Psychology Flashcards

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1
Q

Define learning

A

A process by which experience produces a relatively enduring change in an organism’s behaviour or capabilities

How we adapt to our environment

Can be overt (behavioural) or covert (cognitive)

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2
Q

What are the ABC elements of behaviour?

A

Antecedent (or cue)
Behaviour
Consequence

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3
Q

What is antecedent (in the ABC elements of behaviour)?

A

Environmental conditions or stimulus changes that exist before the behaviour of interest
internal or external to the subject

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4
Q

What is behaviour (in the ABC elements of behaviour)?

A

Behaviour of interest emitted by the subject

Influenced by antecedents and consequences

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5
Q

What is consequence (in the ABC elements of behaviour)?

A

Stimulus change that follows the behaviour of interest

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6
Q

What are the 3 basic learning processes?

A

Classical conditioning
Operant conditioning
Observational learning

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7
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

Learning what events signal

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8
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Learning one thing leads to another

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9
Q

What is observational learning?

A

Learning from others

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10
Q

What are the stimuli types in classical conditioning?

A
Unconditioned stimulus (UCS)
Conditioned stimulus (CS)
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11
Q

What is an unconditioned stimulus in classical conditioning?

A

A stimulus that elicits a reflexive or innate response (the UCR) without prior learning

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12
Q

What is an conditioned stimulus in classical conditioning?

A

A stimulus that (through association with an unconditioned stimulus) elicits a conditioned response similar to the original UCR

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13
Q

What is an unconditioned response in classical conditioning?

A

A reflexive or innate response that is elicited by a stimulus (the UCS) without prior learning

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14
Q

What is an conditioned response in classical conditioning?

A

A response elicited by a conditioned stimulus

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15
Q

Outline Pavlov’s dog experiment

A

BEFORE CONDITIONING
Tone -> no salivation response
UCS (food powder) -> UCR (salivation)

DURING CONDITIONING
CS (tone) + UCS (food powder) -> UCR (salivation)

AFTER CONDITIONING
CS (tone) -> CR (salivation)

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16
Q

What strengthens classical conditioning?

A

There are repeated CS-UCS pairings

UCS= more intense

The sequence involves forward pairing (i.e. CS -> UCS)

The time interval between the CS and UCS is short

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17
Q

What is extinction in classical/operant conditioning?

A

When operant behaviour that has been previously reinforced no longer produces reinforcing consequences the behaviour gradually stops occurring

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18
Q

What is stimulus generalization?

A

A tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar, but not identical, to a conditioned stimulus

E.g. respond to buzzer when conditioning was a bell

Elicits the CR but in a weaker form

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19
Q

What is stimulus discrimination?

A

The ability to respond differently to various stimuli

E.g. different bells (school, alarm, time) or fear of only certain dogs

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20
Q

Give a clinical example of classical conditioning

A

25-30% of chemo patients experience anticipatory nausea and vomiting

Chemo (US) -> Nausea (UCR)

Related cues e.g. sight of chemo unit (CS) -> Anticipatory nausea (CR)

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21
Q

How can conditioning affect immune system function? (Bovbjerg et al, 1990)

A

Blood samples of patients at home and hospital before chemo
Patients rated feelings of nausea and NK cell activity was measured

At home-> less nausea, more immune function

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22
Q

What is overshadowing in classical conditioning?

A

CS altered

Cancer patients divided into two groups
1= given unpleasant, novel drink
2= given water

Patients in group one showed significantly reduced nausea to clinic setting alone

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23
Q

What is the Little Albert experiment? (Watson & Raynor, 1920)

A

Little Albert conditioned to have a phobia of furry objects (generalized from initial phobia of white rat)

White rat= originally a neutral stimulus 
Loud noise (US)

Conditioned due to hammer hitting steel bar when child touched rat-> fear and distress (UR)

CS rat -> CR crying

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24
Q

What is fear learning (with e.g. of needle phobia)?

A

Traumatic injection-> pain/fear

Trauma (UCS) and needle (CS) -> fear response (UCR)

Clinic setting (CS) -> fear response (CR)

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25
Q

Outline the two-factor theory of maintenance of classically conditioned associations e.g. fear

A

Trauma (UCS) and needle (CS)-> fear response (UCR)

Avoid injections-> fear reduced-> tendency to avoid is reinforced

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26
Q

What is Thorndike’s Law of Effect?

A

A response followed by a satisfying consequence will be more likely to occur

A response followed by an aversive consequence will become less likely to occured

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27
Q

What is operant conditioning maintained by?

A

The consequences after behaviour is learned

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28
Q

What is positive reinforcement in operant conditioning?

A

Occurs when a response is strengthened by the subsequent presentation of a reinforcer

Can be primary or secondary reinforcers

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29
Q

What is a primary reinforcer in positive reinforcement?

A

Those needed for survival e.g. food, water, sleep, sex

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30
Q

What is a secondary reinforcer in positive reinforcement?

A

Stimuli that acquire reinforcing properties through their association with primary reinforcers e.g. money and praise

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31
Q

What is negative reinforcement in operant conditioning?

A

Occurs when a response is strengthened by the removal (or avoidance) of an aversive stimulus

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32
Q

What is a negative reinforcer?

A

The aversive stimulus that is removed or avoided (e.g. the use of painkillers are reinforced by removing pain)

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33
Q

Does ‘positive’ and ‘negative’ refer to ‘good’ and ‘bad’ stimuli?

A

NO!!

Refers to presentation or removal of a stimulus

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34
Q

What is a positive punishment?

A

Occurs when a response is weakened by the presentation of a stimulus (e.g. squirting a cat with water when it jumps on dining table)

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35
Q

What is a negative punishment?

A

Occurs when a response is weakened by the removal of a stimulus (e.g. phone confiscated)

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36
Q

Which has a more potent influence on behaviour (according to Skinner)- reinforcement or punishment?

A

Reinforcement is a much more potent influence on behaviour than punishment

Largely because punishment can only make certain responses less frequent- you can’t teach new behaviour

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37
Q

What is operant extinction?

A

The weakening and eventual disappearance of a response because it is no longer reinforced

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38
Q

What is resistance to extinction?

A

The degree to which non-reinforced responses persist

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39
Q

What types of reinforcement schedules in operant conditioning are there?

A

Fixed interval schedule
Variable interval schedule
Fixed ration schedule
Variable ration schedule

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40
Q

What is a fixed interval schedule in reinforcement?

A

Reinforcement occurs after fixed time interval

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41
Q

What is a variable interval schedule in reinforcement?

A

Time interval varies at random around an average

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42
Q

What is a fixed ratio schedule in reinforcement?

A

Reinforcement is given after a fixed number of responses

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43
Q

What is a variable ratio schedule in reinforcement?

A

Reinforcement is given after a variable number of responses (all centred around an average)

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44
Q

What produces more rapid learning- continuous or partial reinforcement?

A

Continuous reinforcement produces more rapid learning

Association between a behaviour and its consequences is easier to understand

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45
Q

What reinforced responses extinguish more rapidly- continuous or partial reinforcement?

A

Continuously reinforced responses extinguish more rapidly

The shift to no reinforcement is sudden and easier to understand

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46
Q

How does operant conditioning relate to medicine (e.g. with chronic pain behaviour)?

A

Chronic pain behaviour includes limping, grimacing, and medication requests

Reinforced by family or staff e.g. by being overly sympathetic, encouraging rest, increasing medication

Behaviour is reinforced by gratitude signals from the patient

A cycle is created in which the patient receives positive consequences for “being in pain” so pain is more likely to occur in frequency

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47
Q

What is the cognitive approach?

A

Bandura’s belief that humans are active info processors and think about the relationship between behaviour and consequences

Social imitation may hasten or short-cut the acquisition of new behaviours without the necessity of reinforcing

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48
Q

What is Bandura’s Social Learning Theory?

A

Observational (vicarious) learning= observe others and see consequences of their behaviours

Vicarious reinforcement= if their behaviours are reinforced we tend to imitate the behaviours

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49
Q

What is modeling/observation learning (Bandura)?

A

Occurs by watching and imitating actions of another person or by noting consequences of a person’s actions

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50
Q

What are the steps to successful modelling in observational learning?

A

Pay attention to model
Remember what was done
Must be able to reproduce modeled behaviour
If successful or behaviour is rewarded, behaviour more likely to recur

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51
Q

Outline Bandura’s Bobo Doll Experiment (1961)

A

72 children (approx 4y old) spent time in playroom with adult who modelled either non-aggressive or aggressive play

Then spent 20 mins alone in room

Aggressive behaviour was imitative

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52
Q

In social learning, we don’t imitate the behaviour of everyone we encounter. Imitation is more likely if model is…

A

Seen to be rewarded
High status (e.g. medical consultant)
Similar to us (e.g. colleagues)
Friendly (e.g. peers)

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53
Q

What are the 5 modern day killers?

A
Dietary excess
Alcohol consumption
Lack of exercise
Smoking
Unsafe sexual behaviour
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54
Q

Define health behaviour

A

Any activity undertaken by an individual believing himself to be healthy for the purpose of preventing disease or detecting it at an asymptomatic stage

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55
Q

What is the Alameda study?

A

Alameda county CA

List of 7 health behaviours they selected what they did…. not smoking, eating breakfast, not snacking, regular exercise, getting 7-8 hrs sleep, moderate alcohol, moderate weight

After 10 years, lower mortality in individuals (1/4) who practised all 7 than those who practises <3

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56
Q

What are the categories of behaviour change interventions?

A

Population
Individual
Community

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57
Q

What is the leading health education in the UK called?

A

Change 4 life

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58
Q

Outline the study of smoking education in school (Nutbeam et al, 1993)

A

Education programme (specially trained teachers over 3 months) about effects of smoking in 39 schools in England and Wales

Self report questionnaire and saliva test before, immediately after and at 1 year follow up

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59
Q

How can health education be enhanced?

A

Info is most effective for discrete behaviours (e.g. getting child vaccinated)

Messages tailored to a particular audience (e.g. suggesting condom use to sexually active teens better than abstinence)

Need more than knowledge- e.g. social and psychological support or skills to change

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60
Q

What are the cues for unhealthy eating (learning theory)?

A

Visual (e.g. fast food signs, sweets at checkout)
Auditory (e.g. ice cream bell)
Olfactory (e.g. smell of baking bread)
Location (e.g. the couch or car)
Time (e.g. evening)/ Events (e.g. end of TV programme )
Emotional (e.g. bored, stressed, sad, happy)

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61
Q

What are the reinforcement contingencies in unhealthy eating?

A

POSITIVE REINFORCEMENT
Dopamine, filling an empty void/boredom
Praise for preparing a high-fat meal for the family

NEGATIVE REINFORCEMENT
Avoid painful emotions by comfort eating

PUNISHMENT
Preparing a low fat meal is criticised

DELAYED (LIMITED) POSITIVE REINFORCEMENT FOR HEALTHY EATING
Efforts at dietary change/weight loss go unnoticed by others
Avoiding future health problems is too remote

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62
Q

What behaviour modification techniques techniques can be used in unhealthy eating?

A

STIMULUS CONTROL TECHNIQUES
Keep ‘danger’ foods out of the house
Avoid keeping biscuits in the same cupboard as tea & coffee
Eat only at the dining table
Use small plates
Do not watch TV at the same time as eating

COUNTER CONDITIONING
Identify ‘high-risk’ situations/cues (e.g. stress) and ‘healthier’ responses

EXAMPLES OF CONTINGENCY MANAGEMENT
Involve significant others to praise healthy eating choices
Plan specific rewards for successful weight loss
Vouchers for adherence to healthy eating ad weight loss

NATURALLY OCCURRING REINFORCERS
Improved self-esteem (positive reinforcement)
Reduction in symptoms of breathlessness (negative reinforcement)

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63
Q

Are incentives used in smoking cessation schemes more effective than those aimed at weight loss?

A

Yes

Incentives used in smoking cessation schemes were most effective those aimed at weight loss were the least effective

NB. Very successful scheme in Dundee offered cash to expectant mothers

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64
Q

What are the limitations of reinforcement programmes?

A

Lack of generalization (only affects behaviour regarding the specific trait that is being rewarded)

Poor maintenance (rapid extinction of the desired behaviour once the reinforcer disappears)

Impractical and expensive

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65
Q

Does fear arousal work? (Janis & Fesbach, 1953 dental health)

A

Dental health teaching

Low, moderate and high fear-inducing lectures given to different groups

Effect on subsequent dental hygiene behaviour was measured with self-report questionnaires 1 week later

High levels of fear-> denial and avoidance behaviour
(Low levels better)

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66
Q

What are the largest influencers on adolescent smoking? (Kobus, 2003)

A

Best friends have greatest influence

Then peer groups

There is substantial peer group homogeneity with respect to adolescent smoking

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67
Q

How did the Waterloo Smoking Prevention Project work and why was this effective? (Flay et al, 1983)

A

High school students given 6 sessions including rehearsing skills to build confidence in ability to resist peer pressure to smoke

Practical skills useful

Reduced number of children starting smoking

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68
Q

What is the expectancy-value principle?

A

The potential for a behaviour to occur in any specific situation is a function of the expectancy that the behaviour will lead to a particular outcome and the value of that outcome

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69
Q

What does Rosenstock’s Health Beliefs Model (1966) show?

A

The likelihood of behavioural change

As a result of:
Perceived threat
Cues to action
Background variables
Perceived susceptibility/seriousness
Perceived benefits/costs
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70
Q

Outline how the decision to get a flu vaccine can be describes by the Health Beliefs Model

A
Susceptibility= “A lot of people I know have got flu symptoms”
Seriousness= “It’s not something to really worry about”
Benefits= “The vaccination will stop me getting sick”
Costs/barriers= “The injection will be painful and it might make me ill for a while”
Cues= Doctor strongly advises to have it
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71
Q

Outline smoking cessation using the Health Beliefs Model

A

Susceptibility= Is smoking affecting your health? What would it be like if you got it?

Benefits/barriers= Pros and cons of smoking for you? Anything stopping you from quitting?

Cues= Giving up smoking prompt

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72
Q

What is an outcome efficacy belief?

A

Individuals expectation that the behaviour will lead to a particular outcome

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73
Q

What is a self efficacy belief?

A

Belief that one can execute the behaviour required to produce the outcome

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74
Q

What factors influence self efficacy?

A

Mastery experience
Social learning
Verbal persuasion or encouragement
Physiological arousal

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75
Q

Outline Ajzen’s Theory of Planned Behaviour (1991)

A

Beliefs about outcome (expectancy) and evaluation of outcome (value) -> attitude towards the behaviour-> intention-> behaviour

Beliefs about important others’ attitudes towards the behaviour-> subjective norm-> intention-> behaviour

Internal control factors (e.g. self efficacy) and external control factors (e.g. perceived costs/barriers)-> perceived behavioural control-> intention-> behaviour

SEE DIAGRAM

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76
Q

Outline smoking cessation using the Theory of Planned Behaviour

A

Explore attitudes towards smoking:

  • What do you think about smoking?
  • Is smoking a good or bad thing for you?

Explore the norms of important people around her:

  • What do your friends/family think about you smoking?
  • Would you like to quit for [person]?

Explore whether she intends to quit smoking:

  • Have you ever thought about quitting?
  • Do you intend to quit in the next few months?

Explore how much control she thinks she has:
- Do you think you can quit? - What makes you think that you can’t?

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77
Q

What is the Transtheoretical (Stages of Change) model? (DiClemente, 1983)

A

Circle

(Pre-contemplation= doesn't recognize need for change or is not actively considering change)
Contemplation= recognizes problem and is considering change
Preparation= getting ready to change
Action= initiating change
Maintenance= adjusting to change and practicing new skills/behaviours to sustain change
Relapse= may occur and start cycle again (OR PERMANENT EXIT)
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78
Q

Summarise the approaches for modifying health behaviour

A

Listen and validate patient’s experience

Identify and remedy any gaps in knowledge

Identify cues and reinforcers then modify if possible and plan rewards

Identify and attempt to modify unhelpful beliefs

Enhance self-efficacy

Identify and problem-solve barriers to change

Identify positive, relevant role models

Encourage social support

Tailor intervention to individual’s readiness to change

Motivational interviewing

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79
Q

Define sensation

A

The stimulus detection system by which our sense organs respond to and translate environmental stimuli into nerve impulses that are sent to the brain

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80
Q

Define perception

A

The active process organising the stimulus output and giving it meaning

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81
Q

How does sensation lead to perception?

A

Stimulus energy (light, sound, smell etc)

Sensory receptors (eyes, ears, nose, etc)

Neural impulses (SENSATION->PERCEPTION)

Brain (visual, auditory, olfactory areas)

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82
Q

Is perception an active process?

A

Yes

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83
Q

Outline top-down perception

A

Processing in light of existing knowledge

Influenced by motives, expectations, previous experiences and cultural expectations

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84
Q

Outline bottom-up perception

A

Individual elements are combined to make a unified perception

Influenced by activation in auditory cortex, vibration of tympanic membrane

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85
Q

What factors affect top-down perception?

A

Attention

Past experiences (e.g. poor people overestimate size of coins compared to affluent people)

Current drive state (e.g. arousal state) (e.g. when hungry notice food-related stimuli)

Emotions (e.g. anxiety increases threat perception)

Individual values

Environment

Cultural background

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86
Q

Give an example of cross-cultural differences in perception

A

People in W. Africa thought something above woman’s head was basket not picture on wall

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87
Q

What did Gestalt Laws of perceptual organisation champion?

A

Championed top-down processing

Continuity, similarity, proximity, closure

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88
Q

What are figure-ground relations according to Gestalt Laws?

A

Figure-ground relations= our tendency to organise stimuli into central or foreground and a background
Focus of attention becomes the figure, all else is background

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89
Q

What did Gestalt think of continuity?

A

When the eye is compelled to move through one object and continue to another object

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90
Q

What did Gestalt think of similarity?

A

Similar things are perceived as being grouped together

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91
Q

What did Gestalt think of proximity?

A

Objects near each other are grouped together

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92
Q

What did Gestalt think of closure?

A

Things are grouped together if they seem to complete some entity

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93
Q

What are the disorders of visual perception?

A

Visual agnosias (apperceptive and associative)

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94
Q

What is visual agnosia?

A

Primary visual cortex can be mostly intact
(Associated with bilateral lesions to the occipital, occiptotemporal, or occipitoparietal lobes)

Basic vision spared
Patient not blind
(Will smile at you, say hi when you come in)

Knowledgeable about information from other senses (e.g. if they touch an object then naming is typically simple)

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95
Q

What is apperceptive agnosia?

A

Failure to integrate the perceptual elements of the stimulus

Individual elements perceived normally
May be able to indicate discrete awareness of parts of a printed word but cannot organised into a whole
Damage to lower level occipital regions

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96
Q

What is associative agnosia?

A

Failure of retrieval of semantic information

Shape, colour, texture can all be perceived normally
Typically sensory specific e.g. if object touched, then recognised
Damage to higher order occipital regions

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97
Q

What does Humphreys & Riddoch’s hierarchical model (2001) of visual perception show?

A
Visual perceptual analysis
->
Viewer centred representation
->
Visual object recognition system
-> 
Semantic system
->
Name retrieval
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98
Q

In Humphreys & Riddoch’s hierarchical model (2001) of visual perception, what is affected in agnosia?

A
Visual perceptual analysis *AP AG
->
Viewer centred representation *AP AG
->
Visual object recognition system *AS AG
-> 
Semantic system *AS AG
->
Name retrieval

AP AG= apperceptive agnosia
AS AG= associative agnosia

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99
Q

Define: attention

A

Process of focusing conscious awareness

Providing heightened sensitivity to a limited range of experience requiring more intensive processing

2 processes= focus on a certain aspect and filter out other info

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100
Q

What are the two processes of attention?

A

Focus on a certain aspect

Filter out other info

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101
Q

What are the components of attention?

A
Focused attention (the spotlight)
Divided attention (paying attention to more than one thing at once)
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102
Q

What stimulus factors affect attention?

A
Intensity
Novelty
Movement
Contrast
Repetition
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103
Q

What personal factors affect attention?

A
Motives
Interests
Threats
Mood
Arousal
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104
Q

What cognitive processes are intertwined with attention?

A

Memory and perception

ATTENTION (External stimuli-> sensory buffers)-> limited capacity short-term memory-> long-term memory-> responses

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105
Q

What are sensory buffers?

A

Register info for a few seconds which can be used to select which info info to focus on

There’s a limited capacity for short term memory but evidence that we can unconsciously perceive info not attended to

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106
Q

What is the cocktail party effect?

A

Cherry, 1953

Can focus our attention on one person’s voice in spite of all the other convos

When someone says your name- you hear that

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107
Q

How does attention relate to clinical skills?

A

Multi-tasking is easiest when skills are automatic and tasks are not too similar (e.g. writing an essay whilst listening to music)

BUT the more automatic a task, the less conscious control available

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108
Q

What happens when you use a phone whilst driving?

A

Slows reaction times

Less attention on sensory inputs

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109
Q

When do incorrect actions occur? (attention)

A

Correct response is not most habitual or strongest
Full attention not given to task
High levels of stress or anxiety present

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110
Q

What is MSS (Medical Student Syndrome)?

A

Psych condition amongst medical trainees that experience symptoms of the disease or diseases that they are studying

High workload, stress of exams, high anxiety related to new clinical experiences and exposure to medical knowledge

Leads to selective attention to physical symptoms and misinterpretation (e.g. I have X disease)-> preoccupation

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111
Q

How does attention relate to bodily symptoms?

A

Focus of attention contributes to the perception of our bodily symptoms

Treadmill study (Pennebaker &amp; Lightner, 1980)
1st run= headphones with no sounds
2nd= amplified sounds of own breathing or street sounds

Symptoms worsened with breathing but massively reduced by street sounds

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112
Q

What is pain perception?

A

Pain is often an important sign that the body has been damaged or something is wrong

Acute pain= protects from damage or infection, expectation of perceived bodily symptoms

Chronic= can be from oversensitization/dysregulation

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113
Q

How is acute pain altered by expectation of perceived bodily symptoms?

A

Anderson & Pennebaker, 1980

Students were told vibrating sandpaper would be:
Painful (not painful)
Pleasant (neutral, towards not painful)
Not told anything (pain)

Expectation changes the response to the same stimulus

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114
Q

How does pain perception affect chronic pain?

A
External factors
Pain behaviours
Suffering
Emotions
Thoughts
Pain sensation
Tissue damage
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115
Q

Outline the Gate Theory of Pain (Melzak, 1999)

A

Pain signals compete to get through ‘gate’
‘Gate’ can be opened or closed by psychological and physical factors
Explains pain relief by ‘rubbing it better’

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116
Q

What is the fear-avoidance model of chronic pain?

A

Strong relationships between areas

  • Pain
  • Mood, thoughts and stress
  • Day-to-day functioning (behaviour)

Pain breeds avoidance which perpetuates stress, low mood, anxiety etc.

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117
Q

What does ‘language is ubiquitous’ mean?

A

No humans yet discovered without language

Innate (Chomsky) or exposure (Putnam)?

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118
Q

What is a phoneme?

A

The smallest unit of speech sound in a language that can signal a difference in meaning

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119
Q

How many phonemes can humans produce? How many in English?

A

Humans can produce just over 100 phonemes

English language consists of 44 phonemes

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120
Q

What is a morpheme?

A

The smallest units of meaning in a language

Typically one syllable
Morphemes combined into words

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121
Q

What is syntax?

A

Rules and principles which govern the way in which morphemes and words can be combined to communicate meaning in a particular language

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122
Q

What is universal grammar?

A

Widely accepted theory that under normal conditions human beings will develop language with particular properties (e.g. distinguishing nouns from verbs)

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123
Q

What happens to children of speakers of pidgin languages?

A

Even though pidgin languages lack basic grammatical structures
They develop languages which are fully grammatical

Innate property of the brain results in this

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124
Q

Outline language development up to 12 months?

A

1-3 months= can distinguish speech from non-speech sounds and prefers speech sounds (phonemes)
Undifferentiated crying gives way to cooing when happy

4-6 months= babbling begins (vocalizations in response to verbalizations of others)

7-11 months= narrowing of babbling sounds to include only the phonemes heard in the language spoken by others in the environment
= child discriminate some words without understanding their meaning and begins to imitate word sounds heard from others

12 months= first recognizable words are spoken (e.g. dada)

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125
Q

Outline language development from 12 months to 5 years?

A

12-18 months= child increases knowledge of word meanings and begins to use single words to express whole phrases or requests (e.g. out, mostly nouns)

18-24 months= vocab expands betweens 50-100 words (rudimentary sentences e.g. more milk) without articles (the, a), conjuctions (and) or auxiliary verbs (can, will)

2-4 years= vocab expands rapidly at the rate of several hundred words every 6 months (linger sentences without grammar that exhibit basic language syntax)

4-5 years= child has learned the basic grammatical rules for combining nouns, adjectives, articles conjunctions and verbs into meaningful sentences

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126
Q

Outline Genie’s case?

A

‘Genie’ -was deprived of social interaction from birth until discovered aged 13

She was completely without language, and after seven years of rehabilitation still lacked linguistic competence

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127
Q

Is there a critical period in language acquisition?

A

Yes

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128
Q

How do genes affect language development?

A

Huge individual differences in language ability, some of which depend on genetic factors

E.g. KE family: across three generations about 50% suffer severe language problems (e.g. difficulties understanding speech, slow ungrammatical speech)

Associated with mutations of FOXP2 gene, also found in patients with similar language problems (MacDermot et al. 2005)

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129
Q

How is language affected by handedness?

A

Hemispheric specialization for language

95% of right-handed people have left-hemisphere dominance for language

18.8% of left-handed people have right-hemisphere dominance for language function

Additionally, 19.8% of the left-handed have bilateral language functions

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130
Q

Outline Broca’s aphasia

A

Non-fluent speech (expressive aphasia)
Impaired repetition
Poor ability to produce syntactically correct sentences
Intact comprehension

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131
Q

Outline Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

Problems in comprehending speech (input or reception of language)
Fluent meaningless speech
Paraphasias- errors in producing specific words
Semantic paraphasias-substituting words similar in meaning (“barn”-“house”)
Phonemic paraphasias-substituting words similar in sound (“house”-“mouse”)
Neologisms- non words (“galump”)
Poor repetition
Impairment in writing

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132
Q

How is language made up?

A
Phonemes
Morphemes
Words
Phrases
Sentence
Discourse
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133
Q

Where are Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area?

A

Broca’s area is found in the inferior or front of the temporal lobe

It’s connected to Wernicke’s area by a bundle of nerve fibers called arcuate fasciculus

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134
Q

What does the arcuate fasciculus connect?

A

Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas

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135
Q

What aphasia is it if comprehension is intact but non fluent agency?

A

Broca’s aphasia

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136
Q

What aphasia is it if comprehension is impaired and non fluent agency?

A

Global aphasia

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137
Q

What aphasia is it if comprehension is impaired but expression is fluent?

A

Wernicke’s aphasia

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138
Q

Do Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas exist?

A

Modern findings show that rather than there being one key connective tract relevant to language function, there are many

Tremblay and Dick conclude that language function is incredibly widely distributed through the brain

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139
Q

What can lesions to the dominant hemisphere be caused by?

A

Stroke
Traumatic brain injury
Progressive neurodegenerative conditions (e.g. Alzheimer’s, fronto-temporal dementias, Parkinson’s)

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140
Q

What can transient aphasia be associated with?

A

TIA

Migraine

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141
Q

What is Dysexecutive Syndrome?

A

Dysexecutive syndrome involves the disruption of executive function and is closely related to frontal lobe damage

Encompasses cognitive, emotional, and behavioural symptoms

Can result from many causes including head trauma, tumours, degenerative diseases and cerebrovascular disease

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142
Q

What are executive functioning?

A

The skills that are the mental processes that enable us to plan, focus attention, remember instructions and juggle multiple tasks successfully

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143
Q

Outline Phineas Gage’s case

A

Railway worker who got iron rod straight up into his skull

Changed his personality-> swearing, inappropriate etc.

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144
Q

Outline the Lezak (1995)case study

A

Intact IQ but initiating, correcting and self-regulating behaviours compromised

38 year old hand surgeon, hypoxic frontal damage during cardiac arrest

Intact IQ but initiating, correcting and self-regulating behaviours compromised

Was polite and responsive to questions, but volunteered nothing spontaneously and asked no questions

Affect remained unchanged regardless of topic

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145
Q

What are the behavioural and emotional aspects of dysexecutive syndrome?

A
Hypoactivity
Lack of drive
Apathetic
Poor initiation of tasks
Emotional bluntness
Hyperactivity
Impulsive
Disinhibited
Perseverative
Emotional dysregulation

Socially inappropriate
Rude, crass, prone to swearing
Theory of mind difficulties
Reduced empathy

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146
Q

What are the cognitive aspects of dysexecutive syndrome?

A

Attentional and working memory difficulties
Poor planning and organisation
Difficulty coping with novel situations and unstructured tasks
Difficulty switching from task to task
Difficulty keeping track of multiple tasks
Difficulty with complex/abstract thinking

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147
Q

Give an example of the inhibition task

A

Name the colour of the ink the word is presented in

Unless the word is underlined, then read the word

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148
Q

What is usually damaged in impairment syndromes?

A

Pre-frontal lobes and/or subcortical structure damage is associated with impairment syndromes in executive functions

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149
Q

What is developmental psychology?

A

Scientific study of changes that occur in people over the course of their life

Changes in thought, behaviour reasoning and functioning occur

Influenced by biological, individual and environmental influences

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150
Q

How are children treated as patients?

A

Dependent on their age/where they are developmentally

Affects how you communicate with, understand and relate to each other

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151
Q

How do heredity and environment influence human development?

A

Epigenetic

The baby is an interactive project not a self
powered one

Nature sets out their course via gender, genetics, temperament and maturational stages

Nurture shapes this predetermined course via the environment; parenting, stimulation and nutrition

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152
Q

What kind of responses are the ‘least hard wired’ in the animal kingdom?

A

Emotional responses

Are the least hard wired in the animal kingdom and the most influenced by experience

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153
Q

What does a baby recognise about their mother by 40 weeks?

A

Recognise their mother as a memory of her has been built up in utero

Via hearing, smell and taste

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154
Q

When can babies hear?

A

In the womb

Receptive hearing at 16 weeks
Functional hearing begins at 24 weeks

As a result, prefer their mothers’ voices to the voices of other women

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155
Q

What is functional hearing?

A

How baby’s use what hearing they have

Beings at 24th week of gestation

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156
Q

How do babies know the difference between languages?

A

Every language has its own characteristic rhythms and newborns can detect them

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157
Q

What smells can be recognised by babies?

A

Their own amniotic fluid
Maternal breast odours (prefer their mother’s)
Others smells associated with their mother

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158
Q

What can a newborn taste?

A

Sweet, umami, sour, bitter (they can’t taste salty until 4 months)

They particularly like very sweet sugar solutions (helps before painful procedure e.g. heel pricks) and glutamate (found in breast milk)

They don’t like some bitter and sour substances

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159
Q

What can a baby see?

A

Can’t see very well- newborn has blurry vision with sharpest visual acuity at the edges of the visual field

12-36h= prefer mothers' face to strangers
Newborns= prefer faces and face-like stimuli (particularly faces with open eyes and happy face stimuli)
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160
Q

What is reciprocal socialisation?

A

Newborns prefer to look at expressive, responsive faces

Bidirectional- children socialise parents just as parents socialise children

Baby: cries moves, grimaces, smiles, calms, looks
Parent: mirrors, repeats, interprets, responds

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161
Q

What is scaffolding is reciprocal socialisation?

A

If parents responses supports or reinforces the infants efforts the infant will build on this interaction or experience and continue to develop in this area

Scaffolding can occur in lots of different types of interactions not just parent child

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162
Q

How can you test reciprocal socialisation?

A

Still Face paradigm, Tronick 1975

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163
Q

How do parents provide a supportive environment for development?

A

Scaffolding
Reciprocal socialisation
Provision of a stimulating and enriching environment

Internal working model (Bowlby, 1969) is established through this social process (baby coordinates his systems with those of the people around him)

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164
Q

How does a mother with depression affect her child?

A

Babies of depressed mothers adjust to low stimulation and get used to lack of positive feels

In the same way

  • agitated mothers-> over aroused baby
  • well managed babies-> expect a world that is responsive to feelings
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165
Q

What is the attachment theory?

A

Attachment theory= describes a biological instinct that seeks proximity to an attachment figure when threat is perceived or discomfort is experienced

i.e. sense of safety a child experiences provides a secure base from which they can explore their environment

Process begins before birth and is supported by reciprocal socialisation

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166
Q

What is the development of attachment over the 1st year?

A

Birth to 3M= prefers people to inanimate objects, indiscriminate proximity seeking e.g. clinging

3-8M= smiles discriminately to main caregivers

8-12M= selectively approaches main caregivers, uses social referencing / familiar adults as “secure base” to explore new situations; shows fear of strangers and separation anxiety

From 12M (corrected age)= the attachment behaviour can be measured reliably

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167
Q

What is the Strange Situation Test?

A

Ainsworth et al, 1978

Designed to present children with an unusual, but not overwhelmingly frightening, experience

It tests how babies or young children respond to the temporary absence of their mothers-> tests ATTACHMENT

Researchers are interested in two things:

  1. How much the child explores the room on his own
  2. How the child responds to the return of his mother

Shows if child is secure or insecure

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168
Q

How can you test attachment?

A

Strange situation test

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169
Q

What are the main attachment styles?

A

Secure (65%) vs insecure (35%)

Secure= formed in early infancy, they are a protective factor leading to resilience throughout the life span
Insecure= place individual at risk (but not causative for later problems) 

NB. Resistant-insecure (ambivalent) and disorganized-insecure

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170
Q

What is a securely-attached child?

A

Free exploration and happiness upon mother’s return

(The securely-attached child explores the room freely when Mum is present. He may be distressed when his mother leaves, and he explores less when she is absent. But he is happy when she returns. If he cries, he approaches his mother and holds her tightly. He is comforted by being held, and, once comforted, he is soon ready to resume his independent exploration of the world. His mother is responsive to his needs. As a result, he knows he can depend on her when he is under stress)

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171
Q

What is an insecurely-attached child?

A

Avoidant-insecure child with little exploration and little emotional response to mother

(The avoidant-insecure child doesn’t explore much, and he doesn’t show much emotion when his mother leaves. He shows no preference for his mother over a complete stranger and, when his mother returns, he tends to avoid or ignore her)

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172
Q

What is a resistant-insecure child?

A

Little exploration, great separation anxiety and ambivalent response to mother upon her return

(Like the avoidant child, the resistant-insecure child doesn’t explore much on her own. But unlike the avoidant child, the resistant child is wary of strangers and is very distressed when her mother leaves. When the mother returns, the resistant child is ambivalent. Although she wants to re-establish close proximity to her mother, she is also resentful- even angry- at her mother for leaving her in the first place. As a result, the resistant child may reject her mother’s advances)

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173
Q

What is a disorganized-insecure child?

A

Little exploration and confused response to mother

(The disorganized child may exhibit a mix of avoidant and resistant behaviours. But the main theme is one of confusion and anxiety. Disorganized-insecure children are at risk for a variety of behavioural and developmental problems)

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174
Q

What attachment style is most indicative of behavioural/developmental problem risk?

A

Disorganized-insecure

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175
Q

What does secure attachment promote?

A

Independence
Emotional availability
Better moods
Better emotional coping

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176
Q

What is secure attachment associated with?

A

Fewer behavioural problems
Higher IQ and academic performance

Contributes to a child’s moral development
Reduces child distress

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177
Q

What is secure attachment associated with in adolescence and adulthood?

A
Social competence
Loyal friendships
More secure parenting of offspring
Greater leadership qualities
Greater resistance to stress
Less mental health problems such as anxiety and depression
Less psychopathology e.g. schizophrenia
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178
Q

How does play affect child development?

A

Enriches brain
-> smarter brains and more BDNF

Brain derived neurotrophic factor- needed for growth and maintenance of brain cells

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179
Q

What are the benefits of play?

A
Engage and interact with world
Create and explore own world
Experience mastery and control
Practice decision-making, planning
Practice adult roles
Promotes language development
Promotes creative problem solving
Overcome fears
Develop new competencies
Learn how to work in group
Develop own interests
Extend positive emotions
Maintain healthy activity level
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180
Q

How do types of play change from birth to 6+ years?

A

Solitary, spectator, parallel play, associate, co-operative, competitive

0-2 years
SOLITARY= he plays alone- limited interaction with other children

2 to 2.5 years
SPECTATOR= observe other children playing around him but will not play with them

2.5-3 years
PARALLEL PLAY= alongside others but will not play together with them

3-4 years
ASSOCIATE= starts to interact with others in their play and there may be fleeting co-operation between in play
- Develops friendships and the preferences for playing with some but not all other children
- Play is normally in mixed sex groups

4-6 years
CO-OPERATIVE= plays together with shared aims of play with others
- Play may be quite difficult and he’s supportive of other children in his play
- As he reaches primary school age, play is normally in single sex groups

6+ years
COMPETITIVE= play often involves rules and has a clear “winner”

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181
Q

What is Piaget’s theory of cognition?

A

Proposed Piaget’s Stage Model

Proposed that children’s thinking changes qualitatively with age

As a result of an interactive of the brain’s biological maturation and personal experiences

Affects schemas

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182
Q

How does Piaget’s theory of cognition relate to schemas?

A

Development occurs as we acquire new schemas and as our existing schemas become more complex

Process of assimilation and accommodation which leads to adaptation

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183
Q

What is assimilation (according to Piaget)?

A

Incorporating new experience into existing schema

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184
Q

What is accommodation (according to Piaget)?

A

The difference made by the process of assimilation

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185
Q

What is adaptation (according to Piaget)?

A

Whereby new experiences cause existing schema to change

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186
Q

What are the stages Piaget describes?

A

Sensorimotor stage (0-2y)
Pre-operational stage (2-7y)
Concrete operational stage (7-12y)

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187
Q

What happens in the sensorimotor stage according to Piaget?

A

Birth to age 2; infants understand their world primarily through sensory experiences and physical (motor) interactions with objects

Object permanence

Gradually increasing use of words

Learning based on trial and error

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188
Q

What is object permanence?

A

The understanding that an object continues to exist even when it can’t be seen

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189
Q

What happens in the pre-operational stage according to Piaget?

A

The world is represented symbolically through words and mental images- no understanding of basic mental operation

Rapid language development

Understanding of the past and future

No understanding of the Principle of Conservation

Irreversible= can’t reverse actions

Animism begins

Egocentrism happens

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190
Q

What is animism?

A

Attributing lifelike qualities to physical objects and natural events

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191
Q

What is the Principle of Conservation?

A

Basic properties of objects stay the same even though their outward appearance may change

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192
Q

What is egocentrism?

A

Difficulty in viewing the world from someone else’s perspective

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193
Q

What happens in the Concrete Operational Stage according to Piaget?

A

Children can perform basic mental operations concerning problems that involve tangible (“concrete”) objects and situations

Understand the concept of reversibility

Display less egocentrism

Easily solve conservation problems

Trouble with hypothetical and abstract reasoning

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194
Q

What are the main limitations of Piaget?

A

Some researchers query whether children respond as they do to please the adult asking the question

Some argue the (repeated) question is so weird (as the answer is so obvious) the child thinks the adult wants or expects you to change the original answer– when more naturalistic ways of asking the questions were developed children performed much better

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195
Q

How does child development influence the child’s understanding of death?

A

<5y= Don’t understand that death is final, universal, will take euphemisms concretely, may think they have caused deat
.
5 to 10 years= gradually develop idea of death as irreversible, all functions ended, universal/unavoidable, more empathic to another’s loss; may be preoccupied with justice

10yrs to teens= understand more of long-term consequences, able to think hypothetically, draw parallels, review inconsistencies

Dependent on cognitive development and experience (pets, extended family members)

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196
Q

How do cognition, emotion and relationships change in adolescence?

A

Adolescence involves cognitive development and physical growth, as distinct from puberty, which can extend into the early twenties

Transition to formal operational stage

Chronological age only provides a rough marker of adolescence

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197
Q

What is adolescence?

A

Transitional stage of physical and psychological human development that generally occurs from puberty (biologically defined period of rapid maturation in which a person becomes capable of sexual reproduction) to legal adulthood (a social construction)

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198
Q

What is the Formal Operational Stage?

A

Follows adolescence

Where abstract thought emerges

Adolescent begins to think more about moral, philosophical, ethical, social and political issues that require theoretical and abstract reasoning

Begin to use deductive logic or reasoning from a general principle to specific information

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199
Q

What happens to the adaptive adolescent brain between age 12 and 25?

A

Extensive brain remodelling (myelinisation, synaptic pruning)

Cognitive changes may help journey from the secure world parent(s) provided to fitting into world created by peers

Thrill seeking
Openness to new experiences
Risk taking 
Social rewards are very strong
Prefer own age company

Emotionality becomes less positive through early adolescence
But level off and become more stable by late adolescence

Storms and stress more likely during adolescence than rest of the lifespan but not characteristic of all adolescents

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200
Q

What is the psychological impact of long-term condition?

A

People with 1 LTC= 2-3x more likely to develop depression (than rest of population)

People with 3 LTC= 7x more likely to develop depression

Increased risk of CHD and mortality from this

Increased risk of death from MH problesm

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201
Q

What is the Self Regulatory Model (Leventhal, 1993)?

A

The model proposes that illness disrupts normality and the individual is motivated to return to a “normal”, healthy state

However, for patients who have a terminal illness the ability to return to health is not possible and coping becomes more about the psychological response to the inevitability of death and dying

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202
Q

What are stages in the self regulatory model?

A

Representation of health threat= identity, cause, consequence, timeline, cure/control

Stage 1= interpretation
Stage 2= coping
Stage 3= appraisal

Emotional response to health threat= fear, anxiety, depression

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203
Q

What is ‘interpretation’ in the self regulatory model?

A

The patient’s attempts to make sense of their perceived symptoms

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204
Q

What is ‘coping’ in the self regulatory model?

A

Adaptive and maladaptive ways of dealing with the problem in order to regain a sense of balance

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205
Q

What is ‘appraisal’ in the self regulatory model?

A

The assessment of how successful, or otherwise that the coping stage has been

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206
Q

What is Kubler-Ross’s Stage Theory?

A

Reactions to terminal illness

Outlined 5 reactions of the person facing death

1969

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207
Q

What are Dr Kubler-Ross’s 5 reactions to death?

A

Denial (often a psych defence to cushion the impact of grief)

Anger (why me?/unfair)

Bargaining (with nurses/G-d/family)

Depression (intense emotional pain- helplessness/sadness)

Acceptance (loss accepted, work to minimise loss and cope)

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208
Q

Why are Stage Theories common in Western culture?

A

We like to think linearly (like to predict/control)

Need to make sense of the uncertain

Applies to a number of different situations

209
Q

What are the weaknesses of Stage Theories?

A

Stages are prescriptive and place patients in a passive role

Do not account for variability in response (e.g. people deal with things differently)

Focus on emotional responses and neglect cognitions and behaviour

Fail to consider social, environmental or cultural factors

Pathologise people who do not pass through stages (‘good’ and ‘bad’ patients)

Some people may not reach state of resolution- may make experience harder knowing they should

210
Q

What is bereavement?

A

Refers to the situation of a person who has recently experienced the loss of someone significant in their lives through that person’s death

Strongly influenced by culture

211
Q

What are typical responses to bereavement?

A

Loss-> first year of bereavement-> second year of bereavement

15-50% minimal grief (early)
85% minimal grief (towards second year)

50-85% common grief (early)
15% chronic grief (towards second year)

SEE FIGURE

212
Q

Who developed the responses to bereavement schema?

A

Bonanno and Kaltman, 2001

213
Q

Why is it important to treat people as individuals?

A

Not working with ‘consistent’ phenomena

214
Q

What is personality?

A

The distinctive and relatively enduring ways of thinking, feeling and acting that characterise a person’s response to life situations

215
Q

What are personality traits?

A

Relatively stable cognitive, emotional and behavioural characteristics of people

Help establish their individual identities and distinguish them from others

Trait= continuum along which individuals vary, like nervousness or speed of reaction

Can’t observe traits but can infer from behaviour

216
Q

What is Eysenck’s Two Factor model?

A

Personality theory with 2 main factors:

NEUROTICISM/stability= the tendency to experience negative emotions

EXTRAVERSION= the degree to which a person is outgoing and seeks stimulation

(2 lines cross- vertical stable to unstable, horizontal extroverted to introverted)

217
Q

What are the big five factors of personalities?

A

OCEAN

Openness to experience
Conscientiousness
Extraversion
Agreeableness
Neuroticism (emotional instability)
218
Q

Who would score low/high in the OPENNESS category of the big 5?

A
LOW
Down to earth
Uncreative
Conventional
Uncurious
HIGH
Imaginative
Creative
Original
Curious
219
Q

Who would score low/high in the CONSCIENTIOUSNESS category of the big 5?

A
LOW
Negligent
Lazy 
Disorganised
Later
HIGH
Conscientious
Hard-working
Well-organized
Punctual
220
Q

Who would score low/high in the EXTROVERSION category of the big 5?

A
LOW
Loner
Quiet
Passive
Reserved
HIGH
Joiner 
Talkative
Active
Affectionate
221
Q

Who would score low/high in the AGREEABLENESS category of the big 5?

A
LOW
Suspicious
Critical
Ruthless
Irritable
HIGH
Trusting
Lenient
Soft-hearted
Good-natured
222
Q

Who would score low/high in the NEUROTICISM category of the big 5?

A
LOW
Calm 
Even-tempered
Comfortable
Unemotional
HIGH
Worried
Temperamental
Self-conscious
Emotional
223
Q

What did Eysenck suggest was the biological/genetic basis for personality traits?

A

Differences in customary levels of cortical arousal

  • Introverts are overaroused
  • Extroverts are underaroused

Suddenness of shifts in arousal

  • Unstable (neurotic) people show large and sudden shifts in limbic system arousal
  • Stable people do not
224
Q

What percentage of personality differences are estimated by genetic determinants?

A

50%

225
Q

What is Bandura’s definition of reciprocal determinism?

A

Cognitions, behaviours, and the environment interact to produce personality

226
Q

What is Bandura’s locus of control?

A

An expectancy concerning the degree of personal control we have in our lives

INTERNAL= life outcomes are under personal control

EXTERNAL= outcomes have less to do with one’s own efforts than with the influence of external factors

227
Q

What would Bandura’s locus of control say about health?

A

Health may be attributed to three sources:

  • Internal factors (e.g. healthy lifestyle)
  • Powerful others (e.g. one’s doctor)
  • Lucky (e.g. lifestyle advice will be ignored)
228
Q

What study suggested optimists live longer?

A

Nun study
Relatively homogeneous group

Autobiographies at age 22 were analysed for emotional content and survival rate examined

229
Q

What is intelligence?

A

The ability to acquire knowledge and to deal adaptively with the environment

230
Q

What does the Binet-Simon scale measure?

A

Mental age

Binet and Simon developed first intelligence test to ID French children that might have difficulty in school

Different paces children learn at

231
Q

How is IQ calculated?

A

Mental age divided by chronological age x 100

>140= very superior 1%
100= 47% about average
<60= 'mentally retarded'= 3%
232
Q

What is an IQ of 100?

A

Average (i.e. test-taker’s performance relative to average performance of other’s the same age)

233
Q

What is Charles Spearman’s theory of intelligence?

A

Believed intellectual activity involves a general factor (g= general/shared level of ability) and specific facto

Developed factor analysis

  • People who excel in one area often excel in other area
  • Statistical procedure which examines inter-correlations b/w different tests of mental ability

Categories= verbal, mechanical, spatial, numerical (and then in middle= general)

234
Q

What kind of intelligences did Gardner’s multiple intelligences include?

A
Linguistic (Shakespeare) 
Logical-mathematic (Einstein)
Spatial (Gaudi)
Musical (Lennon and cardiologists)
Bodily-Kinaesthetic (Messi)
Intrapersonal (Socrates)
Interpersonal (Freud)
Naturalistic (Ray Mears)
Existential intelligence (Sartre)
235
Q

Outline the factor structure of the WAIS-IV

A

g

  • > verbal comprehension (SI, VC, IN)
  • > perceptual reasoning (BD, MR, VP)
  • > working memory (DS, AR)
  • > processing speed (SS, CD)
236
Q

What kind of verbal and performance tests may happen in the Wechsler test?

A
VERBAL
General info
Similarities
Arithmetic reasoning 
Vocabulary
Comprehension
Digit span
PERFORMANCE
Picture completion
Picture arrangement
Object assembly
Block design
Digit-symbol substitution
237
Q

Why are IQ scores criticised?

A

Take average

Don’t show specific skills

238
Q

What did Spearman’s g get divided into by Cattell and Horn (1971, 1985)?

A

Crystallized intelligence (gc)= ability to apply previously acquired knowledge to current problems (improves with age then stabilises)

Fluid intelligence (gf)= ability to deal with novel problem-solving situations for which personal experience doesn’t provide a solution (steady pattern of decline in ageing)

239
Q

Outline the stability of intelligence (Lothian birth cohort)

A

Lothian birth cohort 1921 (Scotland area)

N=550

They all did same test as children

Data from 1932 test (first time age 11)
Given same test (first time age 80)

Scores consistent and stable (intelligence must be fairly stable)

240
Q

What factors can be considered when studying cognitive ability at age 79 (Lothian birth cohort)? How much do these correlate?

A

Physical fitness(lung FEV1, grip strength, 6m walk time)= 0.17

Cognitive ability age 11= 0.59

Sex= 0.08

Adult social class= 0.10

APOE4 status (relates to Alzheimers)= 0.08

241
Q

How can genetic factors and the environment affect each other?

A

Genetic factors can influence the effects produced by the environment

  • Accounts for 1/2 to 2/3 of the variation in IQ
  • No single “intelligence gene”

Environment can influence how genes express themselves

  • Accounts for 1/3 to 1/2 of the variation in IQ
  • Both shared and unshared environmental factors are involved
  • Educational experiences are very important
242
Q

In what way are IQ tests culturally biased?

A

Comparing people from different environments doesn’t make sense
e.g. Black and white in America

WITHIN comparisons more valid than BETWEEN comparisons 
e.g. Black and white in same socioeconomic class in same area of USA
243
Q

What is the difference in average IQ of males and females?

A

Almost none

(Lothian= Boys 100.5, Girls 100.6)

Possibly gender difference in performance on certain types of intellectual tasks not general intelligence

MEN better at spatial, target-directed and maths reasoning

WOMEN better at perceptual speed, verbal fluency, math calculations and precise manual tasks

244
Q

What is empathy?

A

Being able to infer the thoughts and feelings of others and having an appropriate emotional reaction

245
Q

What is systemising?

A

The drive to analyse or construct any kind of system i.e. identifying the rules that a govern a system, in order to predict how that system will behave

246
Q

How does autism prevalence differ in males and females?

A

Autism 4:1 male:female ratio
Asperger’s 9:1 m:f

Baron-Cohen explains the social and communication difficulties in autism and Asperger’s syndrome by delays or deficits in empathy whilst explaining the narrow interests with reference to skills in systemising

May be under-diagnosed in females

247
Q

What are examples of the empathy quotient? Results?

A

I get upset if I see people suffering on news programmes.

I can pick up quickly if someone says one thing but means another

I can’t always see why someone should have felt offended by a remark

Results (low to high): autism, males, females

248
Q

What are examples of the systemising quotient? Results?

A

I am fascinated by how machines work

I find it very easy to use train timetables, even if this involves several connections

I do not keep careful records of my household bills

Results (low to high): females, males, autism

249
Q

What is neurosexism?

A

Impossible to exclude contribution of environment and culture

Findings of sex differences reflect bias gender roles

250
Q

What is Freud’s Psychoanalytic theory?

A

Studied hysteria
Believed that symptoms were related to repressed memories and feelings

Personality is an energy system (instinctual drives generate psychic energy, which constantly seeks release)

251
Q

What is ID?

A

Only structure present at birth
Exists totally within unconscious mind

Pleasure Principle: seeks immediate gratification and release, regardless of rational considerations and environmental realities

252
Q

What is EGO?

A

Operates primarily at the conscious level

Reality Principle: tests reality to decide when and under what conditions the id can safely satisfy its needs

253
Q

What is SUPEREGO?

A

Last to develop
Contains the traditional values and ideals of family and society

Morality Principles

254
Q

What are the factors in the structure of personality?

A

Id
Ego
Superego

Struggle in Psyche- ID defeats SUPEREGO in battle to control the EGO and how the EGO struggles to explain

255
Q

What is the WHO definition of health?

A

Health is a state of complete physical mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity

256
Q

What is the WHO definition of impairment?

A

Refers to a problem with a structure or organ of the body e.g. ejection fraction

257
Q

What is the WHO definition of disability?

A

Functional limitation with regard to a particular activity e.g. mobility, ADLs

258
Q

What is the WHO definition of handicap?

A

Refers to a disadvantage in filling a role in life relative to a peer group e.g. access to sports centre, prejudice of employers

259
Q

What is the correlation between disease, disability and handicap?

A

WHO suggests causal links between disease and disability

But disability correlates with handicap, research shows a correlation of just r=0.19 between impairment and disability in 763 CHD patients

Suggesting something in addition to impairment (structural problem) influences disability (functional limitations)

260
Q

Outline Moos crisis theory of coping with illness (1977)

A

Have a need for social and psychological equilibrium

Serious illness presents a crisis (state of disorganisation, feelings of fear, guilt, sadness etc)

Crisis is self-limited because we can’t remain in an extreme state of disequilibrium

Affected by background, personal, physical and social environmental factors

RESPONSES

  • Adaptive responses-> personal growth and adjustment to illness
  • Maladaptive responses-> poor adjustment (pysch problems, low functioning etc)
261
Q

What factors affect adjustment?

A
Illness related-factors:
Unexpected
Cause and outcome
Disability
Prior experience
Stigma
Disfigurment
Background/personal factors:
Pre-existing personality
Age of onset
Gender
SES &amp; occupation
Pre-existing illness beliefs
Physical and social environment:
Hospitalisation
Accommodation and physical aids/adaptations
Social support and social role
Societal attitudes
262
Q

How do big 5 personality traits relate to health?

A

Openness= no clear link to health

Conscientiousness= +2 years life expectancy

Extraversion= lower rates of CHD, protective respiratory disease

Agreeableness= hostility associated w/ CHD

Neuroticism= higher use of alcohol and smoking, higher symptom reporting

263
Q

What did Boyce & Wood (2011) show about personality and health?

A

4-Year prospective study of life satisfaction 307 individuals who were newly disabled (from sample of 11,680)

Average change for whole sample shows some adaptability by year 4

Agreeableness shown as strongest predictor= robust
- Different adaptation for high and low agreeableness

264
Q

Why is agreeableness the most robust predictor for adaptability to health care?

A

May be explained by more agreeable individuals…

Having more social support and better quality of friendships
More likely to follow self-care instructions
More positive e.g. active, coping strategies

265
Q

How is social network associated with risk of cardiac death?

A

Increased cardiac mortality inversely correlates to network size

266
Q

How is social support related to health/smoking status (Brummett et al (2001))?

A

The most socially isolated cardiac patients scored higher on a hostility measure, had lower incomes, and were more likely to be smokers

267
Q

What is the most robust social predictor of cardiac mortality?

A

Social isolation

268
Q

Define: illness representations

A

A patients own implicit, common sense beliefs about their illness

269
Q

What is the ‘identity’ of illness representations?

A

The label of the illness and symptoms

E.g. “I have a cold, with a sore throat and runny nose”

270
Q

What is the ‘cause’ of illness representations?

A

What may have caused the problem, such as genetics, circumstances, trauma, etc.
E.g. “My cold was caused by being run down”

271
Q

What is the ‘consequences’ of illness representations?

A

Expected effects from the illness and views about the outcome
E.g. “My cold will prevent me from playing football this week”

272
Q

What is the ‘time line’ of illness representations?

A

How long the problem will last and whether it is seen as acute, chronic or episodic
E.g. “My cold will be gone in a few days”

273
Q

What is the ‘cure/control’ of illness representations?

A

Expectations about recovery or control of the illness

E.g. “If I rest my cold will resolve quickly”

274
Q

What is asked on the illness perceptions questionnaire?

A

Identity- What symptoms are e.g. pain, tiredness

Cause- “A germ or virus caused my illness” “Pollution of the environment caused my illness” “Stress was a major factor in causing my illness”

Timeline- “My illness is likely to be permanent rather than temporary”
“My illness will last for a long time”

Consequences- “My illness has major consequences on my life” “My illness is a serious condition”

Cure-Control- “There is little that can be done to improve my illness”
“My treatment will be effective in curing my illness”

275
Q

What is the ‘Picture of health’ study?

A

DRAWINGS OF DAMAGE PREDICT RECOVERY BETTER THAN MEDICAL VARIABLES

74 patients after MI were asked to draw pictures of their heart (before discharge from hospital)

Recovery was assessed 3 months later, measuring work, exercise, distress about symptoms and perceptions of recovery

Patients who drew damage to their heart perceived that their heart had recovered less at 3 months, that their heart condition would last longer and had lower perceived control over their heart condition

  • Extent of damage drawn correlated to slower return to work
  • Peak troponin-t not related to 3-month outcomes or return to work
276
Q

What is Leventhal’s self-regulation model (1984)?

A

Model of illness, cognition and behaviour

How symptoms are perceived and interpreted by someone based on their illness representations, will influence their coping behaviour

Symptoms evoke an emotional reaction

Emotions and cognitions influence each other

Coping and reappraisal can lead to adjustment of beliefs, emotions and coping strategies

277
Q

What are maladaptive coping strategies?

A

“Stress caused my heart attack, smoking helps me reduce my stress levels, so I’m going to continue smoking”

“Now I’ve had a heart attack, my life is as good as over, I’ll never be able to enjoy myself again”
=> low mood => reduce activity levels, avoid seeing friends => depression

278
Q

What are adaptive tasks?

A

TASKS RELATED TO ILLNESS OR TREATMENT (Moos 1982)
Coping with symptoms or disability
Adjusting to hospital environment and medical procedures
Developing and maintaining good relationships with healthcare professionals

TASKS RELATED TO GENERAL PSYCHOSOCIAL FUNCTIONING
Controlling negative feelings and retaining a positive outlook for the future
Maintaining a satisfactory self image and sense of competence
Preserving good relationships with family and friends
Preparing for uncertain future

279
Q

What did Petrie et al, 2002 show about adaptive coping intervention? Outline the sessions and results

A

Randomly treated 65 MI patients in hospital

Intervention was aimed at modifying illness cognitions over three sessions

Session 1: educated about symptoms and addressed common misconceptions of cause (e.g. stress was singularly responsible)
Session 2: explored beliefs about recovery (e.g. will have to reduce activity forever) and helped patients make an explicit plan of exercise, dietary change and return to work
Session 3: the action plan was reviewed, concerns about medication and symptoms were explored

Patients in the treatment condition reported more positive views of their MI in terms of beliefs about consequences, time line, control/cure and symptom distress

3 months post-discharge= those treated returned to work faster etc.

280
Q

What are the types of coping?

A

PROBLEM-FOCUSED
Seeking relevant information about an illness
Learning specific illness related procedures e.g. pacing activities, helps patients gain expertise
Changing behaviour e.g. diet

EMOTION FOCUSED
Seeking reassurance and emotional support
Learning relaxation strategies
Meditation

Flexibility in skills/approach used most beneficial

281
Q

What is better- emotion or problem focused coping?

A

Emotion focuses coping= poorer adjustment and greater levels of depression

But CIRCULAR REASONING (those who are more distressed may need to engage in more emotion-focused coping)

Flexibility in approach most beneficial

282
Q

Why is medical treatment stressful?

A

Threat= painful? survival?

Resources= nothing I can do, can’t cope

283
Q

Why is patient distress a bad thing?

A

Moral/ethical responsibility to minimize suffering

Greater chance of patients avoiding or not complying

Distress during treatment related to longer term psychological morbidity and wide variety of treatment outcomes

284
Q

How can patient stress be reduced?

A

Prepare with info (Edbert, 1964)
Need detail about location, severity and duration of pain

Prepared group-> less pain, less analgesics needed, post-op stay shorter

285
Q

What is procedural info?

A

Info about the procedures to be untertaken

286
Q

What is sensory info?

A

Info about the sensations that may be experienced

287
Q

What did Johnson’s 1973 study of procedural vs sensory info show?

A

Ischaemic pain induced with a BP cuff

Participants (male undergraduates) were given either sensory or procedural information before undergoing the pain task

Results showed that the participants given sensory information reported significantly less distress during the procedure

288
Q

What did Suls & Wan show in 1989 “Dual process hypothesis”

A

Procedural and sensory information are both helpful

Procedural info works by allowing patients to match ongoing events with their expectations in a non-emotional manner

Sensory information works by “mapping” a nonthreatening interpretation on to these expectations

289
Q

How much information should be given to patients (Auerbach, 1983)?

A

40 patients undergoing dental extraction surgery

General or detailed info in pre-op preparation

Measured distress level and desire for info/involvement

High levels of presurgery anxiety are associated with poor adjustment

290
Q

Outline the nursing home study (Langer and Rodin, 1976)= flower study?

A

FLOOR 1
In a meeting, emphasized to residents that they could make choices and had responsibility e.g. about rearranging furniture, free times, movies and had plant to look after

FLOOR 2
Similar meeting but staff would do everything for it

Floor 1 showed greater engagement in activities, psychological and physical measures

Fewer on floor 1 had died 18 months later than floor 2

291
Q

What happens if a patient is given increasing control in medical situations?

A

Greater well-being

Reduced distress

292
Q

What did Martelli’s say about ‘Matching preparation to coping style’ (1987)?

A

46 patients awaiting pre-prosthetic oral surgery

Gage patient’s preference for info

Given a 20 minute preparation either emotion focused or problem focused or a mixed preparation

Those with high pref= increased anxiety
Those with low pref= increased problem

293
Q

How do children cope with treatment?

A

Children and adults use same types of coping

Preference for Problem-Solving increases with age, whilst Avoidant coping declines

Distraction= most effective for younger kids

Matching coping strategy for specific child works for older children

294
Q

How can you prepare children for treatment?

A

Specific procedural and sensory info

Coping skills training may also be conducted

Older children >7 years benefit from info 5-7 days before

Younger children benefit from info closer to procedure

Modelling interventions can be hepful

295
Q

What is TELL SHOW DO?

A

TELL
Using simple language and a matter-of-fact style, the child is told what is going to happen before each procedure (negative, emotive words are avoided).

SHOW
The procedure is demonstrated using an inanimate object (e.g. a doll), a member of staff or the clinician

DO
The procedure does not begin until the child understands what will be done

296
Q

Does having a parent present help children being treated?

A

Mixed finding for children’s distress

Parents who were present were less anxious

297
Q

How does maternal interaction affect child treatment (Chambers et al, 2002)?

A

120 children aged 8-12 years

Mothers randomly allocated to training in one of three interaction styles:

  • Pain promoting (reassurance and empathy etc)-> increased pain intensity
  • Pain reducing (distraction, humour etc)-> reduced pain intensity
  • No training-> middle pain intensity

All children underwent a cold pressor task

298
Q

What is social thinking?

A

How we think about out social world

299
Q

What is social influence?

A

How other people influence out behaviour

300
Q

What are social relations?

A

How we relate toward other people

301
Q

Define: attitude

A

A positive or negative evaluative reaction toward a stimulus, such as a person, action, object or concept

Attitudes influence behaviour more strongly when situational factors that contradict our attitudes are weak

302
Q

Why does the theory of planned behaviour relate to smoking cessation?

A

Important of exploring social norms in changing health behaviour

What do your friends/family think about smoking?
What do your friends/family think about you smoking?
Whose opinion is most important to you?
What are the pros and cons of following that opinion?

303
Q

What is cognitive dissonance?

A

When we hold two opposing beliefs-> unrest/dissonance within us

e.g. I’m a smoker and smoking causes cancer

304
Q

How can you resolve dissonance?

A
Change behaviour (may be difficult)
Acquire new info (e.g. seek exceptions)
Reduce importance of cognitions (i.e. beliefs, attitudes)
305
Q

To change attitudes, what makes the message more effective?

A
If the message...
Reaches recipient
Is attention-grabbing
Easily understood
Relevant and important
Easily remembered
306
Q

To change attitudes, who are more persuasive messengers?

A

Credible e.g. doctors
Trustworthy e.g. objective
Attractive e.g. well presented

307
Q

What is framing in social psychology?

A

Refers to whether a message emphasises the benefits or losses of that behaviour

308
Q

What kind of framing is used when?

A

TAKING UP BEHAVIOURS AIMED AT DETECTING HEALTH PROBLEMS/ILLNESSES
E.g. HIV testing
Loss-framed messages may be more effective

TAKING UP BEHAVIOURS AIMED AT PROMOTING PREVENTION BEHAVIOURS
E.g. condom use
Gain-framed messages may be more effective

309
Q

Which of the these two statements will be most effective for breast self-examination?

  1. If you do not undertake breast self-examination you may be more likely to die from cancer
  2. If you do undertake breast self-examination you may decrease the risk of dying from cancer
A
  1. If you do not undertake breast self-examination you may be more likely to die from cancer
310
Q

Which of the these two statements will be most effective for promoting sunscreen use?

  1. If you do not use SPF15 sunscreen, your skin will be damaged and you may die younger
  2. If you do use SPF15 sunscreen, your skin will stay healthier and you may prolong your life
A
  1. If you do use SPF15 sunscreen, your skin will stay healthier and you may prolong your life
311
Q

Define: stereotype

A

Generalisations made about a group of people or members of that group, such as race, ethnicity or gender

Or more specific such as different medical specialisations (e.g. surgeons)

312
Q

Define: prejudice

A

To judge, often negatively, without having relevant facts, usually about a group or its individual members

313
Q

Define: discrimination

A

Behaviours that follow from negative evaluations or attitudes towards members of particular groups

314
Q

What did Lawrie et al, 1998 show about sterotypes and prejudice affecting medical care?

A

GPs reluctant to take on patients with a mental health history despite it being well controlled

315
Q

What is a schema? What are they used for?

A

Mental or cognitive structures that contain general expectations and knowledge of the world

Help us process information quickly and economically and facilitate memory recall

Means we are more likely to remember details that are consistent with our schema than those that are inconsistent

316
Q

Define: social loafing

A

Tendency for people to expend less individual effort when working in a group than when working alone

317
Q

When is social loafing more likely to occur?

A

The person believes that individual performance is not being monitored
The task (goal) or the group has less value or meaning to the person
The person generally displays low motivation to strive for success
The person expects that other group members will display high effort

318
Q

How does gender and culture affect social loafing?

A

Occurs more strongly in all-male groups

Occurs more often in individualistic cultures

319
Q

When may social loafing disappear?

A

Individual performance is monitored

Members highly value their group or the task goal

320
Q

How does conformity affect a person’s response (Asch, 1956) (e.g. comparing standard line to comparison lines to confirm length)?

A

People change their responses in relation to when other people are present
People will follow what others say (actors say wrong one= participant goes along with it)

321
Q

What factors affect conformity?

A

Group size
Presence of a dissenter
Culture

322
Q

How does group size affect conformity?

A

Conformity increases as group size increases

No increases over five group members

323
Q

How does presence of a dissenter affect conformity?

A

One person disagreeing with the others greatly reduces group conformity

324
Q

How does culture affect conformity?

A

Greater in collectivistic cultures

325
Q

Outline the Milgram experiment (1974)

A

One “learner”, one “teacher”- told that experiment studied the effect of punishment on learning and memory

Actor always the learner, participant always teacher
If the learner makes mistake-> administer small shock (shock generator to apply punishment)

Shocks grew increasingly intense with each mistake

Actor (learner) responded to fake shocks acting in pain

75% participants (teacher) went up to very high (near fatal) shocks

326
Q

What factors influence obedience?

A

Remoteness of the victim (e.g. behind screen)
Closeness and legitimacy of the authority figure (in white coat)
Diffusion of responsibility: obedience increases when someone else does the dirty work
Not personal characteristics

327
Q

What is groupthink?

A

Tendency of group members to suspend critical thinking because they are striving to seek agreement

328
Q

What is group polarization?

A

Tendency of people to make decisions that are more extreme when they are in a group as opposed to a decision made alone or independently

329
Q

When is groupthink more likely to happen?

A
In a group which..
Is under high stress to reach a decision
Is insulated from outside input
Has a directive leader 
Has high cohesiveness
330
Q

What is bystander apathy?

A

Social psychological phenomenon that refers to cases in which individuals do not offer any means of help to a victim when other people are present

The probability of help is inversely related to the number of bystander

331
Q

Outline Darley & Latane’s experiment of bystander apathy?

A

Participants were invited into the lab under the pretext they were taking part in a discussion about ‘personal problems’

Participants were all in separate rooms in the lab and communicated via an intercom system

Participant heard actor having seizure

87% helped if they believed it was just them and the other student.

But only 31% helped when they believed they were in a group of 4 people, hardly anyone helped if group was above 4

332
Q

How did those who didn’t help the epileptic actor react after finding out about the bystander apathy experiment (Darley & Latane)?

A

Those that didn’t report the emergency appeared in distress (sweating and had trembling hands)

They reported shame and guilt for not helping

Reasons for not helping included not wanting to expose themselves to embarrassment or to ruin the experiment which, they had been told depended on each participant remaining anonymous from the others

333
Q

What is the 5-step bystander decision process (Latane & Darley, 1970)?

A

Notice the event

Decide if the event is really an emergency (social comparison: look to see how others are responding)

Assuming responsibility to intervene (diffusion of responsibility: believing that someone else will help)

Self-efficacy in dealing with the situation

Decision to help (based on cost-benefit analysis e.g. danger)

334
Q

What reduces the restraints on helping?

A

Reduce ambiguity and increase responsibility

Enhance guilt and concern for self image

335
Q

What increases helping behaviour?

A

Reducing restraints on helping

Socialise altruism

336
Q

How can altruism be socialised?

A

Teaching moral inclusion
Modelling helping behaviour
Attributing helpful behaviour to altruistic motives
Education about barriers to helping

337
Q

Why can doctors fall prey to the bystander effect?

A

Patient has many doctors (e.g. Yale med school case)

Diagnosis never confirmed despite lots of tests by different people

338
Q

What is leadership?

A

Ability to persuade others to seek defined objectives enthusiastically

A human factor which binds a group together and motivates it towards goals

Management activities are dormant until leader triggers the power within people and guides towards goal

339
Q

What are the 3 main leadership styles?

A

Autocratic/authoritarian style
Participative/democratic style
Laissez-faire/”free-rein” style

340
Q

What is the autocratic/ authoritarian style of leadership? Advantages/disadvantages?

A

All decision-making powers are centralized in the leader as with dictator leaders

They do not entertain any suggestions or initiatives from subordinates

ADVANTAGES
Enables quick decision making
Clear hierarchy of responsibility

DISADVANTAGES
Can be demotivating
Can lead to errors

341
Q

What is the participative/ democratic style of leadership? Advantages/disadvantages?

A

Favours decision-making by the group as shown e.g. leader gives instruction after consulting the group

They can win the co-operation of their group and can motivate them effectively and positively.

ADVANTAGES
Can win cooperation and motivate team
Can improve quality of decision making

DISADVANTAGES
Time consuming
Can lead to disagreements

342
Q

What is the laissez-faire/ “free-rein” style of leadership? Advantages/disadvantages?

A

Leader does not lead, but leaves the group entirely to itself

Such a leader allows maximum freedom to subordinates, i.e., they are given a free hand in deciding their own policies and methods

ADVANTAGES
Allows autonomous working
Allows expertise to be utilised

DISADVANTAGES
Can lead to lack of direction
Lack of ultimate responsibility holder

343
Q

Give examples of medical errors

A

Incorrect diagnosis
Failure to employ indicated tests
Error in the performance of an operation, procedure or test
Error in the dose or method of using a drug

344
Q

Define: error

A

Failure of a planned action to be completed as intended (i.e. error of execution) or the use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim (i.e. error of planning)

345
Q

Outline the case of Wayne Jowett

A

WJ diagnosed with lymphoblastic leukaemia in 1999 aged 15

By June 2000 Wayne was in remission, but still needed three-monthly injections of two chemotherapy drugs - Vincristine (IV) and Cytosine (IT)

On 4th January 2001 WJ was mistakenly given Vincristine intrathecally by SHO (who hadn’t spoken up to SpR)

He became slowly paralysed and almost a month later his parents agreed to turn off his life support machine

The Specialist Registrar involved, Dr Feda Mulhem, was convicted of manslaughter and sentenced to 8 months imprisonment

346
Q

What did the nurse-physician study show? (Dr Smith- max dose drug experiment)

A

Researchers placed a fictional drug in the ward drug cabinet

The label clearly stated: ‘Maximum Dose 10mg’

‘Dr Smith’ rang the ward and asked nurse to administer 20mg, and he would sign for it later
21 out of 22 nurses prepared the dose

347
Q

What are the main causes of medical errors?

A

Both system-related and cognitive factors (46%)
Cognitive error only (28%)
No-fault factors only (7%)

348
Q

What is the main medical error (in terms of fraction of claims, severe patient harm and penalty payouts)?

A

Diagnostic errors (not surgical mistakes or medication overdoses)

349
Q

What are heuristics? Why are they used in clinical decision making?

A

Heuristics= intuitive understanding of probabilities is combined with cognitive processes to guide clinical judgment

I.e. educated guesses, or mental shortcuts

Usually involve pattern recognition and rely on a subconscious integration of patient data with prior experience

350
Q

What are the 2 systems for decision making? (Metcalfe and Mischel 1999/ Kahneman 2011)

A

HOT (1)

COLD (2)

351
Q

Outline the HOT system for decision making

A
Emotional
"Go"
Simple
Reflexive
Fast
Develops early
Accentuated by stress 
Stimulus control
352
Q

Outline the COLD system for decision making

A
Cognitive
"Know" 
Complex
Reflective
Slow
Develops late
Attenuated by stress
Self control
353
Q

What did Nisbett & Wilson show in their ‘consumer studt’ of tights (1977)?

A

Shown four identical pairs of tights in a row and consumers in mall asked to pick out the pair they liked the best

Consumers significantly more likely to select the far right most pair (even though they were switched around randomly each time)

Consumers were able to provide justifications for their choice e.g. sheerness, strength etc.

None mentioned the position

354
Q

What is confirmatory bias?

A

Tendency to search for or interpret info in a way that confirms one’s preconceptions (often-> errors)

355
Q

How does confirmatory bias relate to over-confidence (Slovic, 1973)?

A

Experienced horserace handicappers given a list of 88 variables relating to past performance of horses and riders

Asked to predict outcome of a race based on 5 most important items, then 10, 20 and 40 most important variables

More confident with more variables but accuracy approx the same

356
Q

What is the danger of over-confidence in medicine? (Podbregar)

A

Podbregar et al studied 126 ICU patients

Physicians asked to provide clinical diagnosis and level of uncertainty

“Completely certain” of diagnosis ante-morte were wrong 40% of time

357
Q

What is the sunk cost fallacy? (Arkes & Blumer, 1985)

A

Humans don’t always act rationally and often the more we have invested in the past the more we are prepared to invest in a problem in the future

EXAMPLE
Season ticket sold at full price, small discount or large discount
Observed frequency of attendance at plays over the season
Rationally, price paid for ticket should not influence how often it’s used
However, people who paid a higher price used the ticket more

358
Q

What is anchoring?

A

Cognitive bias that describes the common human tendency to rely too heavily on the first piece of information offered (the “anchor”) when making decisions

During decision making,anchoringoccurs when individuals use an initial piece of information to make subsequent judgments

359
Q

How can medical decisions be made due to probability?

A

Many clinical situations involve making decisions on the basis of probabilities

E.g. two or more competing diagnoses, alternative treatments which may be effective etc

360
Q

What is the Gambler’s fallacy?

A

Logical fallacy involving the mistaken belief that past event will affect future events when dealing with independent events

E.g. If one patient in a clinic presents with a rare condition then it would be impossible for the next patient to present with the very same condition

361
Q

What is the representativeness heuristic? (Tversky & Kahneman)

A

Used when making judgments about the probability of an event under uncertainty

Subjective probability that a stimulus belongs to a particular class based on how ‘typical’ of that class it appears to be (regardless of base rate probability)

While often very useful in everyday life, it can also result in neglect of relevant base rates and other errors

362
Q

How is a thin, athletic, healthy-appearing 60 year old man having an MI an example of representativeness error?

A

He doesn’t match the typical profile of an MI

But unwise to dismiss that possibility because MI is common among men of that age and has highly variable manifestations

363
Q

What is the framing effect?

A

A cognitive bias in which people react to a particular choice in different ways depending on how it is presented

E.g. as a loss or as a gain.

People tend to avoid risk when a positive frame is presented but seek risks when a negative frame is presented (i.e. 400 people die, 200 saved)

364
Q

How is the framing effect affected by age?

A

Older adults are significantly more likely to agree to a treatment when it is positively described than they are to agree to the same treatment when it is described neutrally or negatively

365
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

Probabilities are estimated on the basis of how easily and/or vividly they can be called to mind

Individuals typically overestimate the frequency of occurrence of catastrophic, dramatic events e.g. believe that accidents cause more deaths than strokes

People tend to heavily weigh their judgments toward more recent information

366
Q

How can decision making be improved?

A
Education and training
Feedback
Accountability
Generating alternatives
Consultation
367
Q

How can education and training improve decision making?

A

Integrate teaching about cognitive error and diagnostic error into medical school curricula
Recognize that heuristics and biases may be affecting our judgement even though we may not be conscious of them

368
Q

How can feedback improve decision making?

A

Increase feedback e.g. autopsies
Conduct regular and systematic audits
Follow-up patients 3

369
Q

How can accountability improve decision making?

A

Establish clear accountability and follow-up for decisions made

370
Q

How can generating alternatives improve decision making?

A

Establish forced consideration of alternative possibilities e.g., the generation and working through of a differential diagnosis.
Encourage routinely asking the question: What else might this be?

371
Q

How can consultation improve decision making?

A

Use of algorithms
Seek second opinions
Use of clinical decision making support systems

372
Q

What is an algorithm?

A

An algorithm is a procedure which, if followed exactly, will provide the most likely answer based on the evidence

e.g. rules of probability

Useful in well defined situations

373
Q

Outline the case of Clive Wearing

A

British composer

Long lasting anterograde amnesia following herpes viral encephalitis-> damaged hippocampus

Memory lasts 7-30 secs
‘Wakes up’ every 20 secs

Some retrograde amnesia (knows bits e.g. name, siblings, childhood family, childhood facts, education up until uni and recognises faces of people he’s known for years e.g. wife)

Can still play piano/learn new music= PROCEDURAL MEMORY INTACT

374
Q

What is procedural memory intact?

A

Ability to learn how to do new things

375
Q

Define: memory

A

Processes used to acquire, store, retain and later retrieve information

There are three major processes involved in memory: encoding, storage and retrieval

376
Q

Outline the stages of memory

A

REGISTRATION
Input from our senses into memory system (not everything registered is remembered)

ENCODING
Processing and combining of received info (better encoding-> increased likelihood of retrieval)

STORAGE
Holding of that input in the memory system

RETRIEVAL
Recovering stored info from memory system (remembering it)

377
Q

What are the types of encoding?

A

EFFORTFUL PROCESSING= initiated intentionally, requires conscious attention
AUTOMATIC PROCESSING= occurs without intention, requires minimal attention

378
Q

Outline the depth of processing study by Craik & Tulving 1975

A

Students had to answer questions about a series of words which were flashed one at a time (e.g. bear)

3 types of questions asked

1) about word’s visual appearance (e.g. case)
2) about sound of word (e.g. rhyme)
3) about meaning (e.g. animal?)

After, given recognition test

Shows types of encoding

More meaning assigned to something the more likely it is to go into storage for later retrieval

379
Q

True or false; there is only one type of memory storage?

A

False
More than one type
Different performance characteristics and function

380
Q

What does failed retrieval mean?

A

Can mean info is lost from memory

Not always the case

381
Q

What kind of cues lead to memory retrieval?

A

Internal or external retrieval cues
Multiple cues enhance retrieval
Conscious (effortful) or unconscious (automatic)

382
Q

What does Baddeley’s model show?

A

Multicomponent model of working memory

383
Q

What is the episodic buffer (Baddeley)?

A

‘Backup’ store which communicates with both long term memory and the components of working memory

Temporarily integrates phonological, visual and spatial info into a unitary, episodic representation

Provides interface with episodic LTM

384
Q

Describe Baddeley’s working memory model?

A

Central executive (PFC)

  • > Visuospatial sketchpad (occipital lobe)
  • > Episodic buffer
  • > Phonological loop (left parietal)

ALL-> Long term memory storage
(Visual semantics)
(Episodic LTM)
(Language)

385
Q

How did Baddeley know the visuospatial sketchpad and phonological loop were separate?

A

Can do verbal and visual tasks at same time but cant do 2 visual or 2 verbal
Must be 2 different systems

386
Q

What are the roles of the central executive in memory?

A

Manipulation of information and direction of attention- driving
Suppression of irrelevant information and undesired actions
Supervision of information integration
Coordination of multiple tasks to be executed in parallel
Co-ordination of the sub-systems of working memory

387
Q

What are the roles of the visuospatial sketchpad?

A

Storage of visual and spatial info

E.g. for constructing and manipulating visual images, for the representation of mental map

388
Q

What are the roles of the phonological loop?

A

Storage of auditory/verbal info
Preventing decay by silently articulating contents, refreshing the info in a rehearsal loop
E.g. phone number/ reading

389
Q

What happened in the case of KF?

A

Damage following motorbike accident to area between parietal and occipital lobe

Working memory intact but impaired long term memory

390
Q

Outline the overall model of memory

A

Info in
-> sensory registers

Sensory registers

  • -> ATTENTION-> working memory
  • -> direct to long term memory
  • -> lost

Working memory (REHEARSAL loop)

  • -> STORAGE-> long term memory
  • -> info lost

RETRIEVAL (ltm-> wm)

391
Q

What is the long term memory?

A

Store of all things in memory that are not currently being used but are available for use in the future

Allows use of past information to deal with present and the future

Can hold unlimited amount of information

392
Q

How is information retrieved from the LTM?

A

Retrieval from long term memory may be:
Explicit/declarative (conscious)‏
Implicit/non-declarative (unconscious)‏

393
Q

What is involved in explicit (declarative) memory?

A

Episodic (biographical events)

Semantic (words, ideas, concepts)

394
Q

What is involved in implicit (non-declarative) memory?

A

Procedural (skills)
Emotional conditioning
Priming effect
Conditioned reflex

395
Q

What is non-declarative memory?

A

Familiar with something, know how to interact with object or in situation but don’t have to think about it

(Procedural memory= for actions or behaviours)

Can carry out complex activities without having to think about them e.g. walking, eating

396
Q

What is declarative memory?

A

Store of our knowledge

2 separate types= episodic and semantic

397
Q

What is episodic memory?

A

Memory related to personal experience

What we generally think of as ‘memories’

Knowing what you did last night or where you went on holiday

398
Q

What is semantic memory?

A

Memory for facts

What we think of as general knowledge

Knowing the capital of France or the colour of a bus

399
Q

What is autobiographical memory?

A

Starts from age 2-3 years

Language needed to help remember

Aged 6 when we remember autobiographical events

‘Reminiscence bump’- we remember the most in later adolescence

Is it emotionally driven? Driven by defining events?

400
Q

What is the associative network needed in memory?

A

Each concept represented by a node

Activation of one network leads to spreading activation of related concepts and then activate neighbouring nodes
(Stored ideas are connected by links of meaning, strengthened through rehearsal and elaboration)

Works to a lesser extent for indirectly related nodes

Multiple links make it easier to retrieve because alternative routes to locate it

401
Q

How do we remember things?

A

A mental structure that represents some aspect of the world (e.g. schema for weddings even before we go to one, then reinforce it when we go)

Used to organise current knowledge and provide a framework for future understanding

Automatic not effortful thought e.g. stereotypes

Acquired through experience

402
Q

Outline Barlett’s War of the Ghosts (1932)?

A

Provides a valuable insight into the reconstructive nature of human memory

STUDY
20 English participants read a traditional native american tale
Retold story to each other after a short period of time
Struggled in understanding its meaning and the significance of some of its aspects

RESULTS
Rationalisations= people tended to add material to justify parts of the story
Omissions= parts of the story that were difficult to understand were left out
Changes of order= storyline was rearranged in an attempt to make sense out of it
Distortions of emotion= people added their own feelings and attitudes

403
Q

How do schemas affect our memory (according to Cohen, 1993)?

A

Selection= info that does not fit current schemas is ignored

Abstraction= we are inclined to recall the overall gist and forget the detail

Interpretation= schemas provide existing knowledge to help us understand novel situations

Normalisation= memories are distorted to fit with our existing expectations

Retrieval= schemas help us fill gaps in our memory by making a best guess

404
Q

What is the misinformation effect?

A

Distortion of a memory by misleading post-event information

Show how language and wording can influence a person’s recall of a incident

E.g. eyewitness testimony (Loftus & Palmer, 1974) of car accident

  • Asked questions
  • Manipulate way question is asked to determine effects on recall (e.g. smashed/ collided/ bumped)

Loftus & Zanni (1975)- more subtle wording e.g. the broken headlight instead of a broken headlight

405
Q

What is the probability of recalling a word list related to?

A

Order in the list= serial position effect (primary and recency= most likely)
Personal salience of words
Delay time
Distraction

406
Q

What is rote learning?

A

Frequent repetition (verbal)‏
Forms a separate schema, not closely linked to existing knowledge
Least efficient way to study
Less deep processing

407
Q

What is assimilation (assimilated learning)?

A

Fitting new information into existing schema(s)‏
Learning by comprehension
Can only be used where there is link between old and new knowledge
Deep processing
Declarative

408
Q

What is the PQRST method of learning?

A
P = Preview the info to learn
Q = Question= write down the questions that you want to be able to answer once finished
R = Read through info that best relates to questions 
S = Summarise the info by writing, diagram, mnemonics, voice recording
T = Test= try to answer the questions
409
Q

What is a mnenomic device?

A

Artificial structure for reorganising or encoding information to make it easier to remember
Useful when info doesn’t fit existing into schemas
Examples: hierarchies, chunking, visual imagery, acronyms
Need to recall artificial structure to access information

410
Q

What kind of movement helps memory and learning?

A

Parker & Dagnall= L-R ready better (for R handed)

Acting out with hand gestures helps

Links learning abstract concepts to simplify physical movement

Short, intense exercise bursts are better than long

411
Q

Why do we forget?

A

Ineffective encoding
Decay theory
Interference theory
Encoding Specificity Principle

412
Q

What is the Encoding Specificity Principle?

A

Retrieval will occur depending on how well the retrieval cue corresponds to the memory code

413
Q

What is ineffective encoding?

A

Info not encoded in the first place

414
Q

What is the decay theory?

A

Forgetting occurs because memory fades with time if not used

415
Q

What is the interference theory?

A

Forgetting occurs due to competition for space from other material either from previously learned info or new information

416
Q

How does Alzheimer’s highlight the neural correlates from memory?

A

Hippocampus one of first brain regions to suffer damage

Memory and disorientation among first symptoms to appear

417
Q

What is the role of the medial temporal lobes in memory? How do we know this?

A

Implicit memory

HM & CW= significant anterograde amnesia for autobiographical info following bilateral medial temporal lobe ablation but implicit memory intact e.g. piano playing

418
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus in memory?

A

Important in formation of new episodic or autobiographical memories
May be part of larger medial temporal lobe memory system (involved in general declarative memory)

Role in maintaining memories unknown (older memories remain stable so consolidation over time may happen outside of hippocampus)

419
Q

What parts of the brain are important in episodic memory?

A

Medial temporal lobes including the hippocampus and parahippocampal cortex

420
Q

What usually happens to memory after significant head injury?

A

See a period of retrograde amnesia

Depending on the site of injury anterograde amnesia

421
Q

What can happen to memories after loss of consciousness from head injury?

A

Post traumatic amnesia= disrupted memory processing

Patient unable to make new memories/disorientated

422
Q

What is Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

Reduction in thiamine (vit B-1) which helps brain cells produce energy from sugar -> Inability to learn new information from recent events but also long-term memory gaps
Common to see confabulation

423
Q

What is semantic dementia?

A

Progressive loss of semantic memory

Loss of word meaning and presents as a progressive aphasia

424
Q

Define: compliance

A

Acting according to request or command

425
Q

Define: adherence

A

To stick fast to
Extent to which a person’s behaviour (meds/diet/lifestyle changes) corresponds with agreed recommendations from a health care provider

426
Q

What did Macintyre et al, 2005 show about HPs detecting non-adherence?

A

173 patients being treated for active tuberculosis
Nurses and physicians rated the compliance of patients
Also took patient rating, urine drug level and colour

Doctors weren’t often right

Self report most reliable

427
Q

How can you measure adherence?

A

DIRECT
Directly observed therapy
Measurement of the level of medicine or metabolite in blood
Measurement of the biologic marker in blood

INDIRECT METHODS
Patient questionnaires, patient self-reports
Pill counts 
Rates of prescription refills 
Electronic medication monitors 
Measurement of physiologic markers
Patient diaries
428
Q

What is the approximate rate of adherence to treatment in long term conditions according to WHO (2003)?

A

50%

429
Q

Why is non-adherence important to the NHS?

A

Very expensive
Costs approximately £10 billion

£37.6 million unused handed in to pharmacies each year in the UK

430
Q

What percentage of prescribed medications are never started (Watchdog 2000)?

A

11%

431
Q

What percentage of prescribed medications are not completed (Watchdog 2000)?

A

34%

432
Q

What fraction of prescriptions are never dispensed (Fletcher et al, 2010)?

A

25%

433
Q

What happens when there is non-adherence?

A

Increased hospital admissions

Rejection of transplants

Occurrence of complications

Development of drug resistance

Increased mortality

434
Q

What are the types of non-adherence?

A

Unintentional non-adherence
- Patient ability and resources-> PRACTICAL patient barriers to adherence

Intentional non-adherence
- Patient beliefs and motivations-> patient PERCEPTUAL barriers to adherence

435
Q

Why do patient’s intentionally not adhere to medications?

A

Treatment does not make sense e.g. exercise for back pain
Worries/ concerns about the treatment e.g. worried about SEs
Beliefs about the disease e.g. not having MMR poor knowledge of measles

436
Q

Why do patient’s unintentionally not adhere to medications?

A

Poor HCP-Patient communication
Low patient satisfaction/and or recall
Cognitive difficulties
Financial or other barriers

Health beliefs still influence unintentional non-adherence e.g. will impact on the patient’s motivation to overcome practical barriers

437
Q

What does the Behaviour Change Wheel show (Michie et al, 2013)?

A

Provides a framework for understanding factors and interactions

Intentional and non-intentional adherence can be studied

Useful to understand causes of non adherence to recommend effective intervention

438
Q

What are the components of the COM-B model (Jackson et al, 2014)?

A

Can help explain non-adherence

Capability e.g. memory, dexterity, swallowing
Opportunity e.g. access, HCP communication, social support

Contribute to motivation (e.g. beliefs about illness, treatment, emotions, habits) and behaviour

All contribute to adherence

439
Q

What percentage of non-compliance is intentional?

A

70%

440
Q

What factors affect adherence?

A
STRONG
Concerns about treatment
Beliefs about illness
Cost of therapy 
Necessity for treatment
Perceived drug efficacy
MODERATE
Cognitive ability
Depression
Social support
Coping skills
Number of medicines
Disease seriousness beliefs
Health literacy
Locus of control
Self efficacy
Trust in HCP
HCP-Patient concordance
Symptom experience
WEAK
Gender
Income
Age 
Race 
Personality
441
Q

What are the parts of core beliefs about illness?

A

Identity (abstract label)= concrete symptoms that a person associates with condition

Causal beliefs= stress, environment, genetics, own behaviour, ageing

Timeline= perceived duration and profile e.g. chronic, acute, cyclical

Consequences= personal, economic, social

Cure/control= beliefs about the amenability to control or cure

NB. Illness beliefs aren’t strongest predictors of treatment adherence

442
Q

What are the patient’s beliefs about treatment based on?

A

Specific beliefs= views about prescribed medication

Concerns= arising from beliefs about potential negative effects

Necessity= reliefs about necessity of prescribed medication for maintaining health

443
Q

What are patient’s beliefs about illness and treatment based on?

A
Have an internal logic
Are influenced by symptoms
May differ from the ‘medical view’
May be based on mistaken beliefs/ premises
May not be disclosed in consultation

Influence adherence

Are not set in stone and can be changed

444
Q

How can you increase adherence?

A

Use the consultation to anticipate and plan:

  • Check patient’s understand treatment
  • Provide clear rationale for NECESSITY of treatment
  • Elicit and address CONCERNS
  • Agree practical plan for how, where and when to take treatment
  • Identify any possible barriers

Interventions to:

  • Improve understanding of illness and treatment
  • Help patients plan and organise taking of the treatment
445
Q

What did the stroke adherence study show (O’Carroll et al, 2010)?

A

Interventions to improve adherence should target patients’ beliefs about their medication

Factors predicting poor adherence 1 year after first ischaemic stroke:
Younger age
Concerns regarding medication
Lower cognitive function
Low received benefit of medication

Factors predicting poor adherence 6 weeks later:
Younger age
Concerns regarding medication
Low perceived benefit of medication

446
Q

What did O’Carroll et al, 2013 show about adherence in stroke treatment?

A

Simple, brief intervention increased medication adherence in stroke survivors

447
Q

What are the non-adherence consequences in the asthma preventer medication study?

A

Increase in symptoms
Increase in healthcare utilisation
Reduction in quality of life

448
Q

What are the reasons for non-adherence in the asthma preventer medication study?

A

Patient beliefs among factors most consistently associated with non-adherence to preventer medication

Belief about illness
Beliefs about medication

449
Q

What did Petrie et al show about the use of text messages to improve adherence?

A

212 patients
Baseline assessment
Normal care vs tailored text messages for 18 weeks
Then adherence assessments at 6, 12, 18 weeks and 6 months
Text intervention-> more adherence

450
Q

What needs to be considered in techniques for tailored interventions?

A

Capability
Motivation
Opportunity

451
Q

What did Szasz & Hollender (1956) show about HP-patient interaction?

A

Activity- passivity e.g. coma/trauma
Guidance- cooperation e.g. acute infection
Mutual participation e.g. chronic illness

Use of written material

452
Q

What did Wilson et al, 2009 show?

A

612 patients with poorly controlled asthma randomly allocated to either normal care or shared decision making

Shared decision making was associated with better adherence to medication and clinical outcomes (including asthma control and lung function)

453
Q

What factors are important when presenting information to encourage adherence?

A

Amount of information

Order

Stressing importance

Specificity

Mode of presentation

454
Q

What factors affect recall?

A

INDIVIDUAL
Anxiety
Medical knowledge
Memory impairment

455
Q

How does recall vary by type of information?

A

Diagnostic statements= 87%
Information about illness= 56%
Instructions= 44%

456
Q

Is written information useful to encourage adherence?

A

97% would like to receive written info (Gibbs et al, 1990)
Majority don’t read written info (Gibbs et al, 1987)
Written info leads to increased knowledge and adherence (Ley & Morris, 1984)
Consider how easy info is to read (most people below reading level in leaflets)

457
Q

How do regimes help improve adherence?

A

Physical aspects e.g. packaging and font size
Complexity of instructions
Frequency of schedule- schedule

Follow up- to review monitoring and to change the plan

458
Q

What cognitive techniques can improve adherence?

A
Cognitive restructuring
Imagery / role play
Goal setting/ problem solving
Stepped behaviour change
Rewards 
Relapse prevention 
Stress management
De-sensitization to stressful stimuli (e.g. needle phobia)
Assertiveness training/ increase self-efficacy
459
Q

What social support can improve adherence?

A
Support groups
Buddy systems
Social media/ web forums
Making changes with other family members
Support from HP
460
Q

What is the biopsychosocial model of health and illness comprised of?

A

Psychological
Sociological
Biological

(Venn diagram)

461
Q

What is stress?

A

Stress can be a stimulus or response (combination as person-situation interaction)

Stimulus= stressors
Response= fight or flight (physiological response)

Pattern of cognitive appraisals, emotional reactions, physiological responses and behavioural tendencies that occur in response to a perceived imbalance between situational demands (primary appraisal) and the resources needed to cope with them (secondary appraisal)

Negative emotions e.g. feeling tense, difficulty concentrating and losing your temper easily

462
Q

What did Holes & Rahe, 1967 show about stressful life events?

A

Life events preceding illness

Rated on level of stress

Stressful events worst for health

463
Q

What are stressors?

A

Events that place strong demands on us

464
Q

What systems are affected by stress?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

Hypothalamic pituitary adrenocortical axis (releases cortisol)

465
Q

What is General Adaptation Syndrome?

A

Selye, 1956

STAGE 1= Alarm reaction
The shift to sympathetic dominance causes increased arousal

STAGE 2= Resistance
The endocrine system releases stress hormones to maintain increased arousal (above normal stress level)

STAGE 3= Exhaustion
The adrenal glands lose their ability to function normally

466
Q

What are the primary and secondary appraisals in stress?

A

Situational demands= primary appraisal

Resources needed to cope with them= secondary appraisal

467
Q

What is cognitive appraisal?

A

Take into account potential consequences with primary and secondary appraisal

Apply psychological meaning of the consequences may be related to beliefs about yourself or the world

468
Q

How can primary and secondary appraisals be used to explain considering an exam?

A

How hard it will be and how much it counts (primary appraisal)

How your current knowledge equips you to pass (secondary appraisal)‏

Add potential consequences and psychological meaning of the consequences

469
Q

What does Yerkes-Doson Law show?

A

Arousal (low-high) vs performance (weak-strong)

Shape of normal curve

Highest optimal arousal and optimal performance in middle

470
Q

What are the pathways from stress to disease?

A

Events -> stress -> physiological OR behavioural changes -> disease

471
Q

What did Steptoe et al, 1996 show?

A

Health behaviour and stress

Smoking and alcohol increased more by exams in people who had less support system

472
Q

What did the Carroll et al, 2002 study show about the world cup?

A

Increased number of heart attacks in 3 days after Beckham was sent off in 1998

473
Q

How is anxiety associated with heart disease?

A

Anxiety associated with increased risk of developing CVD

Independent of traditional risk factors e.g. smoking, obesity, high BP and depression

‘Psychosocial stress and coronary heart disease’ related (artery calcification more in high stress response)

474
Q

How does stress affect the immune system?

A

Psychoneuroimmunology

Slower healing (e.g. reduced interleukin 1 production)

Immunosuppression

475
Q

What did Marucha et al, 1998 show about psychoneuroimmunology?

A

Mucosal wound healing and exam stress

Dental students were each administered two punch biopsy wounds on the hard palate

One during the summer vacation and one before a major exam

Pictured everyday

Wounds took 40% longer to heal during exams

Interleukin 1 production declined by 68% during the exam

476
Q

What did Cohen, Tyrell & Smith show about immunosuppression in 1991?

A

Nasal wash with cold virus
Stress index assigned to them

More stressed-> more likely to get colds

477
Q

What is Type A behaviour?

A
Time urgency
Free-floating hostility
Hyper-aggressiveness
Focus on accomplishment
Competitive and goal-driven
478
Q

How does personality type affect CHD risk?

A

Type A= 31% increase in risk for CHD compared to type B

May be because of anger and hostility as key to relationship with CHD

Type D= social inhibition and negative affect-> increased CHD (maybe under-reporting of symptoms)

479
Q

How does depression relate to CHD?

A

Depression very important in CHD

Higher risk of mortality

Physiological changes (e.g. platelet activity) and behavioural changes (e.g. levels of physical activity)

480
Q

How can you cope with stress?

A
PROBLEM-FOCUSED COPING
Planning
Active coping and problem solving
Suppressing competing activities
Exercising restraint
Assertive confrontation
EMOTION-FOCUSED COPING
Positive reinterpretation
Acceptance
Denial
Repression
Escape-avoidance
Wishful thinking
Controlling feelings
SEEKING SOCIAL SUPPORT
Help and guidance
Emotional support
Affirmation of worth
Tangible aid (e.g. money)
481
Q

Why is social support important in health?

A

Social relationships increase likelihood of survival

Protective psychological role

As important as not smoking

E.g. for breast cancer support group helps survival chances

482
Q

What is stress burnout?

A

Emotional and physical exhaustion
Depersonalisation
Reduced personal accomplishment

483
Q

What is depersonalisation?

A

Patients seen less as individuals and situations become simply part of a routine

484
Q

What is important to manage stress?

A
Organisation
Time management
Recognising stress
Appraisal review e.g. role of perfectionism or self-criticism
Relaxation techniques
Social support
Formal support
485
Q

Why are people’e reactions to placebos important in health feelings?

A

Branded drugs= people more likely to feel better

An inactive substance like sugar, distilled water, or saline solution can sometimes improve a patient’s condition simply because the person has the expectation

486
Q

What is the Nocebo effect?

A

I will harm

Negative effect that occurs after receiving treatment even when the treatment is inert

Warnings about the possible SEs of a medicine make it more likely patient will report them

487
Q

Why can’t you just give patients placebos?

A

Deception

NB. IBS study showed knowing drug was placebo still improved symptoms and QoL

488
Q

Give examples of a psychological process that might contribute to the placebo effect

A

Expectancy
Classical conditioning
Anxiety and attention
Release of endogenous opiates

Not mutually exclusive!!!

489
Q

What fraction of British adults experience mental health problems in any one year?

A

1 in 4

490
Q

What is the common mental disorder in Britain?

A

Mixed anxiety and depression

491
Q

What percentage of the population expression in any year?

A

8-12%

492
Q

How does DSM describe panic attacks?

A

Four or more of the following symptoms:
Palpitations, pounding heart, or accelerated heart rate
Sweating
Trembling or shaking
Sensations of shortness of Breath or smothering
Chest pain or discomfort
Feeling dizzy, unsteady, lightheaded, or faint
Feelings of unreality (derealization) or being detached from oneself (depersonalization)
Fear of losing control or going crazy
Fear of dying
Paresthesias (numbness or tingling sensations)
Chills or hot flushes

493
Q

How does DSM define panic disorder?

A
  1. Recurrent unexpected panic attacks

AND

  1. At least one of the attacks has been followed by 1 month (or more) of one (or more) of the following:
    Persistent concern about having additional attacks
    Worry about the implications of the attack or its consequences (e.g., losing control, having a heart attack, “going crazy”)
    Significant change in behaviour related to the attacks
494
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

Develops as a complication of panic attacks

Agoraphobia may arise by the fear of having a panic attack in a setting from which escape is difficult

Sufferers of agoraphobia avoid public or unfamiliar places, especially large, open, spaces where there are few ‘places to hide‘ or prevent easy escape

495
Q

What is the goal of psychotherapy?

A

To help people change maladaptive thoughts, feelings and behaviour patterns

Consider psychodynamic, behavioural and cognitive

496
Q

What was Freud’s theory?

A

Psychodynamic therapy

Conscious (iceberg above surface, superego and ego)
Preconscious (superego and ego)
Unconscious (all of id, some S and some E)

497
Q

What do behavioural approaches to treat mental health problems believe?

A

Maladaptive behaviours are not merely symptoms of underlying problems (the behaviours are the problem)

Problem behaviours are learned in the same ways normal behaviours are

498
Q

How are classically conditioned associations maintained in anxiety?

A

Two-factor theory

E.g. for fear

Classical conditioning of fear (CS= car, UCS= traumatic car accident -> conditioned gear response to cars CR)

Operant conditioning of avoidance (avoid cards-> fear is reduced-> tendency to avoid cars in strengthened)

499
Q

What is the exposure approach to treat anxiety?

A

Influenced by both classical and operant conditioning approaches

Treat phobias tHROUGH exposure to the feared CS in the absence of the UCS (e.g. car without accident)

Intense temporary anxiety created by treatment but long term highly effective

500
Q

What is systematic desensitisation?

A

Behavioural technique commonly used to treat fear, anxiety disorders and phobias

Using this method, the person is engaged in some type of relaxation exercise and gradually exposed to an anxiety producing stimulus, like an object or place

E.g. start in non-moving car, gradually build up to driving

501
Q

What is cognitive theory?

A

Stimulus-> cognition-> response

502
Q

What is Clark’s 1986 cognitive theory of panic?

A

Internal or external trigger-> perceived threat-> anxiety-> physical and cognitive symptoms-> misinterpretation-> anxiety etc.

Individuals with panic interpret certain bodily sensations in a catastrophic fashion

Sensations (esp. those involved in normal anxiety responses e.g., palpitations, breathlessness, dizziness) are considered to be a sign of impending physical or psychological disaster

503
Q

What happens in cognitive restructuring?

A

Identify the nature of thoughts (don’t have to be true to affect emotions)

Learn about common biases in thoughts

Treat thoughts as guesses or hypotheses about the world

E.g. get someone to recognise they are having a panic attack not a heart attack

504
Q

What happens in treatment of CBT for cardiac anxiety?

A
Psychoeducation
Relaxation techniques
Cognitive restructuring
Behavioural experiments
Graded exposure
Relapse prevention

CBT= thought, behaviour, emotion

505
Q

What happens in CBT?

A

Focuses on problematic beliefs and behaviours that maintain disorders
Goal oriented
Collaborative relationship between therapist and patient
Brief (8-16 sessions)

506
Q

What percentage of anxiety disorders can be treated with CBT?

A

71% recovery rate with CBT

CBT has been lower to have relapse rates lower than anti-depressants medications in some conditions

507
Q

What is CBT recommended for?

A
Depression
Social anxiety 
PTSD
Generalised anxiety disorder
OCD
Bulimia	
Panic disorder and specific phobia 
Schizophrenia
508
Q

How does DSM describe depression?

A

Five (or more) of the following symptoms have been present during the same 2-week period and represent a change from previous functioning; at least one of the symptoms is either

(1) depressed mood or
(2) loss of interest or pleasure

Loss of appetite
Insomnia or Hypersomnia nearly every day
Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day
Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
Feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt
Diminished ability to think or concentrate
Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicide

NB. These symptoms don’t meet criteria for a mixed expisode

Clinically significant distress caused

509
Q

When is depression treated with drugs?

A

Antidepressants not routinely used to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild depression

Appropriate for people with:
A past history of moderate or severe depression
Subthreshold depressive symptoms present for a long time
Subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild depression that persist(s) after other interventions

510
Q

Are antidepressants better than placebos?

A

Kirsch et al, 2008 say no

511
Q

How can patient’s with depression avoid relapse?

A

CBT

Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy

512
Q

What is mindfulness-based cognitive therapy?

A

Paying attention in a particular way
In the present moment, on purpose and non-judgementally

Recognise thoughts as thoughts

513
Q

What are the psychological interventions for health behaviour change?

A

Motivational interviewing

Pain management

514
Q

What is motivational interviewing? What is it used for?

A

Helps the patient identify the thoughts and feelings that cause them to continue “unhealthy” behaviours and help to develop new thought patterns to aid in behaviour change

Used for smoking, alcohol use, drug addiction, weight loss, medication adherence

515
Q

What is elicit-provide-elicit?

A

Elicit- e.g. what patient knows or would like to know

Provide- give info in a neutral nonjudgemental fashion (avoid I and YOU)

Elicit- get patients interpretation

516
Q

Is elicit-provide-elicit efficacious?

A

Yes
Even in brief encounters
Effect not related to education background

517
Q

What are the vicious circles of pain?

A

PSYCHOLOGICAL
Pain-> anger, anxiety, fear, distress etc. -> impoverished mood-> depression-> increased perception of pain-> pain

PHYSICAL
Pain-> activity avoidance-> progressive deconditioning-> pain with decreasing activity-> further activity avoidance-> further deconditioning-> pain

518
Q

What is pain management?

A

Psychological intervention for health behaviour change

Involves teaching relaxation techniques, changing old beliefs about pain, building new coping skills and addressing any anxiety or depression related to pain

Often uses CBT techniques

Used for any kind of chronic pain, including back pain, arthritis, pelvic pain etc.

519
Q

Outline the success of CBT

A

CBT for chronic pain can have positive effects on factors such as disability, negative mood and pain self-efficacy
- Maintained at six months post intervention