Psychology and History Flashcards

1
Q

What is Lazarus theory

A

According to Lazarus’ cognitive appraisal theory, the experience of emotion depends on the individual’s cognitive appraisal of a situation. E.g. thinking a burglar has broken in leads to fear. This theory suggests that emotions are elicited after the mind interprets or appraises the significance of an event, particularly in terms of its threat or benefit to personal well-being.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Singer-Schachter theory (or two-factor theory)?

A

This theory suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example if your heart is racing and you’re about to have an exam you label yourself as afraid, but if your heart is racing and your about to kiss your boyfriend/girlfriend you label your emotional state as excited.

Stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind appraisal of them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Cannon-Bard theory (or thalami theory)?

A

This theory proposed that when an event happens, one feels an emotion at the same time as physiological changes.

Stimulus for emotion arises simultaneously in the body and the mind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is James-Lange theory?

A

This theory suggests that emotions happen as a result of bodily sensations. For example if you see a big dog, your heart races, you feel afraid. It was suggested that certain external stimuli stimulate particular sensory organs in such a way as to produce a specific emotion.

The sequence of events proposed was as follows. Event - arousal - interpretation - emotion

Stimulus for emotion arises from physical sensations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the theory of Total Institutions?

A

A theory proposed by Erving Goffman that refers to places of work and residence where a large number of similarly situated individuals, cut off from the wider society for an appreciable period of time, together lead an enclosed, formally administered round of life. E.g. prisons, asylums, military barracks, and nursing homes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The Good enough mother and transitional object are terms associated with whom?

A

Winnicott

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus are terms associated with whom?

A

Carl Jung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting are terms associated with whom?

A

Melanie Klein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious are terms associated with whom?

A

Sigmund Freud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Basic assumption group is a term associated with whom?

A

Wilfred Bion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Womb envy was a term coined by whom?

A

Karen Horney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Foundation matrix is term coined by whom?

A

Siegfried Foulkes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Institutional Neurosis is a term coined by whom?

A

Barton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are John Bowlby’s 4 stages of normal grief?

A

Stage 1: Shock-numbness (a few days)
Stage 2: Yearning-searching (a few weeks)
Stage 3: Disorganisation- Despair (includes acceptance of loss) ( a few months)
Stage 4: Reorganisation (resolution) (1-2 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 5 stages of grief according to Kubler-Ross?

A

Stage 1: Denial-dissociation-isolation
Stage 2: Anger
Stage 3: Bargaining
Stage 4: Depression
Stage 5: Acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three categories of abnormal grief?

A

Inhibited - absence of expected symptoms at any stage
Delayed - avoidance of painful symptoms within two weeks of loss
Chronic/prolonged - continued significant grief related symptoms 6 months after loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The strange situation procedure was a test devised by whom?

A

Psychologist, Mary Ainsworth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Operant conditioning?

A

A theory of learning devised by B F Skinner that suggests people learn by operating/ interacting with their environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe positive and negative reinforcement

A

A stimulus/ event that increases the likelihood that a behaviour will be repeated is called a reinforcer. In both positive and negative reinforcement the behaviour is strengthened.
Positive reinforcement occurs when a behaviour is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus. Negative reinforcement occurs when a behaviour is strengthened by the removal of an unpleasant stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe negative and positive punishment

A

A stimulus that decreases the likelihood that a behaviour will be repeated is called a punisher. Positive punishment occurs when a behaviour is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus.
Negative punishment occurs when a behaviour is reduced in frequency by the removal of a pleasant stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary reinforcers?

A

Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires e.g. food, water, social approval and sex
(social approval is considered by some to be a secondary reinforcer).

Secondary (conditioned) reinforcers are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning or other methods e.g. money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is shaping with regards to operant conditioning?

A

Rewarding behaviours that are successive and increasingly accurate approximations to the behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is chaining with regards to operant conditioning?

A

Breaking a complex task into smaller more manageable tasks. Reinforces are usually provided at the end of the chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is escape conditioning?

A

A type of negative reinforcement. Whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is avoidance conditioning?
A type of negative reinforcement whereby a person learns to avoid the aversive stimulus before it arrives.
26
What is habituation?
A decrease in response to stimulus over time. If the stimulus is removed for a period of time and then reappears the response will recur at full strength (spontaneous recovery)
27
What is covert sensitisation?
When someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behaviour with a negative consequence e.g. thinking about lung cancer when smoking a cigarette
28
What is the difference between trace and delay conditioning?
In trace conditioning there is a time gap between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus, involves memory In delay conditioning the conditioned stimulus overlaps with the unconditioned stimulus
29
Describe the heuristic bias of Representativeness
Misinterpreting the likelihood of an event considering both the key similarities to its parent population, and the individual characteristics that define that event. e.g. believing a young female in hospital to be a nurse and not a doctor.
30
Describe the heuristic bias of Availability
More recent and readily available answers and solutions are preferentially favoured because of ease of recall and incorrectly perceived importance. e.g. believing that violent crime is more common than it is due to news reports
31
Describe the heuristic bias of Anchoring and adjustment
The tendency to lock onto salient features in the patient's initial presentation too early in the diagnostic process, and failing to adjust this initial impression in light of later information.
32
Describe the heuristic bias of The Framing Effect
Reacting to a particular choice differently depending on how the information is presented to you.
33
Describe the heuristic bias of Base Rate Neglect
This occurs in medicine when the underlying incident rates of conditions or population-based knowledge are ignored as if they do not apply to the patient in question.
34
Describe the heuristic bias of Confirmation Bias
Diagnosticians tend to interpret the information gained during a consultation to fit their preconceived diagnosis, rather than the converse.
35
Describe the heuristic bias of Conjunction rule
The incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. This relates to 'Occam's razor' - a simple and unifying explanation is statistically more likely than multiple unrelated explanations.
36
Describe the heuristic bias of Diagnostic momentum
Continuing a clinical course of action instigated by previous clinicians without considering the information available and changing the plan if required (particularly if plan commenced by more senior clinician).
37
What is Bandura's social learning theory?
Focuses on learning behaviours through observation, imitation, and modelling
38
What is Festinger's Cognitive Dissonance theory?
It suggests that people experience discomfort (dissonance) when holding conflicting beliefs, which motivates them to resolve the inconsistency.
39
What is Rogers' Person-Centred Theory?
A theory in humanistic psychology that focuses on self-actualisation and the importance of unconditional positive regard.
40
What is Lewin's Field theory?
Kurt Lewin’s Field Theory in social psychology explains behaviour as a function of an individual's life space, which includes all internal and external factors influencing them at a given time.
41
What is stimulus generalisation?
Conditioned response occurs in response to stimuli that are similar to the original conditioned stimulus.
42
What is the difference between classical and operant conditioning?
In classical conditioning we are looking at responses to stimuli whereas in operant conditioning we are interested in responses to behaviour. In classical conditioning, the animal behaves as if it has learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event. In operant conditioning, the animal behaves as if it has learned to associate a behaviour with a significant event.
43
What is stimulus discrimination?
A stimulus significantly dissimilar to the conditioned stimulus (for example, a bell of a much higher pitch) does not produce a conditioned response.
44
What is Higher Order Conditioning?
This occurs when a new stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus when it is paired with an established conditioned stimulus
45
What is backward conditioning?
the conditioned stimulus follows the unconditioned stimulus
46
What is temporal conditioning?
The unconditioned stimulus is paired to time (there is no conditioned stimulus). The unconditioned stimulus is presented at regular intervals (for example, every 20 minutes). Eventually the unconditioned response will occur shortly prior to the unconditioned stimulus.
47
What is aversive conditioning?
An unpleasant stimulus is paired with an unwanted behaviour (such as nail-biting, smoking) in order to create an aversion to it
48
What is counter conditioning?
Involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome (e.g., food). Over repeated conditioned stimulus -positive unconditioned stimulus pairings, the fear response declines, and is often replaced by an appetitive response.
49
What is Incubation (with regards to classical conditioning)?
This occurs in fear responses. When a person is exposed to a stimulus which causes fear (for example being bitten by a dog), the fear response can increase over time due to brief exposures to the conditioned stimulus (for example to sight of dogs). This explains how fears can grow
50
What is reciprocal inhibition?
A technique that aims to replace an undesired response (e.g., anxiety) with a desired one by counterconditioning. It relies on the gradual substitution of a response that is incompatible with the original one and is potent enough to neutralize the anxiety-evoking power of the stimulus
51
What are the level 1 (Psychotic) defences according to Vaillant?
Delusional projection Psychotic denial Psychotic distortion
52
What are the level 2 (Immature) defences according to Vaillant?
Splitting Projection Projective identification Schizoid fantasy Hypochondriasis Passive aggression Acting out Regression
53
What are the level 3 (Neurotic) defences according to Vaillant?
Dissociation Repression Displacement Reaction Formation Intellectualisation Undoing
54
What are the level 4 (Mature) defences according to Vaillant?
Altruism Humour Suppression Sublimation
55
Describe a delusional projection?
Frank delusions about external reality, usually of a persecutory type. Includes both the perception of one's own feelings in another person and then acting on the perception (e.g., florid paranoid delusions), and the perception of other people or their feelings literally inside oneself (e.g., the agitated depressed patient's claim that 'the devil is devouring my heart'.
56
Describe psychotic denial
Refusal to accept reality
57
Describe psychotic distortion
Grossly reshaping external reality to suit the inner needs.
58
Describe splitting
Involves dealing with emotional conflict or internal or external stressors by compartmentalising opposite affect states and failing to integrate the positive and negative qualities of the self or others into cohesive images. Because ambivalent affects cannot be experienced simultaneously, more balanced views and expectations of self or others are excluded from emotional awareness. Self and object images tend to alternate between polar opposites. Alternating between extremes of idealisation and devaluation (splitting) is also typical of borderline personality disorders (BPD).
59
Describe projection
Involves attributing your own unacceptable (and unacknowledged) feelings, impulses, or thoughts to another person.
60
Describe projective identification
In projective identification aspects of the ego are projected into another (as in projection). The difference between the two is that projective identification takes into account the emotional impact of the recipient who feels what is projected into them. In projective identification there is often a sense of feeling controlled or manipulated
61
Describe schizoid fantasy
Tendency to use fantasy and indulge in autistic retreat for the purpose of conflict resolution and gratification. It is associated with global avoidance of personal intimacy and the use of eccentricity to repel others. In contrast to psychotic denial, the individual does not fully believe in or insist upon acting out his fantasies
62
Describe hypochondriasis
The transformation of reproach towards others arising from bereavement, loneliness, or unacceptable aggressive impulses into first self-reproach and then complaints of pain, somatic illness, and neurasthenia.
63
Describe repression
Seemingly inexplicable naivete, memory lapse, or failure to acknowledge input from a selected sense organ. The feeling is in consciousness, but the idea is missing. The 'forgetting' of repression is unique in that it is often accompanied by highly symbolic behaviour which suggests that the repressed is not really forgotten.
64
Describe displacement
The redirection of feelings toward a relatively less cared for (less cathected) object than the person or situation arousing the feelings.
65
Describe undoing
In undoing, an individual makes an attempt to cause past thoughts, words, gestures or actions not to have occurred. Undoing is directed at an act's very reality, and the aim is to suppress it absolutely, as though time were reversible. Freud originally used the term 'ungeschehenmachen' which translates to 'to make null and void' or 'to make unhappen'.
65
Describe reaction formation
Behaviour in a fashion diametrically opposed to an unacceptable instinctual impulse. This mechanism includes overtly caring for someone else when one wishes to be cared for oneself, 'hating' someone or something one really likes, or ' loving' a hated rival or unpleasant duty
66
Describe suppression
The conscious or semiconscious decision to postpone paying attention to a conscious impulse or conflict. The mechanism includes looking for silver linings, minimising acknowledged discomfort, employing a stiff upper lip, and deliberately postponing but not avoiding. With suppression, one says, 'I will think about it tomorrow', and the next day one remembers to think about it
67
Describe sublimation
Indirect or attenuated expression of instincts without either adverse consequences or marked loss of pleasure. E.g. expressing aggression through pleasurable games, sports, and hobbies, successful artistic expression . In sublimation, feelings are acknowledged, modified, and directed toward a relatively significant person or goal so that modest instinctual satisfaction results
68
Michael Foucault is best known for which work?
Madness and Civilisation Looks at historical treatment and institutionalisation of madness in the West. Critically appraises the socio-political contexts and structures that have determined how madness was perceived, managed, and excluded over centuries. Suggests that modern psychiatric practices, although appearing benevolent, may still contain traces of earlier punitive and exclusionary practices.
69
What are the Freudian texts
'The interpretation of dreams' - dreams are an expression of subconscious desires 'Beyond the pleasure principle' - humans have an innate drive towards self-destruction that exists in tension with the pleasure-seeking libido 'The psychopathology of everyday life' - everyday errors, such as slips of the tongue and forgetfulness offer insights into unconscious desires and conflicts
70
What is Thomas Szasz best known for?
'The Myth of Mental Illness' Antipsychiatry Posits that what is termed 'mental illness' is often a socially constructed label applied to nonconformist behaviour
71
What are Erving Goffman's works?
'Asylums' - 'total institutions' curtail individuality and autonomy 'The presentation of self in everyday life' - social interactions can be likened to theatrical performances
72
What is Ronald Laing best known for?
'The Divided Self' - Posits that psychosis is a result of fractured interpersonal relationships
73
Who wrote 'Le Suicide' (1897)?
Emile Durkheim, french sociologist
74
What are the four levels of suicide according to Durkheim?
Egoistic Altruistic Anomic Fatalistic
75
What is Tom Main's text 'The Ailment' about?
The emotional challenges faced by psychiatrists, proposing that their 'ailments' may mirror those of their patients. He urges a deep introspection and reflection upon one's own vulnerabilities and emotions as a therapeutic tool.
76
Who wrote 'Persuasion and Healing' and what was it about?
Jerome Frank Argues that the common denominator of various therapeutic approaches is the therapeutic relationship and the associated rituals and beliefs about healing. He underscores the universality of the need for meaningful human connection in therapeutic settings.
77
George Brown and Tirril Harris are best known for what?
'Social Origins on Depression' The profound link between social circumstances, particularly interpersonal relationships, and the onset of depression. They highlight the intricate interplay of social stressors, vulnerabilities, and depressive symptoms.
78
What are Thurston's 7 primary abilities?
Word fluency Verbal comprehension Spatial visualisation Number facility Associative memory Reasoning Perceptual speed
79
Who popularised the terms Dementia praecox and manic depression?
Emil Kraepelin
80
Who introduced the concept of catatonia?
Karl Kahlbaum
81
Who discovered lithium as a treatment for BPAD?
John Cade
82
Who coined the term schizophrenia?
Eugen Bleuler
83
Ewald Hecker introduced which term in relation to psychotic disorders?
Hebephrenia As a subtype of schizophrenia characterised by disorganised behaviour, inappropriate emotional responses, and fragmented thinking.
84
Henri Laborit and Paul Charpentier developed which psychotropic medication?
Chlorpromazine
85
Dementia precoce is a term coined by whom?
Benedict Morel
86
What is Carl Jung known for?
Psychoanalytic approaches to schizophrenia Work was focused on psychoanalysis and collective unconscious
87
Tom Beauchamp and James Childress introduced which ethical idea?
'Four principles' or 'Principlism' - Autonomy - Beneficence - Non-maleficence - Justice
88
According to Bowlby what are the stages of attachment?
1. Pre-attachment - birth to 6 weeks 2. Attachment in the making - 6 weeks to 6-8 months 3. Clear cut attachment- 6-8 months to 18-24 months 4. Formation of reciprocal attachment - 18-24 months to 2 years
89
Describe the Hawthorne effect?
A form of observer bias. It refers to the situation where someone changes their behaviour if they believe they are being observed.
90
What are Margaret Mahler's developmental stages?
Autistic phase: 0-4 weeks Symbiotic phase: 1-6 months Separation - Individuation phase: 6 - 36 months
91
What is Broadbent's filter model of attention and what is a limitation?
'Early selection model' - filtration occurs before the stimulus is processed for its meaning. Does not account for 'Cocktail Party effect' where a person might hear their name across a room
92
What is Treisman's Attenuation Theory of attention?
'Intermediate selection model' - weakens or 'attenuates' information instead of filtering it out. Proposes a two-stage filtering mechanism. Introduces a 'dictionary unit', emphasising the idea that certain words, like our own names, have lower thresholds for capturing our attention
93
What is Deutsch and Deutsch's Late Stage Model of attention?
Stimuli are analysed for their meaning before any filtration takes place. Selection is made after the stimuli have been comprehensively processed for meaning, implying a more in-depth, post-cognitive filtering.
94
What is Johnston and Heinz's Multimode Model of attention?
People can switch between early and late selection based on task demands and individual decisions. This model acknowledges that attention and selection are not fixed processes but can be adapted based on requirements and circumstances.
95
What are Kraeplin's six mixed states?
Manic stupor Depressive-anxious mania Excited depression Depression with flight of ideas Mania with poverty of thought Inhibited mania
96
What are Freud's stages of psychosexual development?
Oral: birth to 18 months Anal: 18 months to 3 years Phallic: 3 to 5 years - Oedipal and Electra complexes, penis envy Latent: 5 years to puberty Genital: Puberty to adulthood
97
What are the components of stigma as per Link and Phelan's model?
Labelling Stereotyping Separating Discrimination and status loss