed which of the following types of memory?
A) implicit
B) semantic
C) short-term
D) working
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B) semantic
Explicit/declarative memory is memory for facts and events that can be consciously or intentionally recalled, including:
- semantic memory, which includes knowledge about facts (eg, humans are mammals)
- episodic memory, which includes personal experiences (eg, what you ate for dinner last night)
during the testing phase of this study, students were asked to recall objects they had previously seen (episodic memory) and define vocabulary words they had previously studied (semantic memory). Therefore, the recall tasks in this study were most directly assessing these 2 aspects of explicit/declarative memory
If the students who related the toy objects and definitions to each other had higher than average recall scores, to which of the following might this be attributed?
I. Spreading activation
II. Semantic networks
III. Source monitoring
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I and II only
I. The spreading activation model suggests that when a node in the semantic network is activated (eg, viewing a picture of a toy fire engine), nodes directly connected to that node (eg, firefighter, alarm) are activated as well, which is known as priming. Spreading activation could account for better recall when students related the toy objects and definitions to each other.
II. Each individual has a uniqeuly organized semantic network according to the personal meaning associated with each node. It tends to be easier to recall information that is semantically relevant/meaningful. Therefore, better recall for students who related the toy objects and definitions to each other may be attributable to the use of semantic networks.
If a neuroimaging study compared normal dreaming with lucid dreaming, in what brain region would more activity be expected during lucid dreaming?
A) cerebellum
B) prefrontal cortex
C) amygdala
D) primary visual cortex
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B) prefrontal cortex
Prefrontal cortex is associated with executive functions, such as critical thinking, problem solving, planning, impulse control, and executive decision-making. Because lucid dreaming involves critical analysis and executive decision making, a neuroimaging study would be expected to demonstrate greater activation of the prefrontal cortex during lucid dreaming as compared with normal dreaming
box and whisker graph confidence interval
middle region!
see question 400140
Self-administration of nicotine in animal models is most likely suppressed by means of:
A) blocking dopaminergic pathways
B) blocking adrenergic pathways
C) enhancing dopaminergic pathways
D) enhancing adrenergic pathways
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A) blocking dopaminergic pathways
Rewarding stimuli including commonly abused drugs increase domaminergic activity in the brain by increasing the production of dopamine, interfering with its clearance from receptors, or directly stimulating dopamine receptors in the brain. In turn, the reward system is activated and the brain learns to associate the drug with reward.
Self-administration in animal models is used a measure of how addictive a substance is. The more addictive the drug, the more an animal will engage in self-administering behavior. Antagonists can be used to bind to receptors and block the activity of specific neurotransmitters. Studies show that blocking the activity of dopamine can disrupt the reward pathway and decrease addicitive behavior
Not C: Enhancing dopaminergic pathways would not suppress self-administration of nicotine in animal models, but would likely reinforce the behavior
A proponent of the universalism perspective would state that the results in Figure 1B support the belief that:
A) cognition is influenced by language
B) cognition is required for language
C) language and cognition develop via social interaction
D) language is necessary for cognition
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B) cognition is required for language
Universalism, the belief that cognition controls language, posits that certain cognitive processes are universal, so all human languages also possess certain universals (eg, nouns). Therefore, a universalist would interpret figure 1B as support for the belief that cognition is required for language development.
universalism (langauge and congnition)
cognition CONTROLS language
piaget (language & congition)
cognition INFLUENCES language
Vygotsky (language & cognition)
cognition and language develop independently, merging later
linguistic relativity (language & cognition)
language INFLUENCES cognition
linguistic determinism (language & cognition)
language CONTROLS cognition
Critical period of language acquisition
0-18 (declines as age progresses)
time-sensitive early period in life during which language acquisition is easier (with proper exposure), as compared to the period afterward, during which language acquisition is much more difficult
During Task 1, the researcher found that subjects’ response time was slower and color identification accuracy was worse during the natural condition. Which of the following best accounts for this finding?
A) color and motion are processed simultanesouly
B) color information is processed slower than motion
C) motion is processed in the retina whereas color is processed in the occiptial lobe
D) color and motion information are transmitted to the brain via the same pathway
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A) color and motion are processed simultanesouly
parvo “what” (form and color) and magno “where” pathways (motion)
Parallel processing describes the brain’s ability to simultanesouly process the various components of visual stimuli. Information from the retina is transmitted to the primary visual cortex (V1) of the occiptial lobe via two separate pathways (parvo and magno), which are named according to where they project in the LGN, the region of the thalamus that receives visual input
color and motion are processed simultanesouly via two different pathways. The artifical condition involved identifying the color of a fixed, nonmoving object, which required processing of only one component (color), whereas the natural condition required the simultaneous processing of two components. Therefore, subjects’ response time and accuracy should be worse during the natural condition.
Based on the concept of the looking-glass self, which of the following unintended study effects is most likely?
A) the female surgeon reported feelings of insecurity immediately after study participation
B) the white surgeon reported feelings of empowerment during study participation
C) both male surgeons reported feelings of deviance while playing the role of nurse
D) the black surgeons reported feelings of empowerment after playing the role of doctor
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A) the female surgeon reported feelings of insecurity immediately after study participation
The looking-glass self suggests that self-concept (beliefs about oneself) is derived from social interactions with other: the way an individual is perceived and treated by others impacts how they then perceive themselves. For example, if a female surgeon is assumed to be a nurse by most of her patients, these interactions will have an impact on her self-concept. Because “nurse” is a lower status role than “surgeon,” the impact of this assumption is most likely to have a negative effect on self-concept, such as feelings of insecurity
cognitive component of human emotion
mental processing accompanying an emotion & involved in appraisal of the situation
ex: thoughts, beliefs, expectations, rationalization
behavioral component of human emotion
immediate outward reaction to an emotion that is involuntary & automatic
ex: smiling, gasping
physiological component of human emotion
bodily processes that accompany an emotion
ex: heart rate changes, respiration rate changes, sweating
social exclusion
inability to participate:
- economically (ie, as an income earner or consumer)
- socially (ie, limited/no interaction with others in society)
- civically (ie, community and political involvement)
Social stratification
Hierarchial organizaiton of indiviudals in society based on social class, social status, and power
- Social class : economic assets, eg: income, property
- Social status: prestige (favorable reputation) among others in society
- power (ability to exert control over the actions of others)
The first paragraph describes how certain villagers engaged in initial acts of positive deviance (PD) to nourish their children. This description of PD engaged in by these villagers is most applicable to which of the following?
A) differential association theory
B) strain theory
C) labeling theory
D) conflict theory
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B) strain theory
Strain theory predicts that individuals experience tension (strain) when there is a disconnect between goals and available means for achieving those goals. For example, a parent who is unable to feed her child (goal) because there is not enough food (lack of means) experiences strain. This strain causes individuals to seek deviant means of achieving the goal.
Strain theory suggests that innovation occurs when individuals come up with new strategies for obtaining goals, which is the most applicable to the first paragraph’s description of the initial acts of PD by the Vietnamese villagers.
differential assocation
individuals learn specific deviant behaviors & values/norms through interaction with others with those same behaviors & values/norms
labeling theory
primary deviance (a small social norm violation) leads to a deviant label & social stigma, causing secondary deviance (more serious violations)
strain theory
deviant behavior results from the disconnect between goals and the means for achieving those goals
confirmation bias
- seeking information that supports belief
- ignoring information that refutes belief
- interpreting ambigious information as support
functional fixedness
inability to see a use for an object beyond its intended use
mental set
- inability to see a problem from a new perspective
- inclination to use old methods to solve new problems
Hawthorne effect
describes when research subjects behave differently as a result of knowing that they are being observed
Major agents of socialization
- Family
- usually a genetic relationship
- high degree of contact, espeically early in life
- provides earliest socialization, teaching norms, values, behaviors, etc - Friends/peers
- usually simialr age & life circumstance (eg, same neighborhood)
- High degree of contract, especialyl during adolescence
- may socialize in ways that confirm or contradict family values - School/workplace
- brings together many different types of people
- standardized behaviors are taught and usually enforced (eg, arriving on time) - Mass media
- social institution that spreads information
- helps to shape attitudes and to change cultural norms and values
- provides new means of communication (eg, social media)
economic capital
financial assets
ex: money, income, property
social capital
social network assets
ex: friends, family, coworkers
cultural capital
nonfinancial/nonsocial network assets
ex: education, hard work, attractiveness
Microsociology
- focuses on individual attributes and interactions
- important concepts: communication, symbols, reciprocity, interpersonal exchange
- ex: how does the interaction between a doctor and patient reflect racial inequality?
macrosociology
- focuses on groups, populations, social structures
- important concepts: institutions, inequality, impact of the social environment on people’s interactions
- ex: how does racial inequality influence how minorities access health care?
Which interpretation of the global obesity pandemic is most consistent with the structural functionalist perspective?
A) disrupts dynamic equilibrium in society
B) represents a manifest function of globalization
C) results from income inequality in society
D) is subjectively defined through social interactions
A) disrupts dynamic equilibrium in society
Structural functionalism is a macrosociological perspective that compares society to a biological organism. This theory proposes that, like the various organ systems attemptnig to maintain homeostasis in an organism, aspects of society (eg, institutions) work together in an attempt to maintain dynamic equilibrium (ie, societal balance)
Durkheim describes a type of suicide committed by individuals who feel disconnected from society for not providing them a moral compass. What is the societal condition that occurs when a society does not provide enough moral guidance to individuals?
A) Anomie
B) Cultural relativism
C) Relative deprivaiton
D) Deindividuation
A) Anomie
Anomie = state of normlessless that occurs when a society fails to provide individuals with norms and values to guide behavior. In an anomic society, individuals lack guidance and purpose and feel aimless or alientated from society. Anomie is often the result of a shift or transition in society that causes instability, undermining current norms (before new norms arise to replace them)
Durkheim is often associated with which sociological theory?
A) structural functionalism
B) conflict theory
C) social constructionism
D) symbolic interactionsm
A) structural functionalism
“Suicide clusters” are greater-than-average ratse of suicide occuring within a short time frame. After a well-publicized initial suicide, suicide rates tend to rise, particularly among teenagers and young adults. This phenomenon can be described as:
A) groupthink
B) the mere exposure effect
C) mass hysteria
D) imitiation of a reference group
D) imitiation of a reference group
How would a proponent of Malthusian theory most likely interpret the data in Figure 1?
A) increased suicide rates provide evidence for a Malthusian catastrophe
B) the decline in suicide rates during World War II supports Malthusian theory
C) The Great Depression would be considered a positive check
D) increased suicide rates during recessions are negative checks
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C) The Great Depression would be considered a positive check
Malthusian theory of population growth suggests that the human population increases exponentially while resources increase at a slower rate. According to this theory, the population growth rate can be slowed by preventative checks and positive checks.
Preventative checks = decrease the birth rate (typically voluntary, such as waiting to marry and having less children)
Positive checks = increase the death rate, slowing population growth by shortening the average life span. Can be small scale (eg, increased death rate due to a flu virus) or large-scale (eg, an epidemic that wipes out half the population)
Large-scale positive checks, called Malthusian catastrophes (eg, widespread famine, disease epidemics, large-scale wars) dramatically reduce the population to a level that the available resources can easily sustain, by slowing or stopping population growth entirely
state effects
memories encoded during mood.
Ex: memories encoded during a happy mood easier to recall during a happy mood, harder to recall during a sad mood
Franz Gall
Phrenology
Pierre Flourens
Functions of major sections of the brain. used extirpation to study parts of the brain
William James
Functionalism
How mental processes help individuals adapt to their environment
John Dewey
Functionalism
Paul Broca
Studied people with lesions in specific regions of brain
Broca’s area: speech production
Hermann von Helmholtz
Speed of impulse. Made psychology a science
Sir Charles Sherrington
Synpases
Sigmund Frued
Psychoanalytic perspective
Sensory neurons
Afferent
receptors –> spinal cord
interneurons
between other neurons
mostly CNS
Motor neurons
efferent
CNS –> muscles and glands
reflex arcs
interneurons in spinal cord relay info to the source of stimuli while simultaneously routing it to the brain
Acetylcholine
used by somatic nervous system to move muscles
also used by the parasympathetic and CNS
dopamine
maintains smooth movements and steady posture
epinephrine and norephinephrine
maintain wakefulness and mediate fight or flight responses
epinephrine tends to act has a hormone, norepinephrine acts as a neurotransmitter
GABA
Inhibitory neurotransmitters
Acts as brain “stabilizers”
*Glycine serves a similar function in the spinal cord
Glutamate
acts as an excitory neurotransmitter
Serotonin
modulates mood, sleep, eating, and dreaming
cortisol
stress hormone released by the adrenal cortex
testosterone and estrogen
mediate libido
testosterone also increases aggressive behavior. Both are produced in gonads, released by adrenal cortex
hindbrain
cerebellum, medulla oblongata, reticular formation
midbrain
inferior and superior colliculi
forebrain
thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, limbic system, cerebral cortex
thalamus
relay station for sensory information
hypothalamus
homeostasis and the 4 F’s: feeding, fleeing, fighting, fucking
integrates with the endocrine system
hypothalamus –> hypophyseal portal –> anterior pituitary
basal ganglia
smooths movements and helps postural stability
limbic system
septal nuclei: pleasure and addiction
amygdala: fear and aggression
hippocampus: emotion and memory
cerebral cortex
four lobes
- frontal: executive function, impulse control, speech, motor
- parietal: touch, pressure, temp, pain, spatial processing
- occipital: visual
- temporal: sound, speech perception, memory, emotion
left cerebral hemisphere
analytic, language, logic, math
*usually the dominant sphere right
right cerebral hemisphere
intuition, creativity, spatial processing
neural development
the nervous system develops through neurulation, in which the notochord stimulates overlying ectoderm to fold over, creating a neural tube topped with neural crest cells
neural tube
becomes the CNS
neural crest cells
spread out throughout the body, differentiating into many tissues
primitive reflexes
exist in infants and should disappear with age
rooting, moro, babinski, grasping
rooting reflex
turns head towards stimulus
moro reflex
extends arms, response to falling sensation
babinski reflex
big toe is extended and other toes fan out in response to brushing on sole of foot
grasping reflex
grabs anything put into hands
developmental milestones
- gross and fine motor abilities progress head to toe and core to periphery
- social skills shift from parent oriented to other oriented
- language skills become increasingly complex
projection areas
areas in the brain that analyze sensory input
absolute threshold
the minimum of stimulus energy that will activate a sensory system
threshold of conscious perception
the minimum stimulus energy that will create a signal large enough in size and long enough in duration to be brought into awareness
difference threshold
the minimum difference in magnitude between two stimuli before one can perceive this difference
weber’s law
just noticeable difference for a stimulus is proportional to the MAGNITUDE of the stimulus
signal detection theory
refers to the effects of non-sensory factors, such as experiences, motives, and expectations on perception of a stimuli, accounts for response bias
cornea
gathers and filters incoming light
iris
controls size of pupil
colored part of eye
divides front of the eye into the anterior and posterior chamber
contains 2 muscles, the dilator and the constrictor pupillae
lens
refracts incoming light to focus it on the retina
aqueous humor
produced by the ciliary body
nourishes the eye and gives the eye its shape
drains through the canal of Schlemm
retina
rods: detect light/dark, contain rhodopsin
cones: color; cones are in the fovea, which is part of the macula
pathway from retina: rods/cones –> bipolar cells –> ganglion cells –> optic nerve
Retinal disparity
space between eyes; allows for binocular vision and depth
horizontal and amacrine cells
integrates signals from ganglion cells and performs edge-sharpening
vision support
vitreous on inside
sclera and choroid on outside
parallel processing
color, form, and motion at the same time
magnocellular cells
motion, high temporal resolution
parvocellular cells
shape, high spatial resolution
visual pathway
eye –> optic nerves –> optic chiasm –> optic tracts –> lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) –> visual radiations –> visual cortex
outer ear
pinna (auricle), external auditory canal, tympanic membrane
middle ear
connected to nasal cavity by Eustachian tube
Ossicles (MIS / HAS)
Malleus: Hammer
Incus: Anvil
Stapes: Stirrup. Footplate of stapes rests in the oval window of cochlea
inner ear
- bony labyrinth: filed with perilymph
- membranous labryinth: filled with endolymph; consists of cochlea (sound), utricle and saccule (linear acceleration) and semicircular canals (rotational acceleration and balance)
superior olive
localizes sound, located in brain stem
inferior colliculus
startle reflex, also used by both eyes and ears in the vestibulo-ocular reflex which keeps the eyes fixed on a single point as the head rotates
auditory pathway
cochlea –> vestibulocochlear nerve –> medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) –> auditory cortex
smell
the detection of volatile or aerosolized chemicals by the olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) in the olfactory epithelium
-smell info bypasses the thalamus
taste
the detection of dissolved compounds by taste buds in papillae
-sweet/sour/salty/bitter/unami
somatosensation
refers to the four touch modalities: pressure, vibration, pain, temperature
two-point threshold
minimum distance necessary between two points of stimulation on the skin such that the points will be felt as two distinct stimuli
physiological zero
the normal temperature of skin to which objects are compared to
nociceptors
pain reception
gate theory of pain
lowers just noticeable difference for pain
kinesthetic sense
senses of position and movement of the body
top-down processing
the recognititon of an object by memories and expectations. little attention to details. uses background knowledge
bottom up processing
details –> whole
recognition of objects by feature detection
not influenced by background knowledge
gestalt principles
proximity, similarity, continuity, closure
all are governed by the law of pragnanz
habituation
becomes USED TO a stimulus
dishabituation
when a second stimulation intervenes causing a RESENSITIZATION of the original stimulus
associative learning
pairing together stimuli / responses or behaviors / consequences
operant conditioning
behavior is changed through the use of consequences
- reinforcement: increases likelihood of BEHAVIOR
- punishment: decreases likelihood of BEHAVIOR
- schedule: the schedule of reinforcement can be based on the amount of time or a ratio of behavior/reward, and can be either fixed or variable
- positive response: ADDING something
- negative response: REMOVING something
extinction
when a previously reinforced behavior is no longer reinforced, it is extinct
shaping
in operant conditioning, shaping is when a behavior that is closer and closer to the target behavior is reinforced
classical conditioning
with repetition, a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus that produces a conditioned response
observational learning or modeling
the acquisition of behavior by watching others
encoding
the process of putting new information into memory
it can be automatic or effortful
semantic encoding is stronger than both acoustic or visual encoding
sensory and short term memory
transient and based on neurotransmitter activity
working memory
requires short term memory, attention, and executive function to manipulate information
long term memory
requires elaborative rehearsal and is the result of increased neuronal connectivity
explicit (declarative) memory
- type of long-term memory
- accounts for the memories that we must consciously recall with effort and focus
implicit (nondeclarative) memory
- type of long term memory
- accounts for acquired skills and conditioned responses to circumstances and stimuli
semantic networks
stores facts
- concepts are linked together based on similar meaning
- certain triggers will activate associated memories
retrieval
recognition of information is stronger than recall
retrieval is often based on priming interconnected nodes of the semantic network
alzheimers
degenerative brain disorder linked to a loss of acetylcholine in neurons that link to hippocamus; causes dementia and memory loss
korsakoff’s syndrome
memory loss caused by thiamine (B12) deficiency in the brain; causes retrograde amnesia and anterograde amnesia
-another symptom is confabulation, the fabrication of vivid but fake memories
agnosia
loss of ability to recognize objects, people, or sounds; usually caused by physical damage to brain
retroactive interference
new memories make you forget old memories
proactive interference
old memories interfere with learning new memories
procedural memory
type of implicit / long-term memory
-involves memory of skills and tasks
episodic memory
- branch of declarative memory (long-term)
- events and experiences
semantic memory
- branch of declarative memory (long-term)
- memory of facts and concepts
information processing model
the brain encodes, stores, and retrieves information much like a computer
piaget’s stages
involve schemas and assimilation vs accommodation
sensorimotor stage (piaget)
0-2
- child manipulates the environment to meet physical needs through circular reactions
- object permanence develops at the END of this stage
preoperational stage (piaget)
2-7
-pretend play, symbolic thinking so they learn to talk, egocentrism and centration
concrete operational (piaget)
- 7-11
- understands the feelings of others, conservation develops, math
formal operational (piaget)
12+
-abstract thought and problem solving, moral reasonign
deductive reasoning
forms conclusions from RULES
inductive reasoning
forms conclusion from EVIDENCE
availability heuristic
when we make our decisions based on how easily similar instances can be imagined
representative heuristic
the tendency to focus on information that fits an individual’s beliefs, while rejecting information that goes against those beliefs
gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences
7 areas of intelligence: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal
alertness
state of being awake and thinking
waves when alert or concentrating
EEG SHOWS BETA WAVES
waves when awake but tired
ALPHA WAVES (a for alpha or aloof)
hypnosis
individuals appear to be in normal control of the faculties but are in a highly suggestible state, used for pain control, psychological therapy, memory enhancement
based on idea of social influence
meditation
quieting of the mind, used for relief of anxiety
depressants
alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines
-increase GABA
stimulants
amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy
-increase dopamine, increase norepinephrine, increase serotonin at synaptic cleft
opiates and opioids
heroin, morphine, opium, oxycodone, and hydrocodone
can cause death by respiratory depression
hallucinogens
LSD, peyote, mescaline, ketamine
mesolimbic pathway
- mediates drug addiction
- includes nucleus accumbens, medial forebrain bundle, and ventral tegmental area
- dopamine is the main neurotransmitter
phonology
the actual sound of speech
morphology
the building blocks of words
semantics
the meaning of words
syntax
rules dictating word order
pragmatics
changes in language delivery depending on context
nativist (biological) theory
language acquisition is innate
learning (behaviorist) theory
language acquisition is controlled by operant conditioning and reinforcement by parents and caregivers
social interactionist theory
language acquisition is caused by a motivation to communicate and interact with others
whorfian hypothesis
LINGUISTIC RELATIVITY
the lens by which we view and interpret the world is CREATED BY LANGUAGE
broca’s area
produces speech
wernicke’s area
language comprehension
arcurate fasciculus
connects broca’s area and wernicke’s area
conduction aphasia
can’t repeat words
order of brain waves
BAT-D
Beta - Alpha - Theta - Delta
stage 1 of sleep
light sleep, theta waves
stage 2 of sleep
slightly deeper sleep than stage 1, theta waves, sleep spindles, k complexes
-decrease in heart rate, respiration, and temperature
stages 3 and 4 of sleep
deep sleep, delta waves, slow-wave sleep, most sleep disorders occur during these stages also called non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep
-growth hormone released
rapid eye movement
- REM sleep
- the mind appears awake on EEG, but the person is asleep
- eye movements and body paralysis
- mostly beta waves
sleep cycle
90 minutes
stages: 123432REM or 1234REM
circadian rhythm
24 hours, melatonin triggers sleepiness, cortisol promotes wakefulness
dreaming
mostly during REM
activation-synthesis theory
dreams result from brain activation during REM sleep
activation in brainstem, synthesis in cortex
dyssomnias
difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep, or avoid sleep
ex: insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea
parasomnias
abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep
ex: night terrors, sleepwalking
selective attention
allows one to pay attention to particular stimulus while determining if additional stimuli in the background require attention
divided attention
uses automatic processing to pay attention to multiple activities at one time
motivation
the purpose, or driving force, behind our actions
can be extrinsic or intrinsic
instincts
innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli
instinct theory
people perform certain behaviors because of their evolutionary programmed instincts
arousal
the state of being awake and reactive to stimuli
optimal arousal theory
optimal performance requires optimal arousal. arousal levels that are too high or too low will impede performance
drives
internal states of tension that beget particular behaviors focused on goals
primary drives: related to biological processes
secondary drives: stem from learning
drive reduction theory
motivation arises from the desire to eliminate drives, which create uncomfortable internal states
maslow’s heirarchy of needs
physiological, safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem, and self-actualization
-higher needs only produce drives once lower needs are met
self-actualization
full realization of one’s talents and potential
self-determination theory
emphasizes three universal needs: autonomy, competence, and relatedness
incentive theory
explains motivation as the desire to pursue rewards and avoid punishments
expectancy-value theory
the amount of motivation for a task is based on the expectation of success and the value of that success
opponent process theory
explains motivation for drug use: as drug use increases, the body counteracts its effects, leading to tolerance and uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms
house money effect
after a prior gain, people become more open to assuming risk since the new money is not treated as one’s own
gambler’s fallacy
if something happens more frequently than normal, it will happen less frequently in the future, or vice versa
prisoner’s dilemma
two people act out of their own self-interest, but if they had cooperated, the result would have been even better
emotion
a state of mind, or feeling, that is subjectively experienced based on circumstances, mood, and relationships
three components of emotion
1) cognitive: subjective
2) physiological: changes in autonomic nervous sytem
3) behavioral: facial expressions and body language
universal emotions
happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust, and anger
james lange theory
behavior and physiological actions LEAD TO EMOTIONS
EX: power posing
arousal (snake) –> heart pounding, sweating –> fear (emotion)
cannon bard theory
emotional and physiological responses to a stimulus occur SIMULTANEOUSLY, they arise from separate and independent areas of the brain
ex: arousal (snake) –> heart pounding/sweating + fear (emotion)
schacter-singer two factor theory
two factor theory of emotion, physiological arousal and interpretation of context or “cognitive label” leads to emotion
ex: arousal (snake) –> heart pounding/sweating, cognitive label (“i’m scared) –> fear (emotion)
stress
the physiological and cognitive response to challenges or life changes
stress appraisal
primary appraisal: classifying a potential stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful
secondary appraisal: evaluating if the organism can cope with the stress
stressors
anything that leads to a stress response
can lead to distress or eustress
general adaptation syndrome
specific stressors do not have specific responses, they all generate the same general physical stress response
3 stages of stress: alarm, resistance, exhaustion
these involve both the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system
release of ACTH leads to increased cortisol
self-concept
the sum of ways we describe ourselves
identities
individual components of our self-concept related to the group to which we belong
self-esteem
the closer our actual self is to our ideal self and our ought self (who others want us to be), the increased our self esteem
self efficacy
the degree to which we see ourselves as being capable at a given skill or situation
learned helplessness
a state of hopelessless that results from being unable to avoid repeated negative stimuli
internal locus of control
we control our own success/failure
external locus of control
outside factors have more control
freud’s formation of identity
psychosexual stages of personal development based on tensions caused by the libido
-failure at any stage leads to fixation, which causes personality disorder
oral stage (freud)
0-1
anal stage (freud)
1-3
phallic stage (freud)
3-6
latent stage (freud)
6-puberty
genital stage (freud)
puberty - adulthood
erikson’s theory of development
stages stem from conflicts throughout life
erikson’s theory: age 0-1
trust vs mistrust
erikson’s theory: ages 1-3
autonomy vs shame
erikson’s theory: ages 3-6
initiative vs guilt
erikson’s theory: ages 6-12
industry vs inferiority
erikson’s theory: ages 12 to 20
identity vs role confusion
erikson’s theory: ages 20-40
intimacy vs isolation
erikson’s theory: ages 40-65
generativity vs stagnation
erikson’s theory: ages 65-death
integrity vs despair
kohlberg’s theory of development
stages based on moral dilemmas
6 stages in 3 phases
vygotsky’s theory of development
zone of proximal development: the skills that a child has not yet mastered and require a more knowledgeable other to accomplish
imitation and role taking
common ways children learn from others
reference group
the group to which we compare ourselves
id (freud)
base urges of survival and reproduction
superego (freud)
the idealist and perfectionist
ego (freud)
the mediator between the id and superego and the conscious mind
carl jung’s theory of personality
collective unconscious links all humans together. personality is influenced by archetypes
adler and horney
unconscious is motivated by social urges
humanistic perspective of personality
emphasizes the internal feelings of healthy individuals as they strive for happiness and self-realization
maslow’s heirarchy of needs and roger’s unconditional positive regard flow from the humanistic view of personality
type and trait theory
personality can be described by identifiable traits that carry characteristic behaviors
example of type theories
Ancient greek humors, Sheldon’s somatotypes, division into type A and type B, and Myers Brigg Type inventory
PEN trait theory
Psychoticism (nonconformity)
Extraversion (sociable)
Neuroticism (arousal in stressful situations)
Big 5 trait theory of personality
CANOE
Conscientiousness, Agreeableness, Neuroticism, Openness to experience, Extraversion
3 basic traits
Cardinal traits: traits around which a person organizes their life
Central traits: major characteristics of personality
secondary traits: more personal characteristics and limited in occurrence
social cognitive theory of personality
individuals react with their environment in a cycle called reciprocal determinism
people mold their environments according to their personality, and those environments in turn shape their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors
behaviorist perspective of personality
our personality develops as a result of operant conditioning (it is reward and punishment based)
biological perspective of personality
behavior can be explained as a result of genetic expression
schizophrenia
prototypical disorder with psychosis
positive symptoms: add something to behavior, cognition, or affect. Ex: delusions or hallucinations
negative symptoms: the loss of something, such as disturbance of affect or avolition (lack of motivation)
depressive disorders
include major depressive disorder and seasonal affective disorder
major depressive disorder: at least 1 major depressive episode
persistent depressive disorder: dysthymia for at least two years that does not meet the criteria for major depressive disorder
seasonal affective disorder: depression occurring in winter
bipolar and related disorders
manic or hypomanic episodes
bipolar 1: at least one manic episode
bipolar 2: at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode
cyclothymic disorder: hypomanic episodes with dysthymia
anxiety disorders
generalized anxiety disorder, phobias, social anxiety disorder, agoraphobia, and panic disorder
body dysmorphic disorder
unrealistic negative evaluation of one’s appearance
PTSD
intrusive symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares
avoidance symptoms
negative cognitive symptoms
arousal symptoms
dissociative amnesia
can’t recall past experiences
dissociative fugue
assumption of a new identity
dissociative identify disorder
multiple personalities
depersonalization/derealization disorder
feeling detached from the mind and body or environment
somatic symptom disorder
“somatoform disorder”
a somatic symtom causes disproportionate concern
illness anxiety disorder
preoccupation with thoughts about having or coming down with an illness
conversion disorder
associated with prior trauma, involves unexplained symptoms resulting in loss of body function
hypochondriasis
“illness anxiety disorder” one strongly believes that he or she has a serious illness despite no or few symptoms
personality disorders
patterns of inflexible, maladaptive behavior that cause distress or impaired functions
cluster A of personality disorders
“weird”
paranoid, schizotypal, schizoid
cluster B of personality disorders
“wild” - dramatic, emotional, or erratic behaviors
antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic
cluster C of personality disorders
“worried” - characterized by anxious or fearful behaviors
avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive
behaviorist approach to understanding psych disorders
classical and operant conditioning shapes the disorder
biomedical approach to understanding psych disorders
takes into account only physical and medical causes
biopsychosocial approach to understanding psych disorders
considers relative contributions of biological, psychological, and social components
biological basis of schizophrenia
genetic factors, birth trauma, marijuana use, family history
biological basis of depression
increased glucocorticoids
decreased norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine
biological basis of bipolar disorders
increased norepinephrine and serotonin
also heritable
biological basis of alzheimer’s
genetic factors, brain atrophy, decreased acetylcholine, senile plaques of B-amyloid (this specifically leads to lewy body dementia)
biological basis of parkinson’s
bradykinesia, resting tremor, pill-rolling tremor, masklike facies, cogwheel rigidity, and a shuffling gait
decreased dopamine
social facilitation
describes the tendency of people to perform at a different level when others are around
deindividuation
a loss of self-awareness in large groups
bystander effect
when in a group, individuals are less likely to respond to a person in need
peer pressure
the social influence placed on individuals by others they consider equals
social loafing
an individual does not pull his or her weight in a group setting
polarization
the tendency toward making decisions in a group that are more extreme
groupthink
the tendency for groups to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas
culture
the beliefs, ideas, behaviors, actions, and characteristics of a group or society
assimilation
the process by which an immigrant or minority takes up elements of mainstream culture. Assimilation is a specific type of socialization. To experience assimilation, a person must first have their own culture, then absorb elements of a new culture
multiculturalism
the encouragement of multiple cultures within a community to enhance diversity
subculture
a group of people within a culture that distinguish themselves from the primary culture
attitudes
tendencies toward expression of positive or negative feelings or evaluations of something attitude has three components: 1) affective 2) behavioral 3) cognitive
functional attitudes theory
states that there are four functional areas of attitudes: knowledge, ego expression, adaptability, and ego defense
learning theory
states that attitudes are developed through forms of learning: direct contact, direct interaction, direct instruction, and conditioning
elaboration likelihood model
states that attitudes are formed and changed through different routes based on degree of elaboration
central route processing: the process by which attitudes are formed or changed as a result of carefully scrutinizing and thinking about the central merits of attitude-relevant information
peripheral route processing: occurs when someone evaluates a message, such as an advertisement, on the basis of physical attractiveness, background music, or other surface level characteristics rather than the actual content of the message
social cognitive theory of attitude and behavior
states that attitudes are formed through watching others, personal factors, and the environment. people change their behavior or attitudes based on observation
socialization
the process of internalizing the social norms and values expected in one’s society
positive sanction
a reward for certain behavior
negative sanction
a punishment for certain behavior
formal sanction
an official reward or punishment
informal sanction
a sanction that is not enforced or punished by an authority but occurs in everyday interactions with other people
ex: asking people to lower their voice in a movie theater
norms
determine the boundaries of acceptable behavior within a society
mores
informal norms with MAJOR importance for society, and if broken, can result in severe sanctions
ex: drug abuse is not socially acceptable
right vs rude
folkways
informal norms that are less significant, yet they still shape our everyday behavior
ex: holding a door for someone
right vs rude
taboos
considered unacceptable by almost every culture (like cannibalism or incest)
taboos
considered unacceptable by almost every culture (like cannibalism or incest)
stigma
the extreme disapproval or dislike of a person or group based on perceived differences from the rest of society
deviance
violation of norms, rules, or expectations in a society
differential association theory
deviance can be learned through our interactions with others. people commit crimes, at least in part, because of their associations with other people
conformity
changing beliefs or behaviors in order to fit into a group or society
compliance
when individuals change their behavior based on the requests of others
obedience
a change in behavior based on a command from someone seen as an authority figure
status
a position in society used to classify individuals
ascribed status
involuntarily assigned to an individual based on race, gender, ethnicity, etc
achieved status
voluntarily earned by an individual
master status
the status by which an individual is primarily identified
role
a set of beliefs, values, and norms that define the expectations of a certain status in a social situation
role performance
refers to carrying out behaviors of a given role
role partner
another individual who helps define a specific role within the relationship
role set
a set of all roles that are associated with a status
role conflict
difficulty managing MULTIPLE roles
role strain
difficulty managing JUST ONE ROLE
groups
2 or more people with similar characteristics that share a sense of unity
peer group
a self-selected group formed around shared interests
family group
group to which you are born, adopted, or married
affinal kinship
individuals that are related by choice (eg, married)
consanguineous kinship
related through blood
out group
group you compete with or oppose
primary group
those that contain strong emotional bonds
secondary group
often temporary, contain weaker bonds overall
gemeinschaft
community
gesellschaft
society
network
an observable pattern of social relationships between individuals or groups
organizatio
a group with identifiable membership that engages in certain action to achieve a common purpose
bureaucracy
a rational system of administration, discipline, and control, max weber gave it six defining characterisitcs
iron law of oligarchy
democratic or bureaucratic systems naturally shift to being ruled by an elite group
sect
a religious group that arose from a split of a larger religion
basic model of expressing emotions
states that there are universal emotions and expressions that can be understood across cultures
social construction model of expressing emotion
states that emotions are solely based on the situational context of social interactions
display rules
unspoken rules that govern the expression of emotions
impression management
refers to the maintenance of a public image, which is accomplished through various strategies: flattery, boasting, managing appearances, ingratiation, aligning actions, alter-cating
dramaturgical approach
people create images of themselves in the same way that actors perform a role in front of an audience
front stage: where you are seen by an audience
back stage: you are not in front of the audience
nonverbal communication
communicating through means other than the use of words
ex: body language, prosody, gestures
animal communication
takes place not only between nonhuman animals, but between humans and other animals as well. animals use body language, facial expressions, visual displays, scents, and vocalizations to communicate
interpersonal attraction
what makes people like each other
influenced by physical attractiveness, similarity of thoughts and physical traits, self-disclosure, reciprocity, and proximity
aggression
a physical, verbal, or nonverbal behavior with the intention to cause harm or increase social dominance
attatchment
an emotional bond to another person
usually refers to the bond between a child and caregiver
secure attachment
requires a constant caregiver
child shows a strong preference to the caregiver compared to strangers
avoidant attachment
occurs when a caregiver has little or no response to a stressed child
child shows no preference for the caregiver compared to children
ambivalent attachment
occurs when a caregiver has an inconsistent response to a child’s distress, sometimes responding appropriately, sometimes neglectful
child will become distressed when caregiver leaves and is ambivalent when he or she returns
disorganized attachment
occurs when a caregiver is erratic or abusive
the child shows no clear pattern of behavior in response to the caregiver’s absence or presence
social support
the perception or reality that one is cared for by a social network
emotional support
listening to, affirming, and empathizing with someone’s feelings
esteem support
affirms the qualities and skills of a person
material support
providing physical or monetary support
informational support
providing useful information to a perso
network support
providing a sense of belonging to a person
foraging
searching for and exploiting food resources
mating system
describes the way in which a group is organized in terms of sexual behavior
monogamy
exclusive mating relationships
polygamy
one member of a sex having multiple exclusive relationships with members of the opposite sex
polygyny
male with multiple females
polyandry
female with multiple males
promiscuity
no exclusivity
mate choice
the selection of a mate based on attraction and traits
altruism
a helping behavior in which the person’s intent is to benefit someone else at some cost to him or herself
game theory
attempts to explain decision making between individuals as if they are participating in a game
inclusive fitness
a measure of an organism’s success in the population based on how well it propagates its own genes. also includes the ability of those offspring to then support others
social perception
social cognition
the way by which we generate impressions about people in our social environment
contains a perceiver, target, and situation
social capital
the practice of developing and maintaining relationships that form social networks willing to help each other
implicit personality theory
when we look at somebody for the first time, we pick up on one of their characteristics, we then take that characteristic and assume other traits about the person based off of that one characteristic we first picked up on
attribution theory
focuses on the tendency for individuals to infer the causes of other people’s behavior
dispositional attribution theory
internal
causes of a behavior are internal/personality based
situational
external
surroundings or context cause behavior
correspondent inference theory
focuses on the intentionality of a person’s behavior
when someone unexpectedly does something that either helps or hurts us, we form a dispositional attribution, we correlate the action to the person’s personality
fundamental attribution error
the bias toward making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions in regard to the actions of others
attribution substitution
occurs when individuals must make judgements that are complex but instead substitute a simpler solution or heuristic
actor observer bias
tendency to attribute your own actions to external causes and others’ actions to dispositional causes
stereotypes
COGNITIVE
occur when attitudes and impressions are based on limited and superficial information
self fulfilling prophecy
when stereotypes lead to expectations and those expectations create conditions that lead to confirmation of the stereotype
stereotype threat
concern or anxiety about confirming a negative stereotype about one’s social group
prejudice
AFFECTIVE
An irrational positive or negative attitude toward a person, group, or thing prior to an actual experience
ethnocentrism
refers to the practice of making judgements about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one’s own culture
cultural relativism
refers to the recognition that social groups and cultures should be studied on their own terms
discrimination
behavioral
when prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently from others
functionalism
focuses on the function of each part of society
manifest functions: deliberate actions that serve to help a given system
latent functions: unexpected, unintended, or unrecognized consequences of manifest actions
conflict theory
based on the works of Karl Marx
conflict theory focuses on how power differentials are created and contribute to maintaining social order
explains how groups compete for resources to attain power or superiority
conflict sociology
the study of the way that distinct groups compete for resources
symbolic interactionism
the study of the ways individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, gestures, and other symbols
the “meaning” of social symbols
micro-sociology
the study of expressions, symbolic gestures, and other small, individual components of society
social constructionism
explores the ways in which individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality
the “value” they place on certain social constructs
social constructionism focuses on altering that constructed view
rational choice theory
states that individuals will make decisions that maximize benefit and minimize harm
expectancy theory: applies rational choice theory within groups
feminism theory
explains the ways in which one gender can be subordinated
social institutions
well-established social structures that dictate certain patterns of behavior or relationships
4 tenets of medicine
beneficence, nonmalefience, respect for autonomy, and justice
material culture
refers to the physical objects, resources, and spaces that people use to define their culture
symbolic culture
indicates the ideas associated with a cultural group
cultural lag
the idea that material culture changes more quickly than symbolic culture
language
spoken or written symbols combined into a system
value
what a person deems important in life
belief
something a person considers to be true
ritual
formal ceremonial behavior, usually includes symbolism
demographics
statistics of populations
most common: age, gender, race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, and immigration
fertility rate
average number of children born to a woman during her lifetime in a population
birth and mortality rate
usually measured as the number of births or deaths per 1000 people per year
migration
the movement of people from one location to another
ethnic migrants
ethnic groups emigrating to more industrialized countries tend to have increased fertility AND increased mortality compared to the industrialized nation’s popularity
demographic transition
a model used to represent drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization
social movements
organized to either promote (proactive) or resist (reactive) social change
globalization
the process of integrating a global economy with free trade and tapping of foreign labor markets
urbanization
the process of dense areas of population creating a pull for migration
social stratification
the system by which society ranks categories of people into a hierarchy
functionalism
states that social stratification is necessary and results from the need for those with special intelligence, knowledge, and skills to be a part of the most important professions and occupations
a harmonious equilibrium
social class
a category of people with shared socioeconomic characteristics
prestige
respect and importance tied to specific occupations or associations
power
the capacity to influence people
anomie
the lack of social norms, or the breakdown of social bonds between individuals and society
strain theory
focuses on how anomic conditions can lead to deviance, and in turn reinforces social stratification
meritocracy
advancement up the social ladder is based on intellectual talent and achievement
social mobility
allows one to acquire higher-level employment opportunities by achieving required credentials and experience
absolute poverty
when one can’t acquire basic life necessities
relative poverty
when one is poor in comparison to a larger population
ex: “anyone who earns less than 60% of the median income is poor”
it is relative to the population, not based on a hard number value
relative deprivation theory
people seek to acquire something that others possess and which they believe they should have too. they are not necessarily poor, but they may perceive that they are lacking resources or money. it is all relative
social reproduction
the passing on of social inequality, especially poverty, from one generation to the next
spatial inequality
social stratification across territories
incidence
the number of NEW cases of a disease per population at risk
prevalence
the number of CURRENT cases of a disease per population
mortality
deaths caused by a given disease
morbidity
the burden or degree of illness associated with a given disease
affordable health care act
attempts to increase health insurance coverage rates and reduce the cost of health care
medicare
covers people greater than 65 years old, those with end-stage renal disease, and those with ALS
medicaid
covers patients in significant financial need
