Psychology Flashcards - Sheet1

MCAT Kaplan Psychology

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1
Q

What is the difference beteen biomedical and biopsychosocial approaches?

A

The biomedical approach sees psychological disorders in the lens of biomedical causes and solutions. This narrower view does not take into account the psychological, sociological, and environmental factors that cause psychological disorders. The biopsychosocial approach also looks at direct and indirect solutions to treatment.

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2
Q

What is the one year prevalence of psychological disorders and the 3 most common psychological disorders?

A

Any mental disorder - 26.2%; Specific phobia - 8.7%; Social anxiety disorder - 6.8%; Major depressive episode - 6.7%

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3
Q

What is schizophrenia? What do you need for a diagnosis?

A

Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder. You must have at least 2 symptoms for 6 months, one of which is delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech.

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4
Q

What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Positive symptoms include delusions (reference, grandeur, persecution, thought broadcasting, and thought insertion), hallucinations (auditory most common), and disorganized thought/actions (word salad/neologisms; catatonia/echolalia/echophraxia).

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5
Q

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Negative symptoms include disturbance of affect (blunting - loss of expressitivity; flat affect - no signs of emotional expression; inappropriate affect - discordant with the content of the individual’s speech) and avolition (decreased engagement in purposeful, goal-directed actions).

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6
Q

What is the prodromal phase?

A

Clear evidence of deterioration, social withdrawal, role functioning impairment, peculiar behaviour, inappropriate affect, and unusual experiences. This phase is followed by the active phase of symptomatic behavior. Slow onset&raquo_space; poor prognosis. Fast onsnet&raquo_space; good prognosis.

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7
Q

What is a major depressive disorder?

A

Mood disorder characterized by at least one major depressive episode (5 symptoms within a 2 week span, one of which is depressed mood or ahnedonia).

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8
Q

What does S+SIGECAPS stand for?

A

Major depressive disorder symptoms - Sadness+Anhedonia + Loss of sleep, Loss of interest, feelings of guilt and worthlessness, low energy, lack of concentration, loss of appetite, psychomotor functions affected, suicidal thoughts.

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9
Q

What is persistent depressive disorder?

A

Given to individuals who suffer from dysthymia (depressive mood that isn’t sever enough to meet the criteria of a major depressive episode most of the time for at least two years).

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10
Q

What is seasonal affective disorder?

A

Major depressive disorder with seasonal onset. Related to abnormal melatonin metabolism. Treatment is with bright light therapy.

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11
Q

What is the most common first line treatment for depression?

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs). Blocks the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron resulting in higher levels of serotonin in the synapse and relief of symptoms. INCREASE SEROTONIN.

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12
Q

What is bipolar disorder; I, II, and cyclothymic?

A

Major type of mood disorder characterized by both depression and mania. Bipolar Disorder I - manic episodes with or without major depressive episodes. Bipolar Disorder II - hypomania with major depressive episodes. Cyclothymic Disorder - hypomania with dysthymia.

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13
Q

What are manic episodes and how are they diagnosed?

A

Individual must exhibit an abnormal and persistently elevated mood lasting at least one week with at least three of the following DIGFAST symptoms.

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14
Q

What does DIGFAST stand for?

A

Manic episodes must consist of an abnormal and persistently elevated mood for at least a week with 3 of the following symptoms: Highly distracted, Insomnia, Grandiosity, Flights of idea (racing thoughts), Agitation, Pressure speech, and thoughtlesness (risky ideas).

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15
Q

What is hypomania?

A

Unimpaired functions nor are there psychotic features but individual may be more energetic or optimistic.

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16
Q

What is the monoamine or catecholamine theory of depression?

A

Depressive and manic episodes are two sides of the same coin. In depression, it is the low levels of norepinephrine and serotonin that cause the symptoms so treatment aims to increase these levels. In manic episodes, it is high levels of these neurotransmitters that cause the symptoms.

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17
Q

Are anxiety disorders more common in men or women?

A

Women

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18
Q

What is generalized anxiety disorder? Duration?

A

Disproportionate and persistent worry about many different things for at least six months. Physical symptoms include fatigue, muscle tension, and sleep problems.

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19
Q

What is specfic phobia disorder?

A

An irrational fear of something that results in a compelling desire to avoid it. Often caused by a specific object or situation.

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20
Q

What must clinicians rule out for all anxiety disorders?

A

Hyperthyroidism - excessive levels of thyroid hormones triiodothryonine and thyroxine increases the whole body’s metabolic rate creating anxiety-like symptoms.

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21
Q

What is social anxiety disorder?

A

Anxiety due to social situations. Individuals have fears when exposed to social situations like making a speech or using a public restroom.

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22
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

Fear of being in places or situations where it might be hard for the individual to escape. These individualsl tend to be uncomfortable leaving their homes for fear of a panic attack or exacerbation of another mental illness.

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23
Q

What is panic disorder?

A

Consists of repeated panic attacks (fear and apprehension, trembling, sweating, hyperventilation, and sense of unreality. Individuals struck with sense of impending doom and may be convinced they are about to lose their mind. Accompanied by agoraphobia because of the pervasive fear of having a panic attack in a public location.

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24
Q

What is obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A

Characterized by obsessives (persistent thought and impulses) that raise tension, which is released by compulsions (repetitive tasks). For example, obsession about dirt leads to washing hands.

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25
Q

What is body dysmorphic disorder?

A

Individual has an unrealistic negative evaluation of his or her appearance and attractiveness (even if they are normal), usual towards a certain body part. Body preoccupation disrupts day-to-day life and sufferer may seek multiple plastic surgeries or other extreme interventions.

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26
Q

What is PTSD?

A

Occurs after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Consists of intrusion, avoidant, negative cognitive, and arousal symptoms.

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27
Q

What are the four symptoms of PTSD

A

Intrusion - recurrent reliving of the events (flashbacks or nightmares); Avoidant - deliberate attempts to avoid memories associated with trauma; Negative cognitive - inability to recall key features of the event, negative outlook on life; Arousal - increased startle response, irritability, anxiety, and reckless behavior.

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28
Q

What are dissociative disorders?

A

Individual dissociates from his/her identity. Otherwise, person has still an intact sense of reality.

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29
Q

What is dissociative amnesia?

A

Characterized by inability to recall past experiences but not due to neurological disorders. Often linked to trauma. Individuals may also experience dissociative fugue (a sudden, unexpected move or purposeless wandering away from one’s home or location of usual daily activities). Individuals in a fugue state often are confused about their identity or make up a new identity.

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30
Q

What is dissociative identity disorder?

A

Formerly multiple personality disorder - two or more personalities that recurrently take control of a person’s behavior. Components of an identity fail to integrate due to severe physical or sexual abuse when young.

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31
Q

What is depersonalization/derealization?

A

Depersonalization - individuals feel detached from their own mind and body. Failure to recognize one’s own reflection/out-of-body experience; Derealization - individuals feel detached from reality. World has a dream-like substance or insubstantial quality. No displays of psychotic symptoms like delusions or hallucinations.

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32
Q

What is somatic symptom disorder?

A

At least one somatic symptom which may or may not be linked to an underlying medical condition, accompanied by disproportionate concerns about its seriousness, devotion of an excessive amount of time and energy, and increased anxiety.

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33
Q

What is illness anxiety disorder?

A

Consumed with thoughts about having or developing a serious medical condition. Individuals with this disorder are quick to become alarmed with their health. They would either go to their healthcare provider everytime or avoid them completely. They have this disorder if somatic symptoms are not present.

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34
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

Known as hysteria back in the day. Characterized by unexplained symptoms affective voluntary motor or sensory functions. Often experienced after a high-stress or traumatic event but may not develop until sometime has passed. Examples include paralysis or blindess.

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35
Q

What is la belle indifference?

A

Person may be unconcerned with the symptoms of conversion disorder.

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36
Q

What are the 10 types of personality disorders?

A

Paranoid, Schizotypal, Schizoid, Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissistic, Avoidant, Dependant, and Obsessive-Comppulsive.

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37
Q

What are the Cluster A personality disorders?

A

Paranoid PD - pervasive distrust of aothers and suspicion regarding their motives. Maybe prodormal schizophrenic. Schizotypal PD - patterns of odd or eccentric thinking; may have ideas of reference and magical thinking. For example, clairvoyance. Schizoid PD - detachment from social relationships and restricted range of emotional expression. Poor social skills.

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38
Q

What are the Cluster B personality disorders?

A

Antisocial PD - diregard for others and violation of their rights. Evidenced by repeated illegal acts, deceitfulness, and lack of remorse. Think serial killer. Borderline PD - pervasive instability of interpersonal behaviour, mood, and self-image. Relationships are often intense and unpredictable. Uncertainty in long term goals, values, identity, and belief. May use splitting where others are all good or bad. Self mutilation common. Histrionic PD - highly extroverted, needs to be center of attention. May use seduction behavior to gain attention. Narcissitic PD - grandiose sense of self-importance or uniqueness. Seeks constant admiration or attention. Often have fragile self-esteem and insecure. Feelings of shame and inferiority when not viewed favourably.

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39
Q

What are the Cluster C personality disorders?

A

Avoidant PD - extreme shyness and fear of rejection. Socially inept and socially isolated. Dependent PD - continuous need for reassurance. Remains dependent on one specific person to take actions or make decisions. Obsessive-compulsive PD - perfectionist, inflexible, likes rules and order, no sense of humour, lack desire for change, excessive stubborness. Type A persona.

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40
Q

What are some of the biological causes for schizophrenia?

A

Genetics, trauma at birth (hypoxemia), marijuana in adolescence, related to a family member with schizophrenia

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41
Q

What are treatments for schizophrenia?

A

Caused by high levels of dopamine. Dopamine receptor blockers for treatment. Structural changes also related.

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42
Q

What are the markers associated with depression?

A

Abnormally high glucose metabolism in amygala, hippocampal atrophy after long duration of illness, abnormally high levels of glucocorticoids (cortisol), and low levels of dopamine, serotonin, and noepinephrine (due to low production not inhibition, etc.)

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43
Q

What are the markers associated with manic episodes?

A

Increased norepinephrine and serotonin levels, related to someone with bipolar disorder, and MS.

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44
Q

What is Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Gradual memory loss, disorientation to time and place, problems with abstract thought, and tendency to misplace things. Later stages include changes to mood, personality, difficulty with procedural memory, poor judgment, and loss of initiatives. Common >65 and women.

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45
Q

What are the genetic causes of Alzheimer’s?

A

Mutations in presenilin genes (chr 1 and 14), apolipoprotein E (chr 19) and B-amyloid precursor proteins (chr 21). T21 at risk.

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46
Q

What are some markers for Alzheimer’s?

A

Reduction in levels of acetylcholine, metapolism in temporal and parietal lobes, plaques of b-amyloid, neurofibrillary tangles.

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47
Q

What is Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Characterized by bradykinesia, resting tremor, pill-rolling tremors, masklike facies, cogwheel rigidity, and shuffling gait.

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48
Q

What is the biological basis?

A

Decreased dopamine production in the substantia nigra lreading to improper functioning of the basal ganglia. L-DOPA used to replace dopamine lost. Stem cells used to regenerate dopaminergic neurons.

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49
Q

How is schizophrenia and Parkinson’s Disease related?

A

Dopamine levels (high in schizo, low in PD). Antipsychotic medications often lead to parkinsonian side effects and vice-versa.

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50
Q

What is self-concept?

A

The sum of the ways in which we describe ourselves; in the present, who we used to be, who we want to be. Does not include the ought self or tactical self, which is what we are viewed based on other people/society.

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51
Q

What is self-schema?

A

Self-given label carries with it a set of qualities; for example, med student or athlete. Leads to specific conduct or act given the label.

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52
Q

What is identity?

A

Individual components of our self-concept related to the groups which we belong; for example, religious affiliation, sexual orientation, and ethnic and national affiliations.

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53
Q

What is self-esteem and how does it related to the actual self and our ought self?

A

Self esteem is our evaluation of ourselves. Generally, the closer our actual self is to our ideal self and our ought self (who others want us to be), the higher our self esteem.

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54
Q

What is self-efficacy and how does it relate to learned helplessness?

A

Self-efficacy is the degree to which we see ourselves as being capable at a given skill or in a given situation. When placed in a consistently hopeless scenario, self-efficacy can be diminished to the point where learned helplessness results. Highly critical individuals (perfectionists) tend to have high self-efficacy but low self-esteem.

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55
Q

What is locus of control?

A

Locus of control is a self-evaluation that reers to the way we characterize the influences in our lives. Internal locus of control see successes and failures as a result of their own characteristics and actions while external locus of control perceive outside factors as having more influence in their lives.

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56
Q

What is androgyny and undifferentiated in terms of masculinity and femininity scores?

A

Androgyny - high masculinity and femininity scores. Undifferentiated - low masculinity and femininity scores.

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57
Q

What is ethnic identity? How is it different from nationality?

A

Members typically share a common ancestry, cultural heritage, and language. Nationality is based on political borders.

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58
Q

What is the hierarchy of salience as it relates to identity?

A

Our identities are organized according to the hierarchy of salience such that we let the situation dictate which identity holds the most importance for us at any given moment. The more salient the identity, the more we conform to the role expectations of the identities. It is determined by a number of factors including the amount of work we have invested, the rewards and gratification associated with the identity, and the amount of self-esteem we have associated with the identity.

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59
Q

What is Freud’s Psychosexual Development Theory?

A

Human psychology and sexuality are linked. Libido is present at birth and this libidinal energy and the drive to reduce libidinal tension were the underlying dynamic forces that accounted for human psychological processes. Fixation occurs when a child is overindulged or overly frustrated during a stage of development. Fixation leads to neurosis.

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60
Q

What is the first stage of Freud’s Psychosexual Theory?

A

Oral stage (0-1 years old). Fixation occurs with the mouth since gratification occurs through mouthing, biting, and sucking. An orally fixated adult would likely exhibit excessive dependency.

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61
Q

What is the second stage of Freud’s Psychosexual Theory?

A

Anal stage (1-3 years old). Fixation occurs around the anus since gratification is gained through elimination and retention of waste materials. Potty training also occurs at this stage. Fixation leads to excessive orderliness (anal-retentiveness) or slopiness as adults.

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62
Q

What is the third stage of Freud’s Psychosexual Theory?

A

Phallic stage (3-5 years old). Resolution of the Oedipal or Elektra conflict. Envious relationship of the child against the parent of same sex plus feelings of love for that parent leads to wanting to resolve the Oedipal or Elektra conflict. Libidnal energy is sublimated through schoolwork as well. Fixation at this stage - or failure to resolve the conlifts - leads to sexual dysfunction. Girls also have penis envy at this stage and are expected to exhibit less female behaviour and be less morally developed.

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63
Q

What is the fourth stage of Freud’s Psychosexual Theory?

A

Latency stage (5-12 years old). Sublimated libido at this stage&raquo_space; school work, etc. occupies the child’s mind

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64
Q

What is the fifth stage of Freud’s Psychosexual Theory?

A

Genital stage (12+). If previous stages have been successfully resolved, the person will enter into normal heterosexual relationships. If sexual traumas of childhood have not been resolved, such behaviours such as homosexuality, asexuality, or fetishism may be observed.

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65
Q

What is Erikson’s Pyschosocial Development Theory?

A

Personality development is based on a series of crises that derive from conflicts between needs and social demands. Emphasis on emotional development and interactions with social environment. Failure at resolving the conflict central to the stage is okay&raquo_space; movement to next stage occurs&raquo_space; but failure to do so leads to failure to gain the virtue at that stage. An individual carries the skills, traits, and virtue to subsequent stages.

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66
Q

What is the 1st conflict?

A

Trust v. Mistrust (0-1 years old). If resolved, child will come to trust his environment and himself. If not, child will be suspicious of the world.

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67
Q

What is the 2nd conflict?

A

Autonomy v. Shame/Doubt (1-3 years old). If resolved, child will feel he is able to exert control over the world and exercise his/her choices. If not, sense of doubt and external locus of control will be present.

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68
Q

What is the 3rd conflict?

A

Initiative v. Guilt (3-6 years old). If resolved,child will have sense of purpose, ability to initiate activity, and enjoy accomplishments. If not, child is overcome by the fear of punishment&raquo_space; leads to restrict himself or overcompensate by showing-off.

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69
Q

What is the 4th conflict?

A

Industry v. Inferiority (6-12 years old). If resolved, child will feel competent, be able to exercise his or her abilities and intelligence, and affect the world in the way he/she desires. If not, leads to sense of inadequacy, inability to act in a competent manner, and low self-esteem.

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70
Q

What is the 5th conflict?

A

Identity v. Role confusion (12-20 years old). The Physiological Revolution. If resolved, fidelity, ability to see oneself as unique, and integrated&raquo_space; sustained loyalties. If not, confusion about one’s identity.

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71
Q

What is the 6th conflict?

A

Intimacy v. Isolation (20-40 years old). If resolved, leads to ability to love, have intimate relationships, and ability to commit onself to another person, and one’s own goals. If not, avoidance of commitment, alienation, and distancing of oneself from others and one’s ideals.

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72
Q

What is the 7th conflict?

A

Generativity v. Stagnation (40-60 years old). If resolved, individual is capable of being productive, caring, and contributing member of society. If not, one acquires sense of stagnation, and may become self-indulgent, bored, and self-centered.

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73
Q

What is the 8th conflict?

A

Integrity v. Despair (60+). If resolved, detached concern with life itself, assurance in the meaning of life, dignity, and acceptance of death. If not, feeling that life has been worthless and fear of impending death.

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74
Q

What is Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning Theory?

A

This is not focused on resolving conflict or urges but rather the development of moral thinking. As our cognitive abilities grow, so does our ability to think about and resolve dilemmas and perceive the notion of right and wrong&raquo_space; growth of moral reasoning.

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75
Q

What is the Heinz dilemma?

A

Heinz has a wife who is dying of a rare disease. There is a druggist in town who invented a drug that could cure the disease. It costs 200 to produce but he sells it for 2000. Heinz cannot afford this price. Ultimately, Heinz stole the drug to save his wife. Answers to this question led to Kohlberg determining the six levels of moral reasoning.

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76
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd level of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning Theory?

A

Preconventional morality. Typically observed in children. Places emphasis on the consequences of the moral choice. 1st Level - Obedience - concerned with avoiding punishment. 2nd Level - Self-interest - concerned with the rewards with the choice (often called Instrumental Relativist Stage).

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77
Q

What is the 3rd and 4th level of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning Theory?

A

Conventional morality. Typically observed in adolescents. Places emphasis on the relationship of the individual with others. 3rd Level - Conformity - Good girl/boy stage - seeks approval of others and what everyone deems correct and good. 4th Level - Law & Order - maintains social order in the highest regard (if everyone stole, then people who produce those items cannot continue their business).

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78
Q

What is the 5th and 6th level of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning Theory?

A

Postconventional morality. Adulthood/Not everyone reaches this stage and is based on social mores and can conflict with the law. 5th Level - Social Contract - Views moral rules as conventions that are designed to ensure the greater good, with reasoning focused on the individual rights (everyone has a right to live, business have a right to make money&raquo_space; ultimately, we should value the individual rights). 6th Level - Universal Human Ethics - decisions should be made in consideration of abstract principles built by that individuals - can go against law, order, and society (it is wrong for one person to hold another’s life for ransom).

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79
Q

What is a criticism of Kohlberg’s Moral Reasoning?

A

Postconventional morality is more prevalent on individualistic rather than collectivist society. Kohlberg’s research was only performed using male subjects, which may cloud differences in reasoning patterns between men and women.

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80
Q

What is Vygotsky’s Cultural and Biosocial Development?

A

Focused on understanding cognitive development. The engine driving cognitive development was the child’s internalization of various aspects of culture: rules, symbols, language, and so on. Also known for his concept of zone of proximal development referring to skills and abilities not yet fully developed but are in the process of development. Gaining these skills requires the presence/help of a more knowledgeable other. Language also plays a big role is an accelerant to learning.

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81
Q

What is the Theory of Mind?

A

Ability to sense how another mind works. Once this develops, we begin to recognize and react to how others think about us.

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82
Q

Compare and contrast Mead and Cooley.

A

Others play a role in how we view ourselves. Cooley thought that everyone influences our self identity. Mead thought only some people can influence our self identity.

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83
Q

What is the I and me as defined by Mead?

A

The me is the social self. How the generalized other and society sees us. The I is the response to the me. The I thinks about what others think about us and steps in and makes adjustment to respond to the me.

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84
Q

What is the Looking Glass Self according to Cooley?

A

Cooley believed we are not actually being influenced by others but instead by what we imagine what others think about us (correct or incorrect perception about us). It is the combination of our own direct contemplation and what we believe others believe about us that leads to the development of our self identity. Our reactions to how others perceive us - maintaining, modifying, downplaying, or accentuating different aspects of our personality. Relies on others reflecting ourselves back to ourselves.

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85
Q

What is the prepatory, play, and game stage according to Mead?

A

Young children observe and encode the behaviours they see in others. The prepatory stage is imitation. The play stage is role-taking and pretend play. The game stage is the beginning to understand the generalized other (people perform in ways society expects them, people have multiple roles, people have different opinion of others).

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86
Q

What is personality? What are the four categories of Personality Theory?

A

Personality is the set of thoughts, feelings, traits, and behaviours that are characteristic of an individual across time and different locations. There are four categories: pyschoanalytic (psychodynamic), humanistic (phenomenological), type and trait, and behaviourist.

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87
Q

Define the psychoanalytic perspective.

A

Views personality as resulting from unconscious urges and desires

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88
Q

Define the humanistic perspective.

A

Emphasizes the internal feelings of healthy individuals as they strive towards happiness and self-realization.

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89
Q

Define the type and trait perspective.

A

Personality can be described as a number of identifiable traits that carry characteristic behaviour.

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90
Q

Define the behaviourist perspective.

A

Based on operant conditioning // holds that personality can be described as the behaviours one has learned from prior rewards and punishments.

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91
Q

Defined the social cognitive perspective.

A

Holds that individuals interact with their environment in a cycle called reciprocal determinism. People mold their environments according to their personalities, and those environments in turn shape our thoughts, feelings, and behaviours.

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92
Q

What is the id according to Freud? Define the pleasure principle and the primary process.

A

Consists of all the basic, primal, inborn urges to survive and reproduce. Functions according to the pleasure principle in which the aim is immediate gratification to relieve any pent up tension. The primary process is the id’s response to frustration: obtain satisfaction now, not later. Mental imagery that fulfills this need for satisfaction is termed wish fulfillment (daydream/fantasy).

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93
Q

What is the ego according to Freud? Define the reality principle and the secondary process.

A

Ego is the organizer of the mind: it receives its power from but can never really be fully independent of the id. Ego operates according to the reality principle, taking into account objective reality as it guides or inhibits the activity of the id and the id’s pleasure principle. This guidance is called the secondary process&raquo_space; postpone pleasure until satisfaction is actually obtained (not just mental imagery). Also responsible for moderating the desire of the superego.

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94
Q

What is the superego according to Freud? Define the conscience and the ego ideal.

A

Personality’s perfectionist, judging our actions and responding with pride at our accomplishments and guilt at our failures. The conscience is a collection of impromer actions for which a child is punished. Ego ideal consists of actions for which a child is rewarded.

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95
Q

How do the conscious, preconscious, and unconscious states relate to Freud’s theory?

A

The id lives in the unconscious. The ego lives in the conscious/preconscious. The superego lives in all three conscious states.

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96
Q

What is instinct according to Freud?

A

Innate psychological representation of a biological need.There are life and death instincts. Life - promote survival, thirst, hunger, sex. Death - unconscious wish for death and destruction (trauma victims reenacting or focusing on their traumatic experiences).

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97
Q

What are the defense mechanisms caused by the clash of the id and superego?

A

Repression, suppression, regression, reaction formation, projection, sublimation, displacement, and rationalization. Repression - undesired thoughts and urges to the unconscious. Suppression - conscious form of forgetting. Regression - reversion to an earlier developmental stage. Reaction formation - suppress urges by unconsciously converting them into their exact opposites. Projection - individuals attribute their undesired feelings to others (I hate my parents > My parents hate me). Rationalization - justification of behaviours in a manner that is acceptable to self and society. Displacement - transference of an undesired urge from one person or object to another (boss angry at him > him angry at dog). Sublimation - transformation of unacceptable urges into socially acceptable behaviours.

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98
Q

What is Carl Jung’s theory of personality?

A

Not focused on sexuality. He divided the unconscious into a personal unconscious (similar to Freud’s unconscious) and a collective unconscious - a powerful system that is shared among all humans and considered to be a residue of the experiences of our early ancestors. These archetypes build the collective unconscious.

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99
Q

What is the persona Jung archetype?

A

The mask we wear in public and is part of the personality we present to the world

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100
Q

What is the anima Jung archetype?

A

A man’s inner woman - explains emotional behaviour in men

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101
Q

What is the animus Jung archetype?

A

A woman’s inner man - explains power-seeking behaviour in women

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102
Q

What is the shadow Jung achetype?

A

Unpleasant and socially reprehensible thoughts, feelings, and actions.

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103
Q

What is the self according to Jung?

A

The point of intersection between the collective unconscious, personal unconscious, and conscious mind.

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104
Q

What did Alfred Adler’s Theory focused on?

A

He was focused on the immediate social imperatives of family and society and their effects on unconscious factors. He was the originator of the concept of inferiority complex: an individual’s sense of incompleteness, imperfection, and inferiority both physically and socially. According to Adler, striving for superiority drives personality. This striving enhances the personality when it is oriented towards benefiting society but yields disorder when it is selfish.

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105
Q

What is Alfred Adler’s Creative Self and Style of Life?

A

Creative self - force by which each individual shapes his uniqueness and establishes his personality. Style of Life - manifestation of creative self and describes a person’s unique way of achieving superiority.

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106
Q

What is Horney’s Theory?

A

Individuals with neurotic personalities are governed by one of ten neurotic needs. Horney also had a primary concept - basic anxiety. Child’s early perception of self is important and stems from a child’s relationship with his/her parents. Inadequate parenting can cause vulnerability and helplessness - basic anxiety. Neglect and rejection - basic hostility. There are certain strategies involved and healthy individuals use them but a child with basic hostility/anxiety will use only one of these strategies rigidly and exclusively.

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107
Q

What is Object Relations Theory?

A

Objects refers to the representation of parents or other caregivers based on subjective experiences during early infancy. These objects then persist into adulthood and impact our interactions with others, including the social bonds we create and our predictions of other’s behaviours.

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108
Q

What is Gestalt therapy?

A

Practitioners take a holistic view of the self, seeing each individual as a complete person rather than reducing him/her to individual behaviours/drives.

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109
Q

What is Kurt Lewin’s Force Field Theory?

A

Focused on situations in the present. Lewin defined the field as one’s current state of mind, which was simply the sum of the forces on the individual at that time. How do individual’s reach self-realization? Look at the forces acting on their field; those assisting in the attainment and those blocking paths to goals.

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110
Q

What is Maslow’s Self-Actualization Theory?

A

Self-actualizers have peak experiences that have important and last effects on the individual. They share several characteristics (CHOPS) > creativity, humour, originality, privacy, and spontaneity. Maslow studies Einstein, Roosevelt, and Beethoven to see if there was a pattern with these successful people.

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111
Q

What is Kelly’s Personal Construct Psychology Theory?

A

Individuals are scientists who are trying to gauge the reaction of their environment and the behaviour of others using personal constructs (what they know about behaviour and experience with the environment). For example, an anxious person rather than being the victim of inner conflicts and pent-up energy is one who is having difficulty constructing and understanding the variables in the environment. Psychotherapy helps people acquire and apply new constructs.

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112
Q

What is Rogers known for with regards to psychotherapy?

A

His technique of client-centred, person-centered, or nondirective therapy. Rather than providing solutions or diagnoses, the therapist helps the client reflect on problems, make choices, generate solutions, take positive actions, and determine his/her own destiny. Aim is help clients reconcile the differences between the varios selves and reduce stress-inducing incongruence.

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113
Q

What is unconditional positive regard?

A

Therapeutic technique by Rogers by which the therapist accepts the client completely and expresses empathy in order to promote a positive therapeutic environment.

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114
Q

What is the difference between type and trait theorists?

A

Type theorists&raquo_space; there is a taxonomy of different personality types. Trait theorists&raquo_space; there are different traits that make up a person’s personality.

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115
Q

What were the humors personality type?

A

Ancient Greek - personality type based on body fluids, and imbalance leads to various personality disorders. 1. Yellow bile (aggressive and dominant) 2. Blood (impulsive and charismatic) 3. Phlegm (relaxed and affectionate) 4. Black bile (depressive and cautious)

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116
Q

What were the somatotypes?

A

William Sheldon prooposed that personality types were based on body types. Tall people - high-strung and aloof // Short people - jolly // Med people - strong and well-adjusted.

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117
Q

Type A versus Type B personalities?

A

Type A - competitive and compulsive. Type B - laid-back and relaxed.

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118
Q

What is the PEN theory according to Eysenck?

A

People can be categorized based on different traits. 1. Psychoticism (measure of nonconformity or social deviance) 2. Extraversion (measure of tolerance for social interaction. 3. Neuroticism (measure of emotional arousal in stressful situations).

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119
Q

What is the Big Five Model?

A

Openess, Conscienstiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism.

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120
Q

What is Allport’s trait theory?

A

There are cardinal, primary, and secondary traits. Not everyone develops a cardinal trait but everyone has central and secondary traits. Central traits represent major characteristics of the personality such as honesty and charisma. Secondary traits are characteristics that are more limited in occurrence; for example, occurs during a specific social situation or group. Another major part of Allport’s theory is the concept of functional autonomy - behaviour continues despite satisfaction of the drive that originally created the behaviour. For example, hunting for food becomes hunting for sport.

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121
Q

What is David McClelland N-Ach trait theory?

A

People who are highly rated in N-Ach have a high need for achievement. They tend to be concerned with achievement and have pride in their accomplishments. They avoid high risk (to avoid failing) and low risk (no reward/achievement) goals. They set realistic goals and stop striving towards a goal if success is unlikely.

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122
Q

What are the four theories about motivation?

A

Instinct, Drive-Reduction, Arousal, Needs Theory

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123
Q

What is the Instinct Theory of Motivation?

A

People are driven to do certain behaviours based on evolutionarily programmed instincts. It was derived from Darwin’s theory of evolution. An instinct is an innate fixed pattern of behaviour in response to a stimulus. The greatest proponent of this theory was McDougall who proposed that humans were driven to all thoughts and behaviours by 18 distinctive instincts.

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124
Q

What is the Arousal Theory of Motivation?

A

We are driven/motivated to maintain the optimal level of arousal. Arousal is the psychological and physiological state of being awake and reactive to stimuli. The Yerkes-Dodson law postulates a U-shaped function between level of arousal and performance (see Social Facilitation).

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125
Q

What is the Drive Reduction Theory of Motivation?

A

Drives are defined as internal states of tension that activate particular behaviours focused on goals. Drives help humans survive by creating an uncomfortable internal state, ensuring motivation to eliminate this state or to relieve tension created by it. Primary drives are those that motivate us to sustain necessary biological functions. Secondary drives are those that drive us to fulfill emotional desires.

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126
Q

Homeostasis is usually controlled by what kinda of feedback system? Name an example.

A

Negative feedback loop. When our bodies are lacking nutrients and energy, feedback systems release hormones like ghrelin that create the hunger drive and motivate eating. After we consume food, feedback is sent to the brain to turn off the hunger drive by releasing leptin.

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127
Q

What is the Need-Based Theory of Motivation?

A

Motivation can be described as how we allocate our energy and resources to best satisfy needs. Motivation determines which behaviours are most important to pursue, how much effort will be taken, and for how long the effort will be maintained.

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128
Q

What is Maslow’s Heirarchy of Needs?

A
  1. Physiological 2. Security 3. Love 4. Self-esteem 5. Self-actualization. Motivation is towards the lowest level needs.
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129
Q

What is in Maslow’s Physiological level?

A

Breathing, food, water, sex, sleep, homeostasis, excretion

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130
Q

What is in Maslow’s Security level?

A

Security of body, employment, resources, morality, family, health, and property

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131
Q

What is in Maslow’s Love level?

A

Friendship, family, sexual intimacy

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132
Q

What is in Maslow’s Esteem level?

A

Self-esteem, confidence, achievement, respect of others, respect by others

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133
Q

What is in Maslow’s Self-Actualization level?

A

Morality, creativity, spontaneity, problem-solving, lack of prejudice, acceptance of facts

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134
Q

What is the Self-Determination Theory? ARC.

A

Emphasizes the role of three universal needs: Autonomy, Competence, and Relatedness. These must be met in order to develop healthy relationships with oneself and others.

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135
Q

What is the Incentive Theory?

A

Explains behaviour is motivated not by need or arousal but by the desire to pursue rewards and avoid punishments.

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136
Q

What is the Expectancy-Value Theory?

A

The amount of motivation needed to reach a goal is the result of both the individual’s expectation of success in reaching the goal and the degree to which he or she values succeeding at the goal.

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137
Q

What is the Opponent-Process Theory?

A

Explains continuous drug use. When a druf is taken repeatedly, the body will attempt to counteract the effects of the drug by changing its physiology (opposite that of the drug). Alcohol, which is a depressant, leads to arousal. Also explains tolerance&raquo_space; decrease drug effectivity over time.

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138
Q

What are the three elements of emotion?

A

Physiological, Behavioural, and Cognitive.

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139
Q

What are the universal emotions?

A

Happiness, Sadness, Surprise, Anger, Contempt, Fear, Disgust

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140
Q

What is the adaptive role of emotion?

A

Emotions are thought to be evolutionary adaptations due to situations encountered over the evolutionary history of the human species that guide sensory processing, physiological response, and behaviour. Fear is early in evolution whereas guilt and pride are later.

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141
Q

What are the three theories of emotion?

A

James-Lange, Cannon-Bard, and Schachter-Singer.

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142
Q

What is James-Lange Theory of emotion?

A

1.Stimulus 2. Physiological Response 3. Cognitive Emotion. Peripheral organs receive the information and respond, and that response is then labeled as an emotion. For example, I see a snake. My heart is racing and my eyes widen. These physiological changes leads to my feeling of fear. However, this has been discredited because patients with spinal cord injuries should show decreased levels of emotion&raquo_space; they don’t.

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143
Q

What is the Cannon-Bard Theory of emotion?

A
  1. Stimulus 2. Physiological and Cognitive Emotion response. Physiological arousal and feeling an emotion occurs AT THE SAME TIME, not in sequence. Thus, severing the feedback should not alter the emotion experienced. For example, I see a snake and my heart is racing and my eyes are wide AND I am afraid. Sensory information is received and sent to both the cortex and sympathetic nervous systems simultaneously. This fails to explain the vagus nerve, which is a feedback system conveying information from the peripheral organs back to the central nervous system.
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144
Q

What is the Schachter-Singer Theory of emotion?

A

Also called the cognitive arousal or the two-factor theory. 1. Stimulus 2. Physiological Response AND Cognitive Appraisal of the Environment 3. Cognitive emotion. Both arousal and labeling of arousal based on environment must occur in order for an emotion to be experienced. One must consciously analyze the environment in relation to the nervous system arousal. Presence of an unexpected arousal plus an environment that encourages a particular emotion is sufficient to create that emotion in the subject.

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145
Q

What system is involved in experiencing emotion?

A

Limbic system. Made up of the amygdala, thalamus, hypothalamus, hippocampus, fornix, septal nuclei, and parts of the cerebral cortex.

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146
Q

What does the Amygdala do?

A

Signals the cortex about stimuli related to attention and emotions. It processes the environment, detects external curs, and learns from the person’s surroundings.

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147
Q

What does the Thalamus do?

A

Preliminary sensory processing station and routes information to the cortex and other appropriate areas of the brain.

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148
Q

What does the Hypothalamus do?

A

Synthesizes and releases a variety of neurotransmitters. Serves many homeostatic functions and is involved in modulating emotion.

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149
Q

What does the Hippocampus do?

A

Primarily involved in creating long term memories.

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150
Q

Memory system can be divided into two types. What are they?

A

Explicit and Implicit Memory systems. Both are used for the formation and retrieval of emotional memories.

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151
Q

Define the explicit memory system.

A

Primarily controlled by the hippocampus. Memory of experiencing the actual emotion. It is the conscious memory of the event.

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152
Q

Define the implicit memory system.

A

Primarily controlled by the amygdala. Emotional memory. Storage of the actual feelings of emotion associated with an event. Determines the expression of past emotions.

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153
Q

What is the function of the temporal lobe?

A

Ability to distinguish and interpret others’ facial expressions. Right hemisphere is more active.

154
Q

What is the role of the prefrontal cortex? DIP.

A

Planning intricate cognitive functions, expressing personality, and making decisions.

155
Q

What does the left and right prefrontal cortex associate with?

A

Left - positive emotions. Right - negative emotions.

156
Q

What does the dorsal prefrontal cortex do?

A

Attention and cognition

157
Q

What does the ventral prefrontal cortex do?

A

Connects regions of the brain responsible for expriencing emotion.

158
Q

What does the ventromedial prefrontal cortex do?

A

Substantial role in decision-making and controlling emotional responses from the amygdala.

159
Q

What are some physiological changes associated with emotion?

A

Skin temp, heart rate variability, blood pulse volume, blood pressure, etc.

160
Q

What is the cognitive appraisal of stress?

A

Cognitive appraisal is the subjective evaluation of a situation that induce stress. There is the primary appraisal - is the threat irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful. There is the secondary appraisal - will this event cause harm, is this event a threat (future harm), and is this event a challenge (able to overcome? possible benefit?). Reappraisal occurs constantly.

161
Q

What is distress and eustress?

A

Distress - unpleasant stressors. Eustress - result of positive conditions.

162
Q

What is the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Sequence of physiological responses consisting of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.The Fight or Flight response.

163
Q

What happens in the alarm stage?

A

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Hypothalamus stimulated to secrete ACTH&raquo_space; stimulates adrenalg glands to produce cortisol&raquo_space; maintains steady supply of blood sugar to body. Adrenal medulla activate to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine.

164
Q

What happens in the resistance stage?

A

Continuous release of hormones allowing the sympathetic nervous system to stay engaged.

165
Q

What happens in the exhaustion stage?

A

Body can no longer maintain elevated response. Susceptibility to illnesses and medical conditions.

166
Q

What is the problem-focused and emotionally-focused strategy of stress management?

A

Problem-focused - reaching out to family and friends, confronting the issue head-on, and creating and following a plan of problem-solving actions. Emotionally-focused - center on changing one’s feelings about a stressor. Taking responsibility, engaging in self control, distancing oneself from the issue, engaging in wishful thinking and using positive reappraisal.

167
Q

What is cognition?

A

How our brains process and react to information

168
Q

What is the information processing model?

A

The human brain is compared to a computer in terms of how information is encoded, stored, and retrieved. It is theorized that the brain encodes information into a series of chemical and electrical signals, stores this information, and creates a process in which it is retrieved

169
Q

What are the four key components of the information processing model?

A
  1. Thinking requires sensation, encoding, and storage of stimuli. 2. Stimuli must be analyzed by the brain to be useful in decision-making. 3. Decisions made in one situation can be extrapolated and adjusted to help solve new problems. 4. Problem-solving is dependent not only on the person’s cognitive level but also on the context and complexity of the problem.
170
Q

What are the four stages of Piaget’s Cognitive Development?

A
  1. 0-2 years old; sensorimotor. 2. 2-7 years old; preoperational. 3. 7-11 years old; concrete operational. 4. 11+ years old; formal operational.
171
Q

How does Piaget define adaptation, assimilation, and accommodation?

A

Adaptation is how new information is processed. There are two processes: Assimilation is how the new information is adapted into an existing schema. Accommodation is how existing schemata are modified to encompass this new info (only if the new information does not fit into already existing schemata).

172
Q

What happens in Piaget’s Sensorimotor stage?

A

Child learns to manipulate environment to meet physical needs. Comprises of primary and secondary circular motions. Primary circular motions are repetition of body movements for certain needs; for example, sucking thumb for comfort. Secondary circular motions are using external objects to gain attention of caretakers (response from environment). The key milestone is the end of object permanence in which the child understands that the object still exist when it is outside their field of view.

173
Q

What happens in Piaget’s Preoperational stage?

A

This occurs between the age of 2-7. In this stage, the child exhibits egocentrism, centration (does not understand conservation), and symbolic thinking. Symbolic thinking is the ability to pretend play, make-believe, and use her/his imagination. Egocentrism is the inability to think about what others are feeling/thinking. Centration is the tendency to focus only on one aspect of the phenomenon. It is the inability to think that the mass or state of the object is conserved. For example, two identical glass containing a fluid is compared and are known to be even. Pouring one glass into a tall, skinny glass shows that the level of the fluid in this glass is higher. The child focuses on the height difference and notes that a particular glass either has more/less fluid.

174
Q

What happens in Piaget’s Concrete Operational stage?

A

This occurs between the ages of 7-11. In this stage the child learns the concept of conservation and the thoughts/feelings of others. Essentially, they grow out of their preoperational stage. They are able to engage in logical thought as long as they are working with concrete objects or information that is directly available. They also are unable to think abstractly.

175
Q

What happens in Piaget’s Formal Operational stage?

A

This occurs at age 11+. The child learns to think abstractly and hold several different information in their brain to determine a logical outcome.

176
Q

What is the role of culture in cognitive development?

A

Very much related. Culture determines what one is expected to learn. Some cultures place a higher value on social learning while others value knowledge. Also, depending on the culture, the rate of cognitive development may differ.

177
Q

What are some cognitive changes in late adulthood?

A

Reaction time increases steadily and time-based prospective memory decline with age. Some decline in fluid and crystallized intelligence have also been observed.

178
Q

What is fluid intelligence?

A

Ability to problem-solve using existing knowledge to solve new problems.

179
Q

What is crystallized intelligence?

A

Ability to problem solve using existing knowledge to know problems; use of learned skills and knowledge.

180
Q

What are other types of intellectual decline not related to benign aging?

A

Dementia, Alzheimer’s, brain disorders, genetics and chromosomal conditions, metabolic derangements, and long-term drug use. The environment can also affect both cognitive development and day-to-day cognition.

181
Q

What could be the cause of rapid decline in cognition in adulthood?

A

Delirium is the rapid fluctuation in cognitive function that is reversible and caused by medical causes such as electrolyte and pH imbalance, malnutrition, blood sugar level, infection, drug reaction, alcohol withdrawal, and pain.

182
Q

What is a mental set?

A

Tendency to approach similar problems in the same way. Using your problem-solving skills to tackle similar problems. Once solutions have been tested, we evaluate results, and consider other potential solutions.

183
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A

Inability to consider how to use an object in a nontraditional manner.

184
Q

What are four different methods of problem-solving?

A

Trial-and-Error - various solutions are attempted until one works. Algorithms - formula or procedure is followed until a desired solution is produced. Deductive Reasoning - using general logical rules, conclusions are drawn and a solution is generated. Inductive Reasoning - create a theory via generalization. Start with a specific instance and draw generalization/conclusion from them.

185
Q

What is a heuristic and what are the two types?

A

Heuristic is a rule of thumb, a simplified principle to make a decision. There are two types: availability and representativeness.

186
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

A shortcut in decision-making that relies on the information that is most readily available, rather than the total body of information on a subject. For example, solving a multiple choice question based on the familiarity of the answer rather than answering the question posed. Another example would be thinking that you would be fired since there are people getting fired in other departments.

187
Q

What is the representativeness heuristic?

A

A shortcut in decision-making that relies on categorizing items on the basis of whether they fit the prototypical, stereotypical, or representative image of the category. For example, the probability that a coin will land heads given that it landed heads 10 times in a row. Our guess may be skewed given what is currently represented.

188
Q

What is base rate fallacy?

A

Using prototypical or stereotypical factors while ignoring actual numerical information.

189
Q

What is the disconfirmation principle?

A

Evidence obtained from testing demonstrated that the solution does not work.

190
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

Tendency to focus on information that fits an individual’s beliefs and rejecting other information that goes against them.

191
Q

What is belief perseverance?

A

Inability to reject particular beliefs despite clear evidence to the contrary.

192
Q

What is intuition or recognition-primed decision model?

A

Ability to act on perceptions that may not be supported by available evidence.

193
Q

What are Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences?

A

Linguistic, Logical-Mathematical, Body-Kinesthetic, Interpersonal, Intrapersonal, musical, and visual-spatial

194
Q

What does the Stanford-Binet IQ test stand for?

A

Intelligence Quotient = your mental age/chronological age x100

195
Q

What are the accepted states of consciousness?

A

Alertness, Sleep, Dreaming, and Altered States of Consciousness.

196
Q

What are some physiological measurements that show alertness?

A

Higher cortisol levels, EEG waves indicate an awakaned state.

197
Q

What maintains alertness?

A

Neurological units in the prefrontal cortex. Communication with the reticular formation keeps the cortex awake and alert.

198
Q

What are beta waves?

A

EEG waves seen in conscious, alert states. Waves have a high frequency and occur when the person is alert.

199
Q

What are alpha waves?

A

EEG waves seen in relaxed but awake individuals (closing your eyes for example). Alpha waves are lower frequency and more synchronized.

200
Q

What are the different stages of sleep?

A

Stage 1, 2, 3, 4, (&laquo_space;all NON-REM SLEEP) and REM sleep.

201
Q

What happens in Stage 1 Sleep?

A

In Stage 1, theta waves are observed. Waves comprised of irregular waveforms and slower frequencies.

202
Q

What happens in Stage 2 Sleep?

A

In Stage 2, theta waves are observed along side k-complexes (very high voltage waveform) and sleep spindles (rapid frequency, high voltage waveform).

203
Q

What happens in Stage 3 and 4 Sleep?

A

In Stage 3 and 4 also known as slow-wave sleep, delta waves are observed. These are slow frequency, high voltage waveforms (few sleep waves per second). Moreover, it is very hard to awake someone during this stage. Dreams and sleep conditions also occur on this stage. Declarative memory consolidation and cognitive recovery occurs during this stage.

204
Q

What happens in REM sleep?

A

REM is rapid eye movement. In this stage, the arousal levels reach that of wakefulness and the EEG patterns mimic wakefulness but the individual’s muscles are paralyzed and they are still asleep. This is also called paradoxical sleep. Dreaming is most likely to occur during this stage and it is associated with procedural memory consolidation.

205
Q

What is a typical sleep cycle?

A

Early in the night, SWS predominates as the brain falls into deep sleep and then into more wakefulness (1-2-3-4-3-2-1-REM). Later in the night, REM sleep predominates (1-2-REM or 1-2-1-REM, etc).

206
Q

What is a circadian rhythm and what hormones are involved?

A

Waking and sleeping is regulated by internally generated rhythms. Sleepiness > melatonin released from pineal gland. Retina is connected to the hypothalamus, which controls the pineal gland. Less light = more melatonin. Awakeness > cortisol released from adrenal gland. Light causes release of corticotropin releasing factor > releases adrenocorticotropic hormone > releases cortisol.

207
Q

What are the 3 theories of dreams?

A
  1. Activation-Synthesis 2. Problem-Solving Dream 3. Cogitive Process Dream
208
Q

What is the Activation-Synthesis Theory?

A

Dreams are caused by widespread, random activation of neural circuitry. This can mimic incoming sensory information and may also consist of pieces of stored memories, current and previous desires, met and unment needs, and other experiences.

209
Q

What is the Problem-Solving Dream Theory?

A

Dreams are a way to problem solve. Allows interpretation of obstacles differently than waking hours.

210
Q

What is the Cognitive Process Dream Theory?

A

Stream of consciousness while awake is also replicated while sleeping.

211
Q

What is the difference between dyssomnias and parasomnias?

A

Dyssomnias occur when trying to to sleep, stay asleep, or avoiding sleep; examples include insomnia, sleep apnea, and narcolepsy. Parasomnias occur during stage 3/4 and lead to problems during sleep; for example, night terrors and sleep walking.

212
Q

What are hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations?

A

Hypnagogic - hallucinations when going to sleep. Hypnopompic - hallucinations when popping out of sleep.

213
Q

What sleep stage does meditation resemble?

A

Stage 1.

214
Q

How does the GABA receptor work?

A

GABA is a neurotransmitter that binds to this receptor. By causing hyperpolarization, it leads to a decrease in the communication/activation of CNS since the cell is inherently more negative and even the addition of a positive ion (glutamate/excitatory neurotransmitter) won’t trigger action potential.

215
Q

What are depressants, what do they do physiologically, and what are examples?

A

Depressants reduce nervous system activity resulting in a sense of relaxation and reduced anxiety. They do this by activating the GABA receptor. Physiologically, you observe generalized brain inhibition leading to lowered logical reasoning and motor skills. Examples are alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines.

216
Q

What are stimulants, what do they do physiologically, and what are examples?

A

Stimulants cause an increase in arousal in the nervous system. These drugs increase the frequency of action potentials. Physiological symptoms include - reduction in appetite, decreased need for sleep, increased heart rate, and increased blood pressure. Psychological symptoms include euphoria, hypervigilance, anxiety, delusions of grandeur, and paranoia. Examples include amphetamines, cocaine, and ecstasy. Cocaine has anesthetic and vasoconstrictive properties. Ecstasy or MDMA is also a hallucinogen.

217
Q

What are opiates and opioids and what do they do?

A

Opiates are naturally-occurring whereas opioids are synthetically derived. These compounds bind to opioid receptors causing decreased reaction to pain and a sense of euphoria. Overdose can lead to death by respiratory suppression. Heroin was the most widely used but now has shifted to prescription like oxycodone and hydrocodone.

218
Q

What are hallucinogens, how do they work and what are examples?

A

Exact mechanism of most hallucinogens is unknown but is thought to be a complex interaction between various neurotransmitters, especially serotonin. These drugs typically cause distortions of reality and fantasy, enhancement of sensory experiences, and introspection. Physiological effects include increased blood pressure, heart rate, dilation of pupils, sweating, and increased body temp. Examples include LSD, peyote, ketamine, and mushrooms containing psilocybin.

219
Q

What is marijuana, what is the active ingredient and what are the symptoms?

A

Marijuana refers to the leaves and flowers of the plant species Cannabis sativa and Cannabis indica. The active chemical is known as THC. It exerts its effects by acting on cannabinoid, glycine, and opioid receptors. It triggers GABA and dopamine activity. Physiologically it causes eye redness, dry mouth, fatigue, impairment of short term memory, increased heart rate, appetite, and lowered blood pressure. It is a depressant, stimulant, and a hallucinogen.

220
Q

What is the mesolimbic reward pathway and how does it relate to drug addiction?

A

One of four dopaminergic pathwys in the brain including the Nucleus Accumbens, Ventral Tegmental Area, and the Medial Forebrain Bundle. Positively reinforces substance abuse due to the release of dopamine.

221
Q

What is selective and divided attention?

A

Selective - focus on one stimuli and avoiding all others. Information is filtered to allow some stimuli through like sound, movement, etc. Divided - performing multiple tasks/stimuli at the same time. Divided utilizes controlled processing. Automatic processing can be used for familiar or routine actions such as driving, cooking, etc.

222
Q

What are the five basic components of language and what do they mean?

A

Phonology (how actual language sounds). Morphology (structure of words). Semantic (association of meaning with a word). Syntax (how words are put together to form sentences). Pragmatics (dependence of language on context and pre–existing knowledge; manner which we speak differs depending on the audience).

223
Q

What is prosody?

A

Rhythm, cadence, and inflenction of our voices.

224
Q

What is the timeline of language acquisition?

A

9-12 months - Babbling. 12-18 months - one word/month. 18-20 months - explosion of language, two-words put together. 2-3 years - longer sentences (3+words). 5 years - language rules largely mastered.

225
Q

What are the three theories of language acquisiton?

A

Nativist (Biological) Theory, Learning (Behaviorist) Theory, and Social Interactionist Theory

226
Q

What is the Nativist Theory?

A

By Noam Chomsky. Everyone has an innate ability - language acquisition device - that allows infacts to process and absorb language rules. Nativists believe in a critical period for language acquisition (2-puberty) in that if no language acquisition occurs during this time, later training is largely ineffective. Indicates that there is a sensitive period for language development when environmental input has maximal effect on the development of an ability.

227
Q

What is the Learning Theory?

A

By BF Skinner. Explains language acquisition by operant conditioning and reinforcement. Parents and caretakers repeat and reinforce sounds that sound most like the language spoken by the parents. Over time, the infant perceives that certain sounds have little value and are not reinforced. Does not fully explain the explosion in vocab that occurs during early childhood.

228
Q

What is the Social Interactionist Theory?

A

Language development focuses on the interplay between biological and social processes. Language acquisition driven by the child’s desire to communicate and behave in a social manner such as interacting with caretakers and other children. As child interacts with others, certain brain circuits are reinforced while other are de-emphasized resulting in atrophy of those circuits.

229
Q

What is the Whorfian or Linguistic Relativity Hypothesis?

A

Our perception of reality - how we think about the world - is determined by the content of language. Language affects the way we think rather than the other way around. Since language provides the orignal framework for understanding information, our thinking is built upon how that framework is built.

230
Q

What is Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, and Arcuate Fasciculus involved with?

A

Broca - controls the motor function of speech. Wernicke - language comprehension. Arcuate Fasciculus - allows appropriate association between language comprehension and speech production.

231
Q

What is Broca’s aphasia?

A

Reduce or absent ability to produce spoken language.

232
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

Comprehension of speech is lost meaning that patients speak nonsensical sounds and inappropriate word combos.

233
Q

What is Conduction aphasia?

A

Inability to repeat something that has been said

234
Q

What is an aphasia?

A

Deficit in language production or comprehension.

235
Q

What is a stimulus?

A

Anything to which an organism can respond, including sensory inputs.

236
Q

What is habituation?

A

Habituation is the reduction in response to a stimulus that is repeated over time. For example, the sound of an alarm becoming background noise.

237
Q

What is dishabituation?

A

Recovery of a response to a stimulus after habituation has occurred. Dishabituation is temporary and always refers to changes in response to the original stimulus, not the new one.

238
Q

What are the two types of learning?

A

Associative learning (classical and operant condition) and observational learning.

239
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

Takes advantage of biological and instinctual responses to create associations between two unrelated stimuli. It works because some stimuli causes an innate or reflexive physiological response. The stimuli and response is called unconditioned stimuli and unconditioned response, respectively. A neutral stimuli is a stimuli that does not produce a response. In classical conditioning, the neutral stimuli turns into a conditioned stimuli by pairing it with an unconditioned stimuli, thereby resulting in the unconditioned response being a conditioned response. This is also referred to as acquisition.

240
Q

What is extinction and spontaneous recovery?

A

Extinction occurs when a conditioned stimuli is used enough times without the unconditioned stimulus thereby resulting in the loss of the conditioned response (as the individual habituates to the stimuli). Spontaneous recovery is the phenomenon in which an extinct conditioned stimuli results into a weak conditioned response.

241
Q

What is generalization and discrimination as it relates to classical conditioning?

A

Generalization is the broadening effect by which a stimulus similar enough to the conditioned stimulus can also produce a conditioned response. Discrimination is the ability to distinguish between stimuli thereby allowing only a specific conditioned stimuli to trigger a conditioned response.

242
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Links voluntary behaviours to reinforcements and punishments in an effort to alter the frequency of those behaviours. It is associated with BF Skinner.

243
Q

What are the four possible relationships between stimulus and behaviour?

A

Positive Reinforcement, Negative Reinforcement, Positive Punishment, and Negative Punishment.

244
Q

Define Positive Reinforcement.

A

Increase the behaviour by adding a stimulus. In general, positive reinforces increase a behaviour by adding a positive consequence or incentive. For example, employees will continue to work if they are paid.

245
Q

Define Negative Reinforcement.

A

Increase the behaviour by removing a stimulus. In general, you increase the frequency by removing something unpleasant. For example, if you have a headache, you take an aspirin. So you are continuing a behaviour (taking an aspirin) to remove a stimulus (headache - unpleasant). Negative reinforcers can be divided into escape learning (reduce the unpleasantness of something that already exists, like headaches) and avoidance learning (prevent unpleasantness of something that is yet to happen).

246
Q

What is a conditioned reinforcer or secondary reinforcer?

A

Paired with a primary reinforcer to elicit the same response as the behaviour wanted. This pairs classical conditioning with operant conditioning.

247
Q

Define Postive Punishment.

A

Stops a behaviour by adding a stimulus. For example, you stop thieves from stealing with the threat of the law/getting arrested.

248
Q

Define Negative Punishment.

A

Stops a behaviour by removing a stimulus. For example, your daughter always stays up late so you restrict/remove her phone use so that she goes to bed earlier.

249
Q

What are the four different types of reinforcement schedules?

A

Fixed-ratio, Variable-ratio, Fixed-Interval, and Variable-Interval.

250
Q

Define Fixed-ratio schedules.

A

In fixed-ratio schedules, the behaviour is reinforced in a fixed schedule, meaning after a specific number of performances of that behaviour. For example, a reward after every second successful performance of the behaviour. Often there is a brief moment of no response after the behaviour is reinforced as the subject figures out what needs to be done to gain the reinforcer.

251
Q

Define Continuous reinforcement.

A

A fixed-ratio schedule in which the behaviour is rewarded every time it is performed.

252
Q

Define Variable-ratio schedules.

A

In variable-ratio schedules, the behaviour is reinforced in a variable schedule, meaning after a varied number of performances of that behaviour, a reward is given. For example, after 6 successful acts, the reward is given. Then, after 10 successful acts, the reward is given. Then, after 2 successful acts, the reward is given. However, the average number of performances is relatively constant. This has the fastest response rate for learning a new behaviour and is also the most resistant to extinction. Another example is gambling.

253
Q

Define Fixed-interval schedules.

A

In fixed-interval schedules, there is a set amount of time given to perform a behaviour and receive a reward. That interval is fixed. Subsequent attempts of acts of the target behaviour within that interval will not be rewarded. Often there is a brief moment of no response after the behaviour is reinforced as the subject figures out what needs to be done to gain the reinforcer.

254
Q

Define Variable-interval schedules.

A

In variable-interval schedules, the interval times are varied so you can have 2min to perform the behaviour, then 8min, then 4min, etc. Once the interval lapses, the next act within the next interval gets the reward.

255
Q

What is shaping?

A

Process of rewarding increasingly specific behaviours. For example, dog training.

256
Q

What is latent learning?

A

It is learning that occurs without a reward but is spontaenously demonstrated once a reward is introduced.

257
Q

What is preparedness and instinctive drift?

A

Preparedness is predisposition to learning based on natural abilities and instincts. Instinctive drift is difficulty in overcoming instinctual behaviour, and thus difficulty in learning a behaviour.

258
Q

What is observational learning and how are they related to mirror neurons?

A

Process of learning a new behaviour or gaining information by watching others. Mirror neurons are located in the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex and fire both when an individual performs an action and when that individual observes someone else performing that action. Research suggests that observational learning through modeling is an important factor in determing an individual’s behaviour throughout his/her lifetime.

259
Q

What are the three processes of memory?

A

Encoding, storage, and retrieval.

260
Q

What is automatic and controlled processing?

A

Automatic processing is gaining new information into memory without effort. Controlled processing is actively working to gain information and committing that information into memory. Controlled processing can become automatic with time and exposure.

261
Q

What are the three types of encoding?

A

Visual, acoustic, and semantic. Visual is the weakest and Semantic is the strongest.

262
Q

What is the self-reference effect?

A

Tendency to recall information best when we put it into the context of our own lives.

263
Q

What is maintenance rehearsal?

A

Repetition of a piece of information to either keep it within working memory, store it in short-term, and/or eventually long-term memory.

264
Q

What are mnemonics and what are two types discussed in MCAT?

A

Mnemonics are common ways to memorize information, particularly lists. 1. Method of loci - associating each item in the list with a location aong a route through a building that has already been memorized. 2. Peg-word - associates numbers with items that rhyme with or resemble the numbers; for example, sun = one, two = shoe.

265
Q

What is chunking/clustering?

A

Taking individual elements of a large list and grouping them together into groups of elements with related meaning.

266
Q

What is sensory memory?

A

Most fleeting kind of memory consisting of both iconic and echoic memory. Lasts a short period of time but takes in a lot of information. Small subsets can be recalled at will (colour, movement, size, etc).

267
Q

What is short-term memory?

A

Memory fades quickly over time (approximately 30s without rehearsal). It is also limited in capacity to approximately seven items (usually stated as the 7+/-2 rule). Capacity of your short term memory can increase with maintenance rehearsal and clustering. Short term memory is stored in the hippocampus.

268
Q

What is working memory?

A

Related to short-term memory, it enables us to keep a few pieces of information in our consciousness simultaneously and manipulate that information. For example, doing simple maths. It uses the frontal and parietal lobes.

269
Q

What is long-term memory?

A

WIth enough rehearsal, the short-term memory moves to long-term memory. One way of consolidating short-term memory into long-term memory is by use of elaborative rehearsal. There are two types of long-term memory: implicit and explicit memory.

270
Q

What is the difference between maintenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal?

A

Maintenance rehearsal just keeps the information at the forefront of our mind whereas elaborative rehearsal allows that short-term memory to develop into long-term memory by use of devices like the self-reference effect.

271
Q

What is implicit memory?

A

Implicit memory is nondeclarative memory. It consists of skills and conditioned responses; for example, driving or riding the bike.

272
Q

What is explicit memory and what are its two types?

A

Explicit memory is declarative memory and consists of semantic memory and episodic memory. Explicit memory requires conscious recall. Semantic memory is memory as it relates to facts and concepts whereas Episodic memory is related to events and experiences (feelings).

273
Q

What is retrieval?

A

Process of demonstrating that something that has been learned has been retained. It can be comprised of recognition or relearning information.

274
Q

What is recognition and relearning?

A

Recognition is the process of merely identifying a piece of information that was previously learned and is far easier than recall. Relearning is demonstrating that information has been stored in long-term memory.

275
Q

What is the spacing effect?

A

The longer the amount of time between sessions of relearning, the greater the retention of the information later on.

276
Q

What is semantic network, spreading activation, and priming as it relates to memory recall?

A

It is believed that the brain organizes ideas into a semantic network in which concepts are linked together based on similar meanings. When one node of this semantic network is activated, the other linked concepts around it are also unconsciously activated in a process known as spreading activation. This is at the heart of priming, which is recall aided by being presented with a word or phrase that is closely tied to the semantic memory.

277
Q

What is context effects and state-dependent memory and what role does it play in memory?

A

Context effects is memory being aided by the physical location where the encoding took place (you recall better wherever you encoded). State-dependent memory is the individual’s mental state when the information was encoded and that particular state aiding during recall of the information. For example, learning while drunk - recall may be better when drunk.

278
Q

What are common symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Linked to the loss of acetylcholine in neurons that link to the hippocampus. Symptoms include: progressive dementia, memory loss, atrophy of the brain, and sundowning (increase in dysfunction in the late afternoon and evening).

279
Q

What is Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

Memory loss caused by thiamine deficiency in the brain. Marked by both retrograde and anterograde amnesia, and confabulation.

280
Q

What is retrograde and anterograde amnesia?

A

Retrograde is the loss of previously formed memories and Anterograde is inability to form new memories.

281
Q

What is agnosia?

A

Loss of the ability to recognize objects, people, or sounds, though usually only one of the three. This is usually due to damage to the brain (eg. stroke).

282
Q

What is proactive and retroactive interference?

A

Proactive interference is the inability to remember new information due to the old information interfering; for example, forgetting your new address because your old address is interfereing. Retroactive interference is inability to remember old information because the new information is interfering; for example, forgetting an old number because of your new phone number.

283
Q

For aging and memory, what type of memory has shown to decline with age?

A

Time-based prospective memory; for example, remembering to take meds at 7pm.

284
Q

What are confabulation, misinformation effect, and source-monitoring errors and what do they have in common?

A

These are ways in which memory can be skewed and encoded falsely. Confabulation is creation of vivid false memories (brain filling gaps in memory). Misinformation effect is a phenomenon in which memories are altered by misleading information provided at the point of encoding or recall. Source-monitoring errors is a phenomenon in which a person remembers the details of an event but confuses the context by which the details were gained; often causes a person to remember events that happened to someone else instead of him/herself.

285
Q

What are neuroplasticity, synaptic pruning, and long-term potentiation and what do they all have in common?

A

These terms are all related to the neurobiology of learning and memory. Neuroplasticity is the change in neural connections cause by learning or a response to injury. Children have a higher neuroplasticity and therefore are more receptive to learning new skills/language than adults. Synaptic pruning is the bolstering of strong neural connections and the breaking of weak neural connections thereby increasing the efficiency of our brains to process information. Long-term potentiation is the repetition of a stimulus which results in the stimulation of neurons becoming more efficient and effective at releasing their neurotransmitters and at the same time the receptor sites increasing, and increasing the receptor density. These three terms help explain the neurobiological processes that occur with learning and memory.

286
Q

What is sensation and perception?

A

Sensation is conversion of physical, electromagnetic, auditory, and other information from our internal and external environment to electrical signals in the nervous system. Perception is the processing of this information to make sense of its significance.

287
Q

What is the standard path of sensation to perception?

A

Sensory receptors > Sensory Ganglia > Projection Areas in the brain for analysis

288
Q

What do these sensory receptors detect: Photoreceptors, Hair Cells, Nociceptors, Thermoreceptors, Osmoreceptors, Olfactory Receptors, and Taste Receptors.

A

Photoreceptors (electromagnetic waves in the visible spectrum); Hair cells (movement of fluid in the inner ear structure - hearing, rotational, and linear acceleration); Nociceptors (painful or noxious stimuli - somatosensation); Thermoreceptors (changes in temperature - thermosensation); Osmoreceptors (osmolarity of the blood - water homeostasis); Olfactory receptors (volatile compounds - smell); and Taste receptors (dissolved compounds - taste)

289
Q

What is the absolute threshold and threshold of conscious perception?

A

Absolute threshold is the minimum stimulus energy needed to activate the sensory system; for example, sweet taste is a teaspoon of sucrose in two gallons of water or in a dark night, the eye can detect the light of one candle burning 30 miles away. The threshold of conscious perception is the threshold required for perception - because the stimulus is too subtle to demand attention or too brief, the perception threshold may not be reached. Subliminal perception is the perception of a stimulus below a given threshold.

290
Q

What is the difference threshold or the just-noticeable difference (ie. Weber’s Law)?

A

Minimum difference in magnitude between two stimuli before one can perceive the difference. There is a constant ratio between the change in stimulus magnitude needed to produce a jnd and the magnitude of the original stimulus. Therefore, a higher-magnitude stimulus requires a larger difference between the two stimuli to produce a jnd.

291
Q

What is the signal detection theory and what are the different responses?

A

Signal detection theory is the changes in our perception of the same stimuli depending on both internal and external context, thereby creating a response bias. You can have catch trials (signal present) and noise trials (signals not present). There are also four possible outcomes: hits (true detection), misses (not detected), false alarms (false detection), and correct negatives (true no detection). Misses or false alarms indicates bias in the subject.

292
Q

What is adaptation?

A

Change in the detection of a stimulus over time. There is a sensory and perceptual component. For example, eyes adjusting to the dark or cold water no longer seeming cold.

293
Q

Name all the parts and function of the eye.

A

Input eye image.

294
Q

What is accommodation?

A

Changes in the shape of the lens through the suspensory ligaments

295
Q

What is the Duplicity Theory of Vision?

A

The retina contains two kinds of photoreceptors: cones and rods

296
Q

Define cones.

A

Approx. 6 million cones. They are most effective in bright light and comes in three forms: small, medium, and long (blue, green, and red, respectively).

297
Q

Define rods.

A

Approx. 120 million cones. More functional and only allow sensation of light and dark because they contain a single pigment called rhodopsin. They have low sensitivity to details and are not involved in color vision, but permit night vision.

298
Q

What does the macula and fovea have to do with rods and cones?

A

The macula is the central section of the retina, and the fovea is the centralmost section of the macula. These sections of the retina comprise of a higher concentration of cones, and the fovea is all cones.

299
Q

What do bipolar, ganglion, horizontal, and amacrine cells have to do with vision?

A

Rods and cones connect with bipolar cells, which highlight gradients between adjacent rods or cones. Bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells, which group together to form the optic nerve. As the number of receptors that converge through the bipolar neurons onto one ganglion cell increases, the resolution decreases. Amacrine and horizontal cells receive input from multiple retinal cells in the same area before the information is passed on to ganglion cells. This leads to accentuation of differences between the visual information in each bipolar cells. Thus, leading to ability for edge detection (increase our perception of contrasts).

300
Q

Explain the visual pathway.

A

Temporal visual field goes towards the nasal retina. Nasal visual field goes towards the temporal retina. The nasal retina signal travels through the nasal optic nerve, where they then cross path at the optic chiasm. Incidentally, the temporal fibers do not cross paths. This means that all fibers corresponding to the left visual field from both eyes project into the right side of the brain and vice-versa. Visual Field > Retina > Optic Nerve > Optic Chiasm > Optic Tract > Lateral Geniculate Nucleus > Occipital Lobe. There are also inputs in the superior colliculus, which controls responses to visual stimuli and reflexive eye movements.

301
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

Ability to simultaneously analyze and combine information regarding color, shape, and motion. These features can be compared to our memories to determine what is being viewed.

302
Q

What is feature detection and what cells are involved?

A

Feature detection - our visual pathways contain cells specialized in detection of color (cones), shape (parvocellular cells), and motion (magnocellular cells). Parvocellular cells have high spatial resolution and magnocellular cells have high temporal resolution.

303
Q

Name all the parts and function of the ear.

A

Input ear image.

304
Q

Explain the bony and membranus labyrinth.

A

The inner ear sits within the bony labyrinth, which contains the cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals. The bony labyrinth is bathed with the perilymph. The mebranous labyrinth sits in the bony labyrinth and is bathed in endolymph. The perilymph simultaneously transmits vibrations from the outside world and cushions the inner ear structures.

305
Q

Explain the function of the cochlea.

A

Cochlea is divided into three parts called scalae. The middle scala houses the actual hearing apparatus called the organ of Corti. This organ contains thousands of hair cells which are bathed in endolymph. The other two scalae are filled with perilymph and surround the hearing apparatus and are continuous with the oval and round windows of the cochlea. Therefore, the sound entering the cochlea through the oval window causes vibrations in the perilymph, which are transmitted to the basilar membrane. Because fluids are incompressible, the round window permits the perilymph to move within the cochlea. Thus, this leads to stimulation of the hair cells in the middle scalae&raquo_space; this stimulation leads to electrical signal, which is carried through the CNS by the vestibulocochlear nerve.

306
Q

What does the vestibule do?

A

The vestibule is responsible for linear acceleration. The two structures are the utricle and saccule, which contains modified hair cells covered with otoliths. As the body accelerates, these otoliths will resist the motion. Bending and stimulating of the underlying hair cells sends signals to the brain.

307
Q

What does the semicircular canals do?

A

The semicircular canals are responsible for rotational acceleration. These are arranged perpendicularly from one another, and the ampulla, which contain the hair cells allow the detection of the rotational acceleration.

308
Q

What is the auditory pathway?

A

Ear > Vestibulocochlear Nerve > Medial Geniculate Nucleus of the thalamus > auditory cortext (temporal lobe) and other projection areas such as the superior olive (binaural ability) and inferior colliculus (involved in startle reflex and helps keep eyes on a fixed position).

309
Q

What does it mean when they say that hair cells are arranged tonotopically?

A

High frequency pitches cause vibrations of the basilar membrane close to the oval window whereas low frequency pitches cause vibrations away from the oval window. This means that hair cells that are vibrating gives the brain an indication of the pitch of the sound.

310
Q

Fun Fact

A

Smell is the only sense that does not pass through the thalamus but rather travels unfiltered into higher-order brain centers.

311
Q

Olfactory pathway

A

Olfactory receptors (in olfactory epithelium) > Olfactory Bulb > Olfactory Tract > Higher regions of the brain, including the limbic system

312
Q

What are the five basic tastes?

A

Sweet, Sour, Salty, Bitter, and Umami.

313
Q

What is somatosensation?

A

Pressure, vibration, pain, and temperature&raquo_space; the Touch Sensation.

314
Q

What do the following receptors sensate: Pacinian corpuscles, Meissner corpuscles, Merkle cells, Ruffini endings, and Free nerve endings?

A

Pacinian (deep pressure and vibration); Meissner (light touch); Merkle (deep pressure and texture); Ruffini (stretch); Free Nerve (temp and pain)

315
Q

What is the somatosensation pathway?

A

Somatoreceptors > somato ganglia > CNS > Somatosensory cortex (parietal lobe)

316
Q

What is the two-point threshold?

A

Minimum distance necessary between two points of stimulation on the skin such as the two points will be felt as two distinct stimuli

317
Q

What is physiological zero?

A

Normal temperature of the skin. Cold objects fall under physiological zero and hot objects above physiological zero.

318
Q

What is the gate theory of pain?

A

Special gating mechanism that can turn pain signals on or off due to preferential forwarding of other signals from other touch modalities (pressure, temp, etc.) thus reducing sensation of pain.

319
Q

What is kinesthetic sense or proprioception?

A

Ability to tell where one’s body is in space. For example, eyes close&raquo_space; where is the location and position of your hand. These proprioceptors are found mostly in muscle and joints and play a role in hand-eye coordination, balance, and mobility.

320
Q

Compare/Contrast Bottom-up and Top-Down Processing.

A

Bottom-up processing (data-driven) refers to object recognition by parallel processing and feature detection. Essentially, the brain takes the individual sensory stimuli and combines them together to create a cohesive image before determining what the object is. If we only use this - every object will be new to us. Top-down processing is driven by memories and expectations that allow the brain to recognize the whole object and then recognize the components based on these expectations. If we only use this - it would be difficult to discern similar looking objects. We need systems to process object recognition.

321
Q

What is Perceptual Organization?

A

Ability to use top-down and bottom-up processing in tandem with all of the other sensory clues about an object, to create a complete picture or idea. Gestalt principles are used to fill the gaps.

322
Q

What is the Gestalt principles?

A

Ways for the brain to infer missing parts of a picture when a picture is incomplete. There are five types: Law of Proximity (elements close to one another tend to be perceived as a unit); Law of Similarity (objects that are similar tend to be grouped together); Law of Good Continuation (elements that appear to follow in the same pathway tend to be grouped together); Law of Subjective Contours (perceiving contours and therefore, shapes that are not actually present in the stimulus); Law of Closure (when a space is enclosed by a contour, it tends to be perceived as a complete figure).

323
Q

What is the Law of Pragnanz?

A

Perceptual organization will always be regular, simple, and symmetric.

324
Q

What is Franz Gall known for?

A

Phrenology - personality linked to brain anatomy. For a particular trait that was well-developed then the part of the brain responsible for it would expand.

325
Q

What is Pierre Fluorens known for?

A

Studied functions of the major sections of the brain by extirpation and ablation. He asserted that different parts of the brain are specific for different functions and removal of one weakens the whole brain.

326
Q

What is William James known for?

A

Father of American Psychology. Role in functionalism, a system of thoughts in psychology that studied how mental processes help individuals adapt to their environments.

327
Q

What is John Dewey known for?

A

Role in functionalism. He believed that psychology should focus on the study of the organism as a whole as it functioned to adapt to the environment.

328
Q

What is Paul Broca known for?

A

Demonstrated that specific functional impairments could be linked with specific brain lesions.Broca found that a man who’d been unable to talk was unable to doso because of a lesion in a specific area on the left side of the brain.

329
Q

What is Hermann vo Helmholtz known for?

A

First to measure the speed of a nerve impulse. Credited with the transition of psychology into the field of natural sciences.

330
Q

What is Sir Charles Sherrington known for?

A

Inferred the existence of synapses.

331
Q

Define afferent, efferent, and interneurons.

A

Sensory neurons are afferent neurons - they send sensory information from the receptors to the CNS. Motor neurons are efferent neurons - they transmit motor information from the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands. Interneurons are found between other neurons and are the most numerous of the three types of neurons. They are predominantly found in the brain and spinal cord and are often linked to reflexive behaviour.

332
Q

What is a reflex arc?

A

The nerve pathway involved in a reflex action, including at its simplest a sensory nerve and a motor nerve with a synapse between.

333
Q

Define the CNS and PNS.

A

Central nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. The Peripheral nervous system is comprised of nerve tissue and fibers outside the brain and spinal cord (like the spinal and cranial nerves). The PNS can be divided into the somatic and autonomic nervous system. The somatic nervous system consists of sensory and motor neurons distributed throughout the skin, joints, and muscles. The autonomic nervous system is comprised of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. It regulates heartbeat, respiration, digestion, and glandular secretions.

334
Q

What is involved in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Main role is to conserve energy. It is associated with resting and sleeping states, and digestion. What happens with the body: constricts pupils, stimulates flow of saliva, constricts bronchi, slows heartbeat, stimulates peristalsis and secretion, stimulates bile release, and contracts bladder.

335
Q

What is invovled in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Activated by stress and closely associated with rage and fear reactions, also known as fight-or-flight. What happens with the body: dilates pupils, inhibits salivation, relaxes bronchi, accelerates heartbeat, stimulates sweating or piloerection, inhibits peristalsis and secretion, stimulates glucose production and release, secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline, inhibits bladder contraction, stimulates orgasm.

336
Q

What are the parts of the meninges and what does it do?

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater. The meninges help protect the brain, keep it anchored within the skull, and resorb CSF.

337
Q

What is the brain divided into and what are its subparts? Name both the vernacular and proper names

A

The hindbrain-rhombencephalon (myelencephalon (medulla oblangata) and the metencephalon (pons and cerebellum)). The midbrain-mesenchepalon (superior and inferior colliculus)). The forebrain-prosencephalon (diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, posterior pituitary, and pineal gland) and telencephalon (cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, and limbic pathway)).

338
Q

What does the medulla oblangata do?

A

Regulates breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure.

339
Q

What does the pons do?

A

Contains sensory and motor pathways between the cortex and the medulla.

340
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

Helps maintain posture and balance, and coordinates body movements.

341
Q

What does the midbrain do?

A

It’s associated with involuntary reflex responses triggered by visual or auditory stimuli. The superior colliculus receives visual input and the inferior colliculus receives auditory input.

342
Q

What are different methods of mapping the brain?

A

Studying brain lesions, extirpation and ablation, electrical stimulation, electroencephalogram, and regional cerebral blood flow.

343
Q

What does the Thalamus do?

A

Relay station for incoming sensory information, including all senses except for smell. The thalamus sorts and transmits them to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex.

344
Q

What does the Hypothalamus do?

A

Feeding, Fighting, Flighting, and (sexual) Functioning. It serves many homeostatic functions.

345
Q

What are the different parts of the hypothalamus and what do they do?

A

Lateral Hypothalamus (hunger centre - regulates eating and drinking; destruction causes not wanting to eat/drink). Ventromedial Hypothalamus (satiety centre - provides signals to stop eating; destruction causes obesity). Anterior Hypothalamus (sexual behaviour; stimulation leads to heightened sexual behaviour, destruction leads to permanent inhibition of sexual acitvity. Also has roles in sleeping and body temp)

346
Q

What do the posterior pituitary gland and pineal gland do?

A

PP gland releases antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin. Pineal gland releases melatonin, which regulates circadian rhythms.

347
Q

What does the basal ganglia do?

A

Coordinates muscle movement as they receive information fom the cortex and relay this information to the brain and the spinal cord. The extrapyramidal motor system gathers information about body position and carries this information to the CNS; thus helping smooth our movements and steady our posture.

348
Q

What is the limbic system and what are its structures?

A

Primary role in emotion and memory. Its structures are the septal nuclei, the amygdala, and the hippocampus.

349
Q

What does the septal nuclei do?

A

One of the primary pleasure centers in the brain. Association with this nuclei and addictive behaviours.

350
Q

What does the amygdala do?

A

Plays an important role in defensive and aggressive behaviours, including fear and rage. Lesions in this area result in docility and hypersexual states.

351
Q

What does the hippocampus do?

A

Plays a vital role in learning and memory processes, especially in forming long-term memories and distributing memories to the cerebral cortex. It communicates with the other parts of the limbic system via the fornix.

352
Q

What are the four parts of the cerebral cortex? What do they do?

A

Frontal lobe (executive function, supervisory), temporal lobe (hearing), parietal lobe (touch, temperature, pain), and occipital lobe (vision).

353
Q

Define the frontal lobe.

A

Three regions: Prefrontal cortex, Broca’s Area and Motor cortex. What do they do? Prefrontal cortex manages executive function by supervising and directing the operations of other brain regions. Processes can include perception, memory, emotion, impulse control, and long-term planning. The motor cortex is responsible for voluntary motor movements (projection area) which include feet, fingers, lips, etc. Broca’s area is responsible for speech production. Loss of this area leads to Broca’s aphasia or inability to form and say the appropriate words.

354
Q

What is the difference between an association and projection area?

A

An association area integrates input from diverse brain regions. A projection area has more simple perceptual and motor tasks.

355
Q

Define the parietal lobe.

A

Located to the rear of the frontal lobe. It is involved in somatosensation (touch, pressure, pain, temperature). It containts the somatosensory cortex. The central region of the parietal lobe is associated with spatial processing and manipulation. For example, spatial manipulation of objects, map-reading, and orient oneself in 3D space.

356
Q

Define the occipital lobe.

A

Contains the visual cortex.

357
Q

Define the temporal lobe.

A

Contains the auditory cortex and Wernicke’s area. The auditory cortex is the primary site of most sound processing, including speech, music, and other sound information. Wernicke’s area is associated with language reception and comprehension (damage causes inability to understand language being spoken).

358
Q

What does contralaterally and ipsilaterally mean?

A

Contralaterally means the motor neurons on the left side of the brain activate movements on the right side of the body. Ipsilaterally means that the cerebral hemispheres communicate with the same side of the body.

359
Q

Are most individuals right brain or left brain dominant?

A

Left brain dominant. Of left handed individuals, only 18% are right brain dominant; therefore, everyone is mostly left brain dominant.

360
Q

What is the dominant hemisphere responsible for?

A

Primarily analytic functions, detail-oriented analysis. For example, language, logic, and math skills. This includes letters and words using the visual system and speech-related sounds using the auditory system. Complex voluntary movement also managed by the dominant hemisphere.

361
Q

What is the nondominant hemisphere responsible for?

A

Associated with intuition, creativity, music cognition, and spatial processing. The nondominant hemisphere simultaneously processes the pieces of a stimulus and assembles them into a holistic image. The dominant hemisphere screens incoming language to analyze its content and the nondominant hemisphere interprets it according to its emotional tone. Lastly, this hemisphere is responsible for faces, music, emotions, and geometry/sense of direction.

362
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

Neurotransmitters are endogenous chemicals that enable neurotransmission. It is a type of chemical messenger which transmits signals across a chemical synapse, such as a neuromuscular junction, from one neuron (nerve cell) to another “target” neuron, muscle cell, or gland cell.

363
Q

What does acetylcholine do?

A

NT used by the efferent limb of the somatic nervous system (moving muscles) and parasympathetic nervous system. It is used to transmit nerve impulses to the muscles. Also, has roles in attention and arousal.

364
Q

What do epinephrine and norepinephrine do?

A

Involved with alertness and wakefulness, and the primary NT for flight-or-flight response. Norepinephrine acts at a local level as a NT, epinephrine is more often secreted from the adrenal medulla to act systemically as hormone.

365
Q

What does dopamine do?

A

Catecholamine involved in movement and posture. Mostly found in basal ganglia, which helps smooth movements and maintain postural stability.

366
Q

What does serotonin do?

A

It is a monoamine responsible for mood, eating, sleeping, and dreaming. High serotonin leads to mania and low leads to depression.

367
Q

What does GABA and glycine do?

A

These are stabilizing NTs. They act to produce inhibitory postsynaptic potentials and is thought to play an important role in stabilizing the neural activity in the brain.&raquo_space;> Hyperpolarization of postsynaptic membrane.

368
Q

What does Glutamate do?

A

It is an excitatory NT.

369
Q

What do Endorphins do?

A

Endorphins are natural painkillers produced in the brain.

370
Q

What are hormones?

A

Used by the endocrine system for communication in the body.

371
Q

What is the hypophyseal portal system?

A

The hypothalamus and pituitary gland are spatially close to each other and control is maintained through the release of hormones into the hypophyseal portal system that directly connects the two organs.

372
Q

What does the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex produce? What are the gonads role and its corresponding hormones?

A

Adrenal medulla - epinephrine and norepinephrine. Adrenal cortex - corticosteroids, including cortisol, and testosterone and estrogen (in both males and females). The gonads produce sex hormones in higher concentrations leading to higher levels of testosterone in males and higher levels of estrogen in females. These hormones increase libido and contribute to mating behaviour and sexual function.

373
Q

What are family studies? What is the sample and control group?

A

Family studies rely on the assumption that genetically related individuals are more similar genotypically than unrelated individuals. Sample group - family members; Control group - non-related individuals. For example, schizophrenia more common within families of affected individuals.

374
Q

What are twin studies? What is the sample and control group?

A

Twin studies - comparing concordance rates for a trait between monozygotic and dizygotic twins, thus allowing discrimination of the effects of shared environment and genetics. Sample group - MZ and Control group - DZ. For example, MZ twins separated at birth shared similar personalities versus DZ twins raised in the same household.

375
Q

What are adoption studies? What is the sample and control group?

A

Adoption studies help us understand environmental influences and genetic influence on behaviour. Sample group - adopted child; Control group - biological child. For example, IQ of adopted child is more comparable to biological parent than adoptive parent.

376
Q

Describe the formation of the nervous system prenatally.

A

Starts with neurulation at 3-4w GA. Neurulation occurs when the ectoderm overlying the notochord begins to furrow forming a neural groove surrounded by two neural folds. The leading edge of the neural fold are called the neural crest and will migrate throughout the body to form disparate tissues. The remainder of the furrow closes to form the neural tube, which will ultimately form the CNS. The alar plate in the neural tube differentiates into sensory neurons and the basal plate differentiates into motor neurons.

377
Q

What is the rooting reflex?

A

Automatic turning of the head in the direction of a stimulus that touches the cheek

378
Q

What is the Moro reflex?

A

Infants react to abrupt movements of their heads by flinging out their arms then slowly retracting their arms and crying.

379
Q

What is the Babinski reflex?

A

When the sole is stimulate, the toes spread apart automatically.

380
Q

What is the grasping reflex?

A

When the infant closes his or her fingers around an object placed in his or her hand.

381
Q

What can you say if adults exhibit the Babinski reflex?

A

Adults with neurological diseases may exhibit these primitive reflexes, espeically in illnesses that cause demyelination.

382
Q

What are two main themes that dictate the stages of motor development in early childhood?

A

Gross motor development proceeds from head to toe and from the core to the periphery.