Psychology / Sociology Flashcards
Top-down processing
beliefs, ideas, expectations guide perceptions
bottom-down processing
sensory input guides perception
Which psychophysiology concept determines how high the volume of the tone must be for participants to detect it roughly half the time
A) absolute threshold
B) difference threshold
C) just noticable difference
D) sensory adaptation
A) absolute threshold
Nonoverlapping confidence interval error bars
always imply a statisitcally significant difference between groups. The opposite is not always true
Researchers have identified a set of factors associated with an increased risk of developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, including low birth weight, respiratory infections before age 2 , low SES in childhood, adolescent smoking, and occupational exposure to airborne irritants as an adult.
This finding best reflects:
A) the sick role theory approach
B) the illness experience perspective
C) the social construction of chronic disease
D) the life course approach to illness
D) the life course approach to illness
The life course approach is a holistic, multidiscplinary framework for understanding how psychological, biological, and sociocultural factors across a lifetime have a cumulative effect on health outcomes
Common sense theory of emotion
Stimulus –> subjective epxerience of fear –> body response (arousal)
Report: “my heart is pounding because I am afraid”
James-Lange theory of emotion
stimulus –> body response (arousal) –> subjective experience of fear
“I am afraid because my heart is pounding”
Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
stimulus –> body response (arousal) + subjective experience of fear
“my heart is pounding and the wolf makes me feel afraid”
Schachter-Singer theory of emotion
stimulus –> body response (arousal) –> interpretation –> subjective experience
“my pounding heart signifies fear because I have appraised the situation as dangerous”
Which statement best identifies the promotion of false consciousness in popular media? A magazine article about heart disease in women that emphasizes the role of:
A) genetics in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of social influences on disease etiology
B) global inequalities in access to health care, which lead to growing disparities in mortality rates between nations
C) individual choices in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of systemic inequality in access to health care
D) social class inequalities in access to health care, which lead to unequal rates of heart disease among the wealthy and poor
C) individual choices in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of systemic inequality in access to health care
False consciousness: "This article is right: my poor health is entirely my fault." Class consciousness: "this article doesn't consider how much harder it is for people in my social class to see a doctor."
A study found that over time, compared to white immigrants, immigrants of color experience poorer health overall. The researchers hypothesized that these immigrants, while living in the US, are confronted with implicit and explicit negative messages about their outsider status as both a racial “minority” and as “immigrants,” which have a cumulative impact on their health. This hypothesisi is most related to which pair of factors?
A) intersectionality and racialization
B) cultural transmission and racialization
C) intersectionaly and stereotype threat
D) cultural transmission and stereotype threat
A) intersectionality and racialization
intersectionaltiy = describes how individuals hold multiple, interconnected, marginalized social identities that impact their lives, perspectives, and treatment in society
racialization = the process by which one group designates another group with a racial identity, often based on shared group qualities, such as physical attributes (skin color) or behaviors (religious practices). The designating group has more social power (dominant group) and exerts social control over the designated group, which has less social power (subordinate group)
Research has shown that when indiviudals consume the same food stimulus, they reach satiety faster compared to when they consume varied food stimuli. This finding suggestions that satieity, which involves a reduction in both physiological and behavioral responses to food stimuli, may be partly due to :
A) desensitization
B) habituation
C) operant conditioning
D) generalization
B) habituation
Appetitie and satiety are influened by internal and external cues. The research finding that when individuals consume the same food stimulus they reach satieity faster than when they consume varied food stimuli suggests that satiety may be partly due to habituation
Not desensitization. The research findings did not show an increased response followed by a decreased response
habituation
decreased response to a stimulus over time (no longer noticing that a sweater feels scratchy after wearing it for a few minutes)
dishabituation
a renewed response to a previously habituated stimulus (after taking off the sweater and putting it back on, it feels scratchy again
sensitizaiton
increased response to a stimulus over time (sweater’s scrachiness becomes more irritating until it is unbearable)
desensitization
decrease response to a previously sensitived stimulus over time (irritation from previously unbearable scratchiness diminishes over time)
In a two-part procedure for teaching children with diabetes to self-inject insulin, a child is first shown a video of same-aged peers self-injecting insulin and is then given a sticker for each attempt to self-inject. This procedure utilizes:
A) classical conditioning and secondary reinforcement
B) classical conditioning and a token economy
C) observational learning and a token economy
D) observational learning and secondary reinfocement
D) observational learning and secondary reinfocement
not a token economy because no trade
primary reinforcers
naturally rewarding (eg, candy)
secondary reinforcers
conditioned to be desirable (eg, candy)
Symptoms of a myocardial infarction can differ between individuals, Women who experienced a myocardial infarction were later interviewed by a researcher about their decision to seek treatment. Many participants noted they delayed seeking treatment because their symptoms didn’t match the prototypical heart attack symptoms they had seen in the media. Which concept best explains this phenomenon?
A) representative heuristic
B0 available heuristic
C) actor observer bias
D) hindsight bias
A) representative heuristic
availability heuristic
how easily something comes to memory (eg, assuming shark attacks are common after seeing one reported on the news)
representativeness heuristic
how well something matches a mental prototype (assuming a woman dressed in scrubs is a nurse rather than a surgeon)
A researcher is testing a patient’s neurological function. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient’s right visual field, he can correctly vocalize what he saw. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient’s left visual field, he is unable to saw what he saw but can correctly draw it. Which of the following is most likely damaged in this patient?
A) left retina
B) wernicke area
C) right occiptal crtex
D) corpus callosum
D) corpus callosum
Individuals with split-brain syndrmoe have a severed corpus callosum, preventing interhemispheric communication
Which best exemplifies instinctive drift?
A) childrne are born with a biological predispostion to prefer sweet foods and to dislike bitter foods, which are more likely to be toxic
B) in humans it is easier to condition a fear response to innately dangerous stimuli, such as snakes, than to harmless stimuli, such as rabbits
C) animals trained to perform a specific behavior will often lose that behavior in favor of innate behaviors, even when reinforcement is present
D) animals who become ill after one exposure to a noxiosu stimulus will quickly learn to avoid that stimulus in the future
C) animals trained to perform a specific behavior will often lose that behavior in favor of innate behaviors, even when reinforcement is present
role exit
indiviudal disengages from a social role, often replacing it with a new social role
Ex: a college student graduates and begins a full-time employment
Which statement most accurately applies the general adaptation syndrome to the stress associated with parentign children with disabilities (p. 1)
A) the stress resulting from the prejudice of others would not impact physiological processes because it is a social stressor
B) at the first onset of a child’s symptoms, parents increased resistance to stress
C) the physiological impact of parenting a child with a serious disability will be similar for all parents
D) as a child’s medical condition continues over a prolonged period, parents experienced decreased resistance to stress
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D) as a child’s medical condition continues over a prolonged period, parents experienced decreased resistance to stress
- Alarm : decreased resistance to stress
- Resistance : increased resistance to stress
- Exhaustion: decreased resistance to stress
The humanisitic psychotherapy peer mentor would habe been most likely to have participants focus on:
A) accepting the circumstances of their child’s condition and pursuing personal growth
B) replacing negative, maladaptive thoughts with positive, adaptive thoughs
C) uncovering unconscious conflicts and feelings about their child’s condition
D) treating underlying physiological causes of their depression before engaging in therapy
A) accepting the circumstances of their child’s condition and pursuing personal growth
cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
attempts to change negative thoughts / belieds (cognitions) & maladative behaviors
various techniques (eg, desensitization, self-talk) used to replace destructive thoughts/behaviors with healthy ones
psychanalytic therapy (talk therapY)
attempts to uncover how unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood shape behaviros
various technqiues (eg, free association, dream analysis) used to analyze unconscious
humanistic therapy ( person-centered therapy)
attempts to empower individual to move toward self-actualization
unconditional positive regard & empathy used to encourage client to reach full potential
A researcher criticizes Study 1, claiming that nonrepresentative sampling led to results that may not apply to many families of children with disabilities. This criticism is most concerned with:
A) internal validity
B) reliability
C) confounding variables
D) generalizability
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D) generalizability
internal validity
describes causality
if a change in the independent variable is really causing a change in the dependent variable
major threats to:
- confounding variables
- selection bias
- maturation
- repeated testing
- regression toward the mean
increases as the experiment becomes more tightly controlled
decreases as experiment becomes more like the real world
external validity
describes generalizability
if the observed relationship applies outside the experiment to another situation or other people
major threats to:
- artificial research environment
- nonrepresentative sample
- measurement effects
decreases as experiment becomes more tightly controlled
increases as experiment becomes more like the real world
Inclusive fitness theory
direct fitness (# of offspring an organism produces) + indirect fitness (# of relatives an organism aids through altruistic behavior) –> overall fitness (# of genes passed on to next generation)
defining features of bureaucracies
- division of labor : specialized employees increase efficiency
- hierachial organization : centralized authority and clear chain of command
- standardization : formal procedures and rules increase uniformity and continuity
- impersonal : same impersonal criteria applied to all increase equality
secure attachment
- develops from sensitive, responsive caregivers
- infants readily explore a new environment when caregiver is near
- infants are distressed by a caregiver leaving and comforted on return
- associated with better long-term effects (more satisfaction in adult relationships, greater health outcomes)
insecure attachment
- develops from insensitive, unresponsive caregivers
- in a new environment, infants are apathetic or overly clingy toward caregiver
- infants are indifferent to, or not comforted by, a caregiver’s return
- associated with worse long-term effects (less satisfaction in adult relationships, worse health outcomes)
Which scenario best illustrates dishabitation? An ICU nurse:
A) finds the beeping from medical monitors increasingly annoying over time
B) no longer notices the beeping from medical monitors over time
C) ignores the background noise of medical monitors beeping but notices and responds to a critical alarm
D) no longer noticed the beeping from medical monitors before vacation but notices it again upon returning to work
D) no longer noticed the beeping from medical monitors before vacation but notices it again upon returning to work
factors correlated with increased obedience
- personal factors
status: lower status, less power - situational factors
proximity: authority figure is closer, victim is farther away
legitimacy: authority figure seems more legitimate, prestigious
consensus: everyone else is obeying - cultural factors
collectivism: societies that value the group over the individual
normative organization
membership is based on shared goals and/or values
utilitarian organization
membership is driven by compensation (eg money or certification/diplomas)
coercive organization
membership is not freely chosen and/or maintained
dissociative identity disorder
presence of two or more distinct personalities; amnesia
dissociative amnesia
inability to recall important authobiographical information
Cluster A personality disorders
Odd/ecentric
Paranoid
Schizoid
Schizotypal
Cluster B personality disorders
Dramatic/emotional/erratic
Antisocial
borderline
histrionic
narcissistic
cluster c personality disorders
anxious/fearful
avoidant
dependent
obsessive-compulsive
somatic symptom disorder
extreme concern regarding one or more physical symptoms (eg fatigue, pain)
conversion disorder
“neurological symptoms” (eg paralysis, blindness) that are not explainable by a medical condition
illness anxiety disorder
preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious disease (eg HIV, cancer)
factitious disorder
symptoms or illness are intentionally fabricated without obvious external gain (eg disability benefits)
functionalism
society = an organism
each part of society works to maintain dynamic equilibrium (homeostasis)
macrosociology
functionalism theorists
emile durkheim, talcott parsons
conflict theory
soceity = struggle for limited resources
inequality based on social class
macrosociology
conflict theory theorists
karl marx, max weber
social constructionism theory
social actors define what is real
knowledge about world based on interactions
macro or micro sociology
symbolic interactionism
meaning and value attached to symbols
individual interactions based on these symbols
microsociology
symbolic interactionism theorists
charles cooley, george herbert mead
rational choice / social exchange theory
individual behaviors and interactions attempt to maximize personal gain and minimize personal cost
microsociology
feminist theory
examines gender inequality in society
macro or micro sociology
denial
inability or refusal to recognize unacceptable thoughts/behaviors
EX: insisting one is not angry when actually angry
projection
attributing unacceptable thoughts/behaviors to someone or something else
EX: calling the sidewalk stupid after tripping
rationalization
making excuses for unacceptable thoughts/behaviors
ex: justifying cheating because the course is impossible
regression
behaving as if much younger to avoid unacceptable thoughts/behaviors
ex: moving back in with parents to avoid personal responsibilities
repression
blocking unacceptable thoughts/behaviors from consciousness
ex: being unaware of a traumatic past experience
displacement
taking out unacceptable thoughts/behaviros on a safe target
ex: punching a pillow when angry at parents
sublimation
transforming unacceptable thoughts/behaviors into acceptable ones
ex: taking up boxing as a way to channel one’s anger
reaction formation
behaving in a manner opposite unacceptable thoughts/behaviors
ex: expressing love for a person one despises
escape learning
current undesirable stimulus removed
ex: teenager fakes illness while doing dishes, gets to stop
avoidance learning
future undesirable stimulus prevented
ex: teenager stays late at school to avoid evening chores
At an inpatient hospital, patients are encouraged to engage in certain behaviors through reinforcement. Each time a patient engages in a desired behavior, they are given a secondary reinforcer, which can be exchanged for more attractive rewards. This scenario illustrates which of the following?
A) modeling
B) classical conditioning
C) token economy
D) stimulus generalizaiton
C) token economy
Which of the following sets of symptoms is most consistent with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder? A 39 year old man who reports:
A) difficulty sleeping, fatigue, low appetite, and loss of interest in activities he previously enjoyed
B) repeated surges of overwhelming anxiety with racing heart, difficulty breathing, sweating, and a fear that he is losing his mind
C) an exaggerated startle response, nightmares, avoidance of certain situations, and negative thoughts and moods
D) difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, fatigue, and worry about his health, finances, and family
D) difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, fatigue, and worry about his health, finances, and family
widespread worry and multiple physical symptoms
generalized anxiety disorder
- excessive, uncontrollable worry about a range of topics
- muscle tension; difficulty concentrating or sleeping, feeling restless, fatigued, or irritable
panic disorder
-repeated, uncontrollable, and predictable panic attacks (ie overwhelming surges of anxiety that peak within minutes)
specific phobia
excessive, irrational fear of a specific situation (eg, flying) or animal/object (eg, spiders)
social anxiety disorder / social phobia
intense fear of scrutiny or rejection in social situations (eg public speaking, asking someone on a date)
Demographic Transition Model Stage 1
In preindustrial societies, birth and death rates are both high and population growth is slow
Demographic Transition Model stage 2
as societies begin to industrialize, death rates drop as food/medicine availability and sanitation increase, and population growth is rapid
Demographic Transition Model Stage 3
As societities urbanization, the population continues to grow, but birth rates begin to decline as access to contraception increases
Demographic Transition Model Stage 4
in developed societies, birth and death rates are both low and population growth is slow
Demographic Transition Model stage 5
for highly developed societies with very low birth rates, the population may decline
Population pyramid of a population that is most likely to decrease in size in near future
peak population at age 15, thin out as age increases and decreases
expanding population pyramids
broad bases (lots of younger people) and narrow tops (few older people) and are characteristic of developing countries with high birth/death rates and an increasing population size
stationary population pyramids
broad bases and broad tops, characteristic of developed countries with low birth/death rates and a stable population size
contracting population pyramids
narrower bases than midlines and are characteristic of developed countries with very low birth rates and a gradually population size
A survey of medical students found that most believe the surgical specialty has its own clearly defined “masculine” subculture, and that to succeed as surgeons, individuals need to “adopt masculine characteristics.” These beliefs best reflect which aspect of surgical medical education?
A) teacher expectancy
B) manifest functions
C) hidden curriculum
D) material culture
C) hidden curriculum
stimulants
speeds up CNS function, elevates mood
ex: amphetamines, cocaine
depressants
slows down CNS function
EX; alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazapines
narcotic analgesics “painkillers”
lessen sensation of pain
Ex: morphine, codeine, heroin
hallucinogens
triggers mind-altering effects
ex: lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Which of the following scenarios best represents intragenerational vertical mobility?
A) an hourly wage employee has a son who becomes a neurosurgeon
B) a cardiologist loses her medical license and struggles to find a new job
C) a general surgeon in Denver moves his surgical practice to Dallas
D) a dentist inherits his mother’s dental practice
B) a cardiologist loses her medical license and struggles to find a new job
intragenerational horizontal mobility
no change in status
ex: doctor moves her practice from Atlanta to Chicago
intragenerational upward mobility
increase in social status , 1 generation
ex: after 10 years, nurse goes back to school to earn MD
intragenerational downward mobility
decrease in social status, 1 generation
ex: doctor loses license to practice medicine
intergenerational horizontal mobility
no change in status, 2+ generations
ex: son of doctors becomes a doctor
intergenerational upward mobility
increase in social status, 2+ generations
ex: son of high school dropouts becomes a doctor
intergenerational downward mobility
decrease in social status, 2+ generations
ex: son of doctors becomes a high school dropout
caste system
- individual social status is ascribed from birth
- social groupings are rigid
- social mobility is very difficult
class system
- individual social status is at least partially achieved through merit (eg, ability, hard work)
- social groupings are flexible/fluid
- social mobility is possible
A patient who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed a neuroleptic medication. Which of the following symptoms, if present, is this medication most likely to improve?
A) apathy
B) inability to experience pleasure
C) emotional flattening
D) disorganized speech
D) disorganized speech
neuroleptic / antipsychotic mediations are effective in reducing positive symptoms
in-group
group to which an indiviudal identifies and belongs, others in in-group viewed favorable
out-group
group to which an individual does not identify or belong, out-group members viewed unfavorably
reference group
comparison group to which an individual compares self, individual may or may not belong to this group
primary group
group of individuals who are emotionally close, smaller in size, high degree of interaction (eg family)
secondary group
group of individuals who come together to accomplish something, larger in size, more impersonal (eg, coworkers)
Compared to women’s social networks, men’s social networks tend to be larger, have more weak ties, and provide more information about work-related topics; therefore men’s social networks most likely confer
A) less social capital and less social mobility
B) more social capital and more social mobility
C) less social capital but more social mobility
D) more social capital but less social mobility
B) more social capital and more social mobility
social networks = informal and nonhierachial webs of interaction bewteen nodes, with are linked by ties. Nodes can be individuals or organizations. Ties describe the connections between the nodes and are defined as strong or weak. Weak ties are loose/flimsy connections, such as those between acquaintances, whereas stronge ties are more solid connections, such as those between family and close friends
social capital = persons network that can be converted into economic gain. men’s networks are larger and provide more information about work-related topics, such as where there are job openings or promotion possibilities. Therefore, men’s networks connections confer more social capital because these connections can be more easily converted into economic gain
social mobility = movement of individuals, groups, or families between or within status categories in society (eg, from middle class to upper class). By providing more social captial (potential economic gain), men’s networks also provide more social mobility
Standardized protocols, patient checklists, and clinical guidelines are meant to increase efficiency, calculability, predictability, and control in the clinical setting. However, critics of standardizing medicine suggest that these sort of practices may lead to :
A) a manifest function of medical care
B) the McDonaldization of health care
C) an increase in the cultural capital of doctors
D) a decrease in the ascribed status of patients
B) the McDonaldization of health care
McDonaldization
Efficiency
- intended to increase optimization
- unintended result is decrease in individuality
- fast food ex: customer orders at register and cleans own table
- med ex: patient goes to a “minute clinic” for specific concerns
calculability
- intended to increase quantity
- unintended result is decrease in quality
- fast food ex: increased amount of food can be purchased
- med ex: increased number of patient can be seen
predictability
- intended to increase uniformity and standardization
- unintended result is decrease in uniqueness
- fast food ex: all restaurant chains appear the same, have the same products
- med ex: standardized patient checklists make appointments uniform
control
- increase in automation
- unintended result is decrease in skilled workforce
- fast food ex: pre-prepared frozen food
- med ex: electronic patient portals allow patients to see test results
modernization
the social progress and transition of a society brougt about by industrialzation. This process results in a society becoming less traditional and more bureaucratized, with a reduction in the importance of religion
secularization
reduced power of religion as religious involvement declines
fundamentalism
renewed commitment to traditional religion as a reaction to secularization
What prediction is compatible with the sociologist’ assertion in the fourth paragraph? The increase of medicalization will result in medical professionals having:
A) greater power and authority
B) reduced power and authority
C) greater authority, but no effect on their power
D) greater power, but no effect on authority
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A) greater power and authority
As medicalization increases in a society, individuals will increasinfly rely on medical professionals, rather than clergy, as legitmate sources of guidance on lifestyle behaviors. Therefore, medical professionals will have more power (ie, influence on people) and authority, as that power will be seen as legitimate
Alternative hypothesis
based on prior evidence and assumes that a significant relationship or difference exists between variables (and often predicts the nature of that relationship or difference)
null hypothesis
states that there is no significant difference or relationship between the variables measured
Erikson’s stage : 0-1
- infancy
- conflict: trust vs mistrust
- resolution: ability to have faith in others
Erikson’s stage : 1-3
- early childhood
- conflict: autonomy vs shame/doubt
- resolution: sense of self-control and independence
Erikson’s stage : 3-6
- play age
- initiative vs guilt
- resolution: ability to take initiative with peers
Erikson’s stage : 6-12
- school age
- conflict: initiative vs guilt
- resolution: sense of confidence in skills and abilities
Erikson’s stage : 12-20
- adolescence
- conflict: identity vs confusion
- resolution: sense of self-identiy
Erikson’s stage : 20-40
- early adulthood
- conflict: intimacy vs isolation
- resoltuion: ability to commit to and love others
Erikson’s stage : 40-65
- middle age
- conflict: generativity vs stagnation
- resolution: concern for others and society
Erikson’s stage : >65
- old age
- conflict: integrity vs despair
- resolution: sense of accomplishment and fulfillment
A feminist theories would be most interested in which of the following?
A) equalizing pay between females in pink-collar and blue-collar occupations
B) removing barriers to entry in all occupations for females
C) creating more access for males in pink-collar occupations
D) balancing the percentage of females in males within each occupation
B) removing barriers to entry in all occupations for females
Not D because balancing the numbers would seem to remove career choice, which is not a feminist goal. Removing the barriers so that all occuptations become legitimate options for females would be the feminist focus
mechanoreceptors
- detect movement
- stimuli: sound waves, touch
- ex: hair cells (ear)
chemoreceptors
- detects chemicals
- stimuli: molecules, solutes
- ex: taste buds (tongue)
thermoreceptors
- detects temperature
- stimuli: heat, cold
- ex: skin
photoreceptors
- detects light waves
- stimuli: visible light
- ex: rods, cones (retina)
sensorimotor stage
- <2 years
- experiencing the environment via senses and actions
- object permanence
- stranger anxiety
pre-operational stage (piaget)
- age 2-7
- representing real things with words and images
- pretend play
- egocentrism
- language development
concrete operational (piaget)
- age 7-11
- thinking logically about concrete events
- grasping concrete analogies
- performing arithmetic
- conservation
- mathematical transformation
formal operation (piaget)
- age >12
- thinking about hypothetical scenarios
- grasping abstract thought
- abstract logic
- moral reasoning develops
folkways
ex: wearing clothes backward
- least deviant
- minor punishments (eg, staring)
mores
ex: wearing no clothes in public
- more deviant
- more serious punishment (eg, arrest)
taboos
ex: incest, suicide
- most deviant
- most serious punishment (eg, incarceration)
ascribed status
assigned social position (eg, race)
achieved status
attained social position (eg, doctor)
master status
dominant social position (eg, ex-convict)
stereotypes
generalized beliefs (good or bad) about social groups , based on cognition
prejudice
negative belief & feeling about someone based on membership in a social group, based on emotion
Besides reducing stereotype threat, the presence of a cultural liasion during a doctor’s appointment increases:
A) the number of group members, making groupthink more likely
B) the number of group members, making group polarization more likely
C) the number of social ties, making the group more stable
D) the number of social ties, making the group more intimate
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C) the number of social ties, making the group more stable
dyad
- 2 members
- 1 social tie
- more intimate
- group ceases to exist if one member withdraws
triad
- 3 membres
- up to 3 social ties
- one member can leave and group still exists
tetrad
- 4 members
- up to 6 social ties
- tends to be the least stable
- will usually split into 2 groups of 2
larger groups
- 5+ members
- many social ties
- social processes may occur (eg, groupthink, social loafing)
A researcher wants to train a mouse to run on an exercise wheel. the LEAST effective way to train this new behavior would involve
A) rewarding the mouse at first for touching the wheel, then for climbing on it, then for running on it
B) providing reinforcement every 5 minutes, as long as the mouse runs on the wheel at some point during that time
C) first depriving the mouse of food for 24 hours, then using food pellets as a reward
D) providing positive reinforcement each time the mouse runs on the exercise wheel
B) providing reinforcement every 5 minutes, as long as the mouse runs on the wheel at some point during that time
A fixed-interval reinforcement schedule is not an optimal way to train an animal to perform a new behavior because it is more difficult for the animal associate the desired behavior with the reward
A woman who wants a baby but is opposed to using medical intervention to become pregnant is informed by her doctor that she will never conceive without medical intervention. Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that this woman is most likely to do all of the following, except:
A) seek a second opinion from another doctor
B) change her attitude about using medical intervention to become pregnant
C) accept her doctor’s diagnosis while maintaining her own opposition to medical intervention
D) decide that she does not want to have a baby
C) accept her doctor’s diagnosis while maintaining her own opposition to medical intervention
this action would maintain the dissonance
preparatory stage: theory of the social self (george herbert mead)
- infancy, toddler
- imitation: often lacks understanding
- “i”
play stage: theory of the social self (george herbert mead)
- preschool age
- role-taking: taking on role of specific others
- transitioning from “i” to “me”
game stage: theory of the social self (george herbert mead)
- school age
- generalized other: understanding all roles & overarching rules
- “me”
Before Sarah sought therapy, her cleaning rituals acted as:
A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) positive punishment
D) negative punishment
B) negative reinforcement
undesirable stimulus is removed, encourages behavior to happen again
Sarah’s cleaning rituals act as negative reinforcement because she experienced a reduction in anxeity (ie removal of an undesirable stimulus) after performing cleaning rituals, leading her to perform the cleaning rituals more often (behavior increases)
A conditioned fear response during phase 2 occurs as a result of which type of memory?
A) implicit memory
B) procedural memory
C) explicit memory
D) semantic memory
A) implicit memory
emotional/reflexive
Based on the passage and the principles of taste aversion, which strategy should physicians suggest to their patients undergoing chemotherapy? On the day of chemotherapy, patients should
A) pair their favorite foods with a novel beverage
B) eat their favorite foods several hours before chemo treatment
C) only consume favorite beverages, not water
D) avoid eating their favorite foods entirely
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D) avoid eating their favorite foods entirely
This strategy will prevent patients from developing a taste aversion to these foods. If a favored food is consumed prior to the experience of nausea (resulting from chemo), it is possible that the food will be permanently associated with the nausea
In a follow up to study 2, the control participants returend to the chemotherapy room to fill out surveys every day for a week after their final chemo treatment. By the end of the week, particiants anticipatory nausea had significantly decreased. This initiates which phenomenon?
A) acquistion
B) stimulus
C) extinction ‘
D) spontaneous recovery
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C) extinction
If the control participants repeatedly return to the chemotherapy room to fill out surveys, they would experience the conditioned stimulus (ie, the room, equipment) in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus (chemotherapy medication) which should result in a reduction of the conditioned resposne (ie, AN)
If the survey from Study 3 that assessed the patients’ level of AN was determined to be reliable, which of the following statements is true:
A) researchers can confidently extrapolate from study 3 to all patients with cancer
B) survey administration is consistent across medical settings
C) the survey is an accurate measure of nausea symptoms
D) nausea scores on the survey will be similar from one survey administration to the next
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D) nausea scores on the survey will be similar from one survey administration to the next
randomized controlled trial
- experimental
- random allocation into treatment & placebo groups
- can determine efficacy of the intervention
nonrandomized design
- nonrandom allocation into treatment and placebal groups
- can determine efficacy of the intervention
- experimental
longitudinal
- observational
- data gathered at multiple time points
- can assess risk factors or outcomes
cross-sectional
observational
- data gathered at one point in time
- can determine prevalence of an outcome in a population
case-control
- observational
- data gathered from individuals with the condition of interest (cases) and compared to individuals without the condition (controls)
case study
- observational
- detailed information gathered about one individual (or a small group of individuals)
meta-analysis
- review
- data from multiple studies are statistically combined and analyzed
sick role theory (talcott parsons)
rights
- exemption from normal social roles and responsibilities
- lack of accountability for illness
obligations
- must attempt to get well
- must seek and comply with treatment
The biomedical approach to mental illness is best demonstrated by:
A) the systematic underdiagnosis of BD by the medical community
B) pharmaceutical companies attempting to raise awareness about BD
C) BD patients’ inability to recognize symptoms of mania as problematic
D) proactive strategies encouraging self-identification of manic symptoms
B) pharmaceutical companies attempting to raise awareness about BD
activity approach to aging
remaining physically and socially active improves quality of life for older adults
continuity approach to aging
older adults attempt to maintain the habits and behaviors from their youth
disengagement approach to aging
older adults withdraw from social relationships/society as society withdraws from them
life course theory
aging viewed holistically in terms of social, biological, cultural, and psychological contexts
fertility rate
measure of the number of people being added to a given population through birth (as opposed to immigration)
total fertility rate
the average number of children born per woman during her lifetime
The interactionist theory of language development suggests that
A) praise for speaking a new word reinforces young children to say that word again
B) children who are deprived of language exposure early in life are unable to achieve full fluency
C) young children are unable to think about concepts for which they have not yet learned the words
D) innate factors combined with contact between children and their caregivers produce language
D) innate factors combined with contact between children and their caregivers produce language
learning perspective of language
language acquisition learned via operant conditioning, language imitation and practice
nativist perspective of language
language acquisition is innate and biologically predetermined
-occurs during a critical (time-sensitive) period early in life
interactionist perspective of language
language acquisition is biological (due to normal brain development) and social (due to interaction, reinforcement, desire/motivation to communicate)
Which of the following best explains the role of social facilitation in accounting for the results of Study 2?
A) Individuals perfrom more efficiently when they know they are being observed compared to when they know they are not being observed
B) individuals prefer to perform familiar tasks in the presence of others but unfamiliar tasks when alone
C) An indivudal’s performance is less predictable when acting in the presence of others than when acting alone
D) the impact that the presence of others has on an individual’s performance depends on the nature of the task
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D) the impact that the presence of others has on an individual’s performance depends on the nature of the task
social facilitation : enhanced performance of familiar tasks
social impairment: impaired performance of unfamiliar tasks
A researcher in Study 1 beleives the results are due to deindividuation. Is this conclusion justified?
A) No, because races in which individuals are being timed do not impair personal responsibility
B) No, because bicycle races do not involve groups that are large enough to influence behavior
C) Yes, because large bicycle races induce feelings of anonymity among competitiors
D) Yes, because team competition reduces one’s sense of personal identity
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A) No, because races in which individuals are being timed do not impair personal responsibility
Dramaturgical approach to understanding behavior
Front-stage self
- behavior in social situation s
- “actor” performs based on expectations of the “audience”
- impression management: meant to shape perceptions of others
- focus on appearance, manners, and social status
Back-stage self
- behavior in private
- “actor” can relax and no longer needs to perform
- behavior is spontaneous and free from evaluation or judgement by others
To test whether the process of deliberation described in the passage had its hypothesized effect (paragraph 3) , researchers would need to operationalize which dependent variable?
A) deliberation
B) patient’s weight
C) psychological reaction
D) number of options presented to the patient
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C) psychological reaction
Not B - hypothesis was deliberation would result in the reduction or avoidance of psychological reactance, not weight loss
How would incentive theory explain a patient’s motivation for continuing to smoke?
A) smoking is a more immediate external motivator than the reward of future health
B) smokers are motivated to continue smoking due to a physical addiction to nicotine
C) smokers are internally motivated to preserve their freedom to smoke
D) smoking reduces undesirable with-drawl symptoms
A) smoking is a more immediate external motivator than the reward of future health
incentive theory: external, positive rewards motivate behavior
Korsakoff syndrome
Symptoms
- Memory loss
- Confabulation (memory fabrication without the intension to lie)
Causes
-Extreme thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency resulting from chronic alcohol consumption, eating disorders and/or chronic malnutrition
treatment/prognosis
-vitamin B1 supplementation can reverse most/all symptoms if caught early
Matching healthy control group in terms of age, gender, and premorbid IQ was meant to account for all of the following except:
A) biological factors that affect cognition
B) influence of environment on cognitive development
C) cognitive changes that occur in late adulthood
D) correlation between types of intelligence
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B) influence of environment on cognitive development
Central executive
- Working memory
- regulates attention and task switching
visuospatial sketchpad
- working memory
- employed when manipulating visual and/or spatial information
phonological loop
- working memory
- employed when manipulating spoken and written information
episodic buffer
- working memory
- responsible for temporal processing (understanding the timeline of events) and integrating information from long-term memory into working memory (eg, remembering how to multiply when figuring out a tip at a restaurant)
Researchers designed the two distraction conditions to require multitasking and predicted that the hands-free conversation condition would be less distracting than the texting condition because of:
A) task dissimilarity
B) the cocktail party effect
C) the interference effect
D) speech shadowing
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A) task dissimilarity
divided attention / multitasking
task similarity
- easy: dissimilar tasks (listening to an audiobook while running)
- hard: similar tasks (listening to audiobook while writing a paper)
task difficulty
task practice
personal identity
intragroup: different from other in-group members
- defined by one’s self
- experience self as an individual
social identity
- intergroup: different from out-group members
- defined by society
- experience self as a member of a group
EEG / electroencephalogram
- electrodes placed on scalp and connected to an amplifier
- measures voltage fluctuations in the brain over time
CT / computerized tomography
- computer combines multiple x-rays taken at different angles
- measures detailed structure of internal organs & tissues at a single point in time
functional magnetic resonance imaging / fMRI
- scanner detects the differential properties of oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin
- changes in blood oxygenation in the brain over time
positron emission tomography (PET)
- scanner detects radioactive tracer attached to a glucose analog
- changes in glucose metabolism in the brain over time
On the implicit association test, faster response times when pairing negative traits with less sex catagorized faces most plausibly reflect:
A) dissonance
B) social stigma
C) discrimination
D) functional fixedness
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B) social stigma
Long-term potentiation
describes the neural changes responsible for learning, memory, and associations. Occurs when a neuron’s firing rate increases after repeated stimulation or simultaneous stimulation by multiple inputs (association). LTP results from an increase in neurotransmitter release and postsynaptic receptors
consanguineal kinship
based on genetic relationship (eg, biological parents)
affinal kinship
based on marriage (spouses)
fictive kinship
social ties that are not consanguineal or affinal (eg, adoptive children)
emotional support
love, affection, intimacy
esteem support
encouragement, confidence
tangible support
money, resources, food, a place to sleep when needed
informational support
advice, information
companionship support
mere presence, sharing in an activity
Sigmund Freud
- personality
- psychosexual development
- five psychosexual stages, focused on childhood
- unresolved childhood conflict impacts adult personality
erik erikson
- personality
- psychosocial develpoment
- eight psychosocial stages throughout life
- unresolved crisis at any age impacts adult personality
len vygotsky
- cognition
- sociocultural development
- child’s cognitive development based on social interaction
jean piaget
- cognition
- cognitive development
- four universal stages of childhood cognitive development
- cognitive development is based on age
lawrence kohlberg
- -moral development
- six stages of lifespan moral development
- most individuals do not progress past stage 3 or 4
three components of attitude
- affective (feelings about object)
- cognitive (beliefs about object)
- behavioral (behaviors related to object)
expectancy theory of motivation
- expectancy: belief that one will be able to achieve the desired outcome
ex: asking participants to rate how successful they will be - instrumentality : belief that one has control over the desired outcome
ex: asking participants to rate how much control they believe they have over their success - valence: value they placed on the desired outcome
ex: asking participants to rate how much they want to lose weight
Normative social influence is most likely to arise in the group
A) containing several members who have expertise regarding cancer
B) composed of all females from the same university
C) with an assigned group spokesperson
D) whose members are the most disparate in SES
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B) composed of all females from the same university
social influence when an individual conforms to fit in or avoid rejection by others
normative social influence
- individual conforms in order to fit in, gain approval, avoid disapproval/rejection
- most likely to occur when individual identifies with group members, wants to be accepted by the group
informational social influence
- individual conforms due to uncertainty of what to do, believing others know what to do
- most likely to occur when individual views other group members as experts
groupthink
causes
- biased leadership
- high group cohesiveness
- homogenity of group members
- stressful decision, external threats
- insulation from alternative viewpoints
group-characteristics
- closed-mindedness
- opposition demonized
- members pressured to conform
- dissent self-censored, suppressed
- overestimation of group power, group morality
causes of social loafing
- diffusion of responsibility: as group size increases, individuals feel less responsible for the success of the group
- lack of motivation: individuals perceive their efforts as less influential on the overall group performance
- avoidance of over-effort : no one wants to be the hardest working member of the group without being rewarded accordingly
- lack of oversight : without an arbiter recording each person’s effort, individuals feel able to get by with minimal effort
- non-cohesive group: when group members lack a sense of cohesion, social loading is more likely to occur
kohlberg’s preconventional stage
direct consequences to the individual
- obedience and punishment (avoiding punishment by authority, ex: i’m not going to steal because I’ll get spanked)
- self-interest (expecting equal exchange to further own self-interest, ex: i’ll help you if you help me)
kohlberg’s conventional stage
society’s norms and values
- conformity and interpersonal accord (wanting to be good to secure the approval of others, ex: I’ll do my homework so the teacher likes me)
- law and order (obeying laws of society, ex: i’m going to speed because it’s against the law)
kohlberg’s post-conventional stage
own ethical principles
- social contract (maxmizing benefit for the largest amount of people, ex: it’s okay to break a law if it saves a life
- universal ethical principles (following own ethical principle of justice above all else, ex: i take action against laws violating basic human rights)
symbolic culture
nonmaterial aspects of society used to communicate and convey meaning
ex: folklore, values, laws
material culture
physical items valued by society
ex: clothing, tools, computers
cultural transmission
passing on of information from an older generation to a younger generation
ex: a child learns how to cook from a parent
cultural diffusion
spreading of culture from one group to another
ex: people in the US celebrate cinco de mayo
Identity diffusion
low commitment, low exploration
people at this level lack direction, have not explored options, and have not committed to a particular career path or futre
identity foreclosure
high commitment, low exploration
people at this level have accepted an identity that they have been assigned (typically by a parent or authority figure) without contemplation or exploration
identity moratorium
low comittment, high exploration
people at this level are still trying new activities and thinking about a career path, but have not yet arrived at a decision
identity achievement
high commitment, high exploration
people at this level have explored their options and typically feel confident about who they are and what they want to do in their future
fluid intelligence
ability to apply logic and creative thinking to new situations
-decreases with age
crytstallized intelligence
ability to apply facts and acquired knowledge to situations
episodic memory
ex: buying first car, first day of college
decreases with age
flashbulb memory
ex: where you were during 9/11
decreases with age
source memory
ex: what news source reported the story, who announced the information
declines with age
stable with age
semantic memory
ex: names of people, colors, vocabulary
procedural memory
ex: riding a bike, driving a car, serving a tennis ball
stable with age
If the researchers in the third study wanted to test the influence of aging on context-dependent memory effects, they could:
A) show the faces to the older participants in one room, then move half of these participants to a new room to identify faces
B) show the faces to all participants in one room, then move half of the participants in each group to a new room to identify faces
C) provide background information about the faces to half of the older adult participants while faces are being memorized
D) provide background information about the faces to half of participants in each age group while faces are being memorized
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B) show the faces to all participants in one room, then move half of the participants in each group to a new room to identify faces
Context refers to the physical environment in which the original learning took place or the original memory was encoded. Context-dependent memory helps to explain. why, when you meet people in one context (eg, in class) and then run into them in another context (eg, at Starbucks), you may have trouble remembering their names or how you know them
In this example, if participants are first exposed to images of faces in one room, they are more likely to recognize those same faces if they are in the same room rather than if they are in a different room.
The design must be performed on participants from both age groups so that this effect can be compared. In this way, context-dependnet memory effects in the younger adults will serve as a baseline to determine the influence of aging on context-dependent memory effects
D) not D because background information or context would not influence context-dependent memory, which applies to the context in which memory is acquired and retrieved
Positive reinforcement
desirable stimulus added to encourage behavior
Ex: toddler gets candy for using the toilet
positive punishment
undesirable stimulus added to DISCOURAGE behavior
ex: toddler gets spanked for running into the street
negative reinforcement
undesirable stimulus taken away to encourage behavior
ex: teenager doesn’t have to do chores after getting all A’s
negative punishment
desirable stimulus TAKEN AWAY to discourage behavior
ex: teenager gets grounded for getting bad grades
fixed ratio
consistent, based on responses
reinforcement after consistent number of behaviors
rapid response rate, short pause after reward
variable ratio
behavior rewarded after an inconsistent number of responses, usually after some AVERAGE number of responses.
Ex: AVG3 (400547) schedule might provide a reward after four correct responses, then after two, then after three, and so on
rapid, steady response rate, most resistant to extinction
Fixed interval
behavior rewarded after a consistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred.
EX: exmployees who are paid a weekly salary receive the same amount of money each Friday regardless of how hard they have worked during the week
slower response rate after reward, faster response rate right before
variable interval
behavior rewarded after an inconsistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred.
EX: when awaiting an email, the frequency with which users refresh their in-boxes does not affect when a new email arrives
slow, and steady response rate, resistant to extinction
Suppose one of the participants in Study 1 earned several candy bars and became very ill after consuming them. This participant would most likely:
A) avoid participating in any future research studies
B) avoid playing computer games for awhile until she feels better
C) develop a long-lasting aversion to the specific candy bars she consumed
D) develop a short-term aversion to the candy bars available during the study
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C) develop a long-lasting aversion to the specific candy bars she consumed
aversions continue long-term!
central route of processing
- high-interest receiver
- deep processing of the message
- route of persuading: lasting attitude or behavior change
peripheral route of processing
- appeals to the low-ability receiver
- superficial processing of the message
- temporary attitude or behavior change
Which of the following cognitive biases is most analogous to the self-positivity bias?
A) actor-observer bias
B) confirmation bias
C) optimism bias
D) overconfidence bias
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C) optimism bias
Self-positivity bias, as described in passage, occurs when people believe they are less vulnerable to negative outcomes than other people
Optimism bias: describes the tendency for people to underestimaate the probability that bad things (eg, cancer, car accident) will happen to them. The two cognitive biases are most similar because each describes the human prediction for miscalculating the likelihood that adverse events will impact them
D) not overconfidence bias! This occurs when the degree to which people are sure of their belief is greater than the accuracy of that believe (ie, people overestimate their subjective knowledge compared to objective facts)
counterbalancing
used to control for the potential effects that the order of intervention administration may have on the results
ex: if participants were given two different interventions, A and B, a counterbalancing measure would involve separating participants into two groups, one receiving intervention A first, and the other receiving intervention B first
* if only one type of intervention used, then counterbalancing measures are not required
type I error
rejecting true null hypothesis , leads to the incorrect conclusion that there is a difference between groups (false positive
fail to reject null hypothesis
correctly concluded there is no difference
reject null hypothesis
correctly conclude that there is a true difference
type II error
false negative:
falsely conclude there is no difference
id
selfish, compelling us to seek pleasure and avoid pain
ego
realistic, compelling us to behave in ways that are socially acceptable, and acts as a mediator between the id and the superego
superego
moralistic and idealistic, compelling us toward perfection
parasomnias
disorders involving abnormal function of the nervous system during sleep
- most likely to occur in childhood
- ex: somnambulism, night terrors
dyssomnias
- disorders involving difficulty falling/staying asleep, poor sleep quality, inappropriate sleep timing
- most likely to occur during adulthood
- ex: insomnia, sleep apnea, narcolepsy
In which region of the brain would a lesion most likely disrupt the sleep/wake cycle?
A) anterior pituitary
B) posterior pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) hippocampus
C) hypothalamus
hypothalamus has several nuclei that have specialized functions; one of these nuclei is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which regulates the circadian pacemaker that controls circadian rhythms
photoreceptors in the retina project information about light levels to the SCN. When light levels are high, the SCN downregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland. When light levels are low, the SCN upregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland
Light levels regulate SCN activity, which regulates melatonin release and establishes an internal circadian clock. This clock mechanism helps maintain sleep patterns and other 24-hour circadian cycles, such as those involving blood pressure and core body temperature changes
Largest proportion of REM sleep occurs during
infancy , thought to aid the rapid neurological development seen during this period
What is the least applicable to a diagnosis of muscle dysmorphia?
A) persistent, intrust, and repetitive thoughts or urges
B) physical behaviors that help reduce anxiety
C) excessive, repetitive behaviors
D) obsession with losing weight
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D) obsession with losing weight
MD involves an obsession with a larger and more muscular body. An obsession with losing weight is the least applicable to a diagnosis
gestault principle of subjective contours
aka reification or illusory contours,
-describes how our mind fills in the gaps
Spatial disorientation experienced by pilots and divers would be least affected by information processed by the:
A) organ of corti
B) otolith organs
C) semicircular canals
D) somatosensory system
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A) organ of corti
maintenance of spatial orientation and balance relies on coordinated inout from the visual system, vestibulary system, and somatosensory system
How does steropsis contribute to the processing of 2D retinal images into objects having 3D depth?
A) The presence of rods and cones allows for processing different types of light
B) component attributes such as color, motion, and form, are integrated in the occipital lobe
C) the relative location of each retina allows for different images of the object to be processed
D) the movement of ciliary muscles controlling the lens provides depth cues to the cortex
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C) the relative location of each retina allows for different images of the object to be processed
Stereopsis = perception of depth that arises from the integrated information received from both eyes. Binocular depth cues allow accurate perception of depth through the integration of slightly different information from the left and right eyes
Binocular depth cues include retinal disparity and convergence:
- retinal disparity: distance between the two eyes, results in slightly different images projected onto the respective retinas. The closer an object or scene is to the two eyes, the more dramatic the disparity. Higher-order processing in the brain compares the difference between the 2D retinal images to help give rise to the perception of 3D depth.
- convergence : occurs because of the angular positioning of the eyes. The closer an object is to the observer, the more the eyes turn inward (or converge) to focus on that object. The brain interprets the angle of convergence as an indication of distance from the observer.
Binocular cues are less informative at great distances because retinal disparity and convergence decrease as distance increases. Therefore, monocular cues become more important for depth perception over great distances.
If you fixate on the black plus sign in the middle of this image without moving your eyes, the grey circle around the plus sign eventually disappears. Known as the Troxler effect, this occurs because of:
A) opponent processing
B) interposition
C) sensory adaptation
D) the blind spot
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C) sensory adaptation
Sensory adaptation = a diminshed response by the nervous system when presented with an unchanging stimulus over a period of time. Decreased nervous system responsiveness results in the diminished perception of that stimulus
According to the monoamine hypothesis:
A) abnormaly high serum cortisol levels underlie most depressive symptoms
B) abnormalities in a single neurotransmitter cause most depressive symptoms
C) abnormalities in various neurotransmitters cause depressive symptoms
D) DBS would be an ineffective treatment for depressive symptoms
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C) abnormalities in various neurotransmitters cause depressive symptoms
Monoamine hypothesis is a biomedical model of depression. Central to this hypothesis is the idea that depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters in the CNA directly causes depression symptoms. The monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) are neutrotransmitters that have a single amine group in their molecular structure and are associated with emotion regulation
Serotonin: associated with a positive mood, feelings of satisfaction, and social dominance.
Norepinephrine: in the CNS, enhances alertness, attention, and memory function
Dopamine: associated with feelings of pleasure and reward.
Support for the monoamine hypothesis comes from evidence that taking antidepressant medications that increase the levels of some or all of these neurotransmitters alleviates depression symptoms for many individuals
Which of the following brain regions is most likely the most effective DBS target for a Parkinson disease patient?
A) Amygdala
B) Basal ganglia
C) hippocampus
D) motor cortex
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B) Basal ganglia
Parkinson disease is a progressive neurogenerative disease cause dby death of dopaminergetic neurons in the substantia nigra, located in the midbrain. The substantia nigra is part of a group of neural structures collectively known as the basal ganglia, which are involved in the selection and execution of voluntary motor programs
D) not motor cortex, as motor cortex sends motor commpants from the brain to the muscles of the body. DBS of the motor cortex would likely cause disruptions in movement
Stimulation of the nucleus accumbens would be expected to alleviate which of the following symptoms of depression?
A) Anhedonia
B) difficulty concentrating
C) fatigue
D) insomnia
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A) Anhedonia
anhedonia = lack of pleasure
nucleus accumbens is a structure that is part of the reward pathway in the brain. The reward pathway also includes the ventral tegmental area (which produces dopamine) and portions of the prefrontal cortex. DBS of these structures could help alleviate symptoms of depression, as activation of the reward pathway is associated with feelings of pleasure and the reinforcement of rewarding behaviors
Which of the following is an inherent limitation in assessing the efficacy of DBS for controlling depression symptoms?
A) a placebo control group would be unethical
B) depressed patients are a vulnerable population
C) the benefits do not outweight the risks of the procuedure
D) the mechanism of action of DBS is unknown
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A) a placebo control group would be unethical
A placebo control group for this experiment would receive a sham surgery, with all of the same procedures as the treatment groups (including the insertion of electrodes into the brain), but without the electrical impulse.
Exposing patients to the risks associated with a surgical procedure (eg, infection, damage to brain tissue) for an inactive sham procedure would be unethical
In such cases, an active control group (in which the patient receives a standard approved treatment) is recommended for comparison
Which of the following is true regarding two classes of drugs commonly used to treat depression, SSRIs and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
A) both classes of drugs stimulate the release of serotonin into the synaptic cleft
B) SSRIs block uptake of serotonin into the post-synaptic neuron
C) MAOIs decrease the breakdown of serotonin within the pre-synaptic neuron
D) MAOIs promote uptake of serotonin into the pre-synaptic neuron
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C) MAOIs decrease the breakdown of serotonin within the pre-synaptic neuron
Antidepressant medications usually function via one of four general mechanisms:
1) increasing production of neurotransmitters within the presynaptic neuron
2) promoting release of neurotransmitters from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft
3) blocking reabsorption (reuptake) of neurotransmitters into the presynaptic neuron
4) decreasing breakdown of neurotransmitters within the presynaptic neuron
For instance, MAOIs inhibit monoamine oxidase, an enzyme attached to the mitochondria in axon terminals that catalyzes the oxidation (breakdown) of monoamines such as serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. This enzyme functions in the presynaptic neuron to recycle monomaines that have been removed from the synaptic cleft. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase therefore increases the cocentrations of monoamines in the axon terminal and eventually within the synaptic cleft.
SSRIs belong to another class of antidepressants that selectively block the reabsorption (reuptake) of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron, thereby prolonging the presence of serotonin in the synaptic cleft
Not B because reuptake inhibitors such as SSRIs block the uptake of neurotransmitters into the PREsynaptic cleft, where they were originalyl synthesized and released
The recall of which of the following should be most subjected to serial position effects?
A) the vocabulary words presented at the beginning and end of the list
B) the toy objects presented at the beginning and the end of the sequence
C) the vocabulary words that were the most familiar to the subjects
D) the toy objects to which the subjects had a personal connection
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B) the toy objects presented at the beginning and the end of the sequence
not the vocab words because these words were presented as a list and the students were allowed to study that list for 10 minutes, so there is no way to know how long and in what order they studied each definition. Because the vocabulary words were not presented one at a time (like the toy objects), recall would be less subject to serial position effects
Awake, relaxed (EEG)
alpha waves
sleep stage 1
EEG
theta waves
sleep stage 2
EEG
theta waves
sleep spindles
K complex
sleep stages 3&4
EEG
delta waves
social desirability bias
the tendency of research participants to provide the most favorable or acceptable responses to research questions.
Participants may overemphasize positive behaviiors (eg, studying), while downplaying or underreporting undesirable behaviors (eg, consuming alcohol)
In this study, the vocabulary recall task most directly assessed which of the following types of memory?
A) implicit
B) semantic
C) short-term
D) working
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B) semantic
Explicit/declarative memory is memory for facts and events that can be consciously or intentionally recalled, including:
- semantic memory, which includes knowledge about facts (eg, humans are mammals)
- episodic memory, which includes personal experiences (eg, what you ate for dinner last night)
during the testing phase of this study, students were asked to recall objects they had previously seen (episodic memory) and define vocabulary words they had previously studied (semantic memory). Therefore, the recall tasks in this study were most directly assessing these 2 aspects of explicit/declarative memory
If the students who related the toy objects and definitions to each other had higher than average recall scores, to which of the following might this be attributed?
I. Spreading activation
II. Semantic networks
III. Source monitoring
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I and II only
I. The spreading activation model suggests that when a node in the semantic network is activated (eg, viewing a picture of a toy fire engine), nodes directly connected to that node (eg, firefighter, alarm) are activated as well, which is known as priming. Spreading activation could account for better recall when students related the toy objects and definitions to each other.
II. Each individual has a uniqeuly organized semantic network according to the personal meaning associated with each node. It tends to be easier to recall information that is semantically relevant/meaningful. Therefore, better recall for students who related the toy objects and definitions to each other may be attributable to the use of semantic networks.
If a neuroimaging study compared normal dreaming with lucid dreaming, in what brain region would more activity be expected during lucid dreaming?
A) cerebellum
B) prefrontal cortex
C) amygdala
D) primary visual cortex
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B) prefrontal cortex
Prefrontal cortex is associated with executive functions, such as critical thinking, problem solving, planning, impulse control, and executive decision-making. Because lucid dreaming involves critical analysis and executive decision making, a neuroimaging study would be expected to demonstrate greater activation of the prefrontal cortex during lucid dreaming as compared with normal dreaming
box and whisker graph confidence interval
middle region!
see question 400140
Self-administration of nicotine in animal models is most likely suppressed by means of:
A) blocking dopaminergic pathways
B) blocking adrenergic pathways
C) enhancing dopaminergic pathways
D) enhancing adrenergic pathways
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A) blocking dopaminergic pathways
Rewarding stimuli including commonly abused drugs increase domaminergic activity in the brain by increasing the production of dopamine, interfering with its clearance from receptors, or directly stimulating dopamine receptors in the brain. In turn, the reward system is activated and the brain learns to associate the drug with reward.
Self-administration in animal models is used a measure of how addictive a substance is. The more addictive the drug, the more an animal will engage in self-administering behavior. Antagonists can be used to bind to receptors and block the activity of specific neurotransmitters. Studies show that blocking the activity of dopamine can disrupt the reward pathway and decrease addicitive behavior
Not C: Enhancing dopaminergic pathways would not suppress self-administration of nicotine in animal models, but would likely reinforce the behavior
A proponent of the universalism perspective would state that the results in Figure 1B support the belief that:
A) cognition is influenced by language
B) cognition is required for language
C) language and cognition develop via social interaction
D) language is necessary for cognition
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B) cognition is required for language
Universalism, the belief that cognition controls language, posits that certain cognitive processes are universal, so all human languages also possess certain universals (eg, nouns). Therefore, a universalist would interpret figure 1B as support for the belief that cognition is required for language development.
universalism (langauge and congnition)
cognition CONTROLS language
