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Psychology 102 > Psychology 102 Midterm #2 > Flashcards

Psychology 102 Midterm #2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Naïve Realism?

A

the belief that our sensory systems are infallible (in capable of making mistakes and errors) and that our perceptions are perfect representations of the world around us

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2
Q

5 elements of sensation?

A 
Vision
Hearing
Smell
Taste
Somatosensory
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3
Q

What is Transduction?

A

process of converting an external energy or substance into electrical activity within neurons

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4
Q

Transduction occurs via?

A

sensory receptors

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5
Q

What is a Sensory receptor?

A

specialized cell responsible for converting external stimuli into neural activity for a specific sensory system

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6
Q

What is Sensory Adaptation?

A

process in which activation is greatest when a stimulus is first detected

Response to the stimulus declines in strength over time

More heightened.
Ex. surprise party, the change in light will be extremely bright but perception of light will change due to adaption.
Habituation- responds less highly over a period of time.
Once you become more familiar with something the response to the stimulus declines.
Ex. 3 bowls of water temperatures.

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7
Q

9 parts of vision?

A 
Cornea
Pupil
Lens
Ciliary muscles
Aqueous humor
Vitreous humor
Fovea
Blind spot
Retina
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8
Q

What is the Cornea?

A

transparent cover for the pupil, lens, and iris

Its shape bends incoming light to focus the image at the back of the eye

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9
Q

What is the Pupil?

A

circular hole through which light enters the eye

Pupillary reflex is a muscle response that dilates or contracts the pupil

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10
Q

When does pupil contract?

A

Contracts when there is bright light or something coming closes to face

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11
Q

When does pupil dilate?

A

Dilates when in complex situations (ex. math questions) or when we see someone physically attractive.

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12
Q

What is a lens?

A

part of the eye that changes curvature to keep images in focus

Consists of some of the most unusual cells in the body

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13
Q

What is Presbyopia?

A

declining eyesight with age due to the lens becoming more rigid over time

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14
Q

What is Ciliary Muscles?

A

changes the thickness of the lens

Ring of smooth muscle fibers

Connected to the lens via sensory ligaments

Allows the lens to focus on objects depending on their distance

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15
Q

What is Nearsightedness?

A

inability to see far objects well but able to see close objects clearly

Results when images are focused in front of the rear of the eye, due to our cornea being too long

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16
Q

Myopia is from?

A

Nearsightedness

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17
Q

What is Farsightedness?

A

inability to see close objects well but able to see far objects clearly

Results when our cornea is too flat or our eyes are too short

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18
Q

What is Aqueous Humor?

A

transparent, gelatinous fluid supporting the structure of the cornea and lens

Humor is Latin for moisture.

Located in front of eye.

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19
Q

What is Vitreous Humor?

A

transparent, gelatinous fluid supporting the primary structure of the eye and retina

located inside eye

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20
Q

What is a fovea?

A

central portion of the retina

Responsible for acuity (sharpness of vision)

Point of central focus.

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21
Q

What is a blind spot?

A

point of exit of ganglion cell axons where the optic nerve connects to the retina

Contains no rods or cones

Creates some of the most remarkable visual illusions

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22
Q

What is a retina?

A

membrane at the back of the eye responsible for converting light into neural activity

Contains photoreceptors (essential for us to see).
Damage can cause colour blindess or blindness.
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23
Q

What are Photoreceptors?

A

cells that respond to light (or lack there of)

Not equally distributed across the retina

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24
Q

Two types of photoreceptors?

A

Rods

Cones

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25
Q

What are rods?

A

receptor cells in the retina that are sensitive to light

Long and narrow

Located around the peripheral of the retina

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26
Q

What do rods do?

A

Enable us to see basic shapes and forms

Dark adaption

Contains photopigments called rhodopsin

Approx. 125 million/retina

Ex. waiting for eyes to adjust to a room after tanning

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27
Q

How long can rods take to adjust?

A

Adjusting can take approximately 30 minutes.

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28
Q

What is dark adaption?

A

time in dark before rods regain maximum light sensitivity

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29
Q

What can insufficient rods lead to?

A

blindness.

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30
Q

What are cones?

A

receptor cells in the retina that are sensitive to detail

Cone-shaped

Located in the center of the retina

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31
Q

What do cones do?

A

Enable us to see colour

Less sensitive to light

Contains photopigments called iodopsin

Approx. 6.4 million/retina (less than rods)

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32
Q

Damage to iodopsin can cause?

A

colour blindness.

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33
Q

What is colour blindness?

A

inability to see some or all colours

Most often due to absence or reduced cones due to genetic abnormalities

Can also result due to brain injury

Males > Females

Very rare

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34
Q

What is blindness?

A

dramatic reduction or inability to see

Vision ≤ 20/200 on Snellen eye chart

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35
Q

What can blindness result from?

A

Can be the result of cataracts, clouding of the lens, or glaucoma

To compensate, they often rely on other senses (e.g., touch and hearing)

Can use echolocation to help compensate for vision. (uses echoes/sounds in the area to see)

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36
Q

Compare red and white canes?

A

Red on cane is partial sight

White cane means they cannot see at all.

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37
Q

What is Visual Agnosia?

A

a condition in which a person can see but cannot recognize or interpret visual information

Caused by a disorder in the parietal lobes

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38
Q

What is hearing?

A

Sound = vibration (waves)

2nd most used sense

Sound waves can travel through gases, liquids, and solids

We hear them best, though, when they travel through air

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39
Q

3 elements of sound?

A

Frequency
Amplitude
Timbre

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40
Q

What is Frequency (pitch)?

A

Definition = number of cycles a sound wave completes in a given time

Measured in hertz (Hz)

Humans hear sounds between 3—20,000 Hz

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41
Q

What is Amplitude?

A

Definition = strength (or height) of a sound wave

Measured in decibels (dB)

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42
Q

At what dB do we start to get hearing damage?

A

Over 100dB is when we can start to get hearing damage if exposed for 1 minute.

At 125dB is when we start to feel pain.

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43
Q

What is timbre?

A

complexity or quality of sound that makes musical
instruments, human voices, or other sounds unique

Allows the ear to distinguish sounds with the same pitch and loudness

Determined by theharmonic contentof a sound and the dynamic characteristics of the sound (e.g., vibrato)

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44
Q

10 structures of ear?

A

They are a chain of command, sends signals from one structure to the next.

Pinna
Tympanic Membrane
Ossicles
Oval Window
Cochlea
Basilar Membrane
Cochlear Duct
Organ of Corti
Hair Cells
Cilia
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45
Q

What is the pinna?

A

structure of the ear that amplifies sound and funnels it down the auditory canal to the tympanic membrane

Helps with localization

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46
Q

What is the Tympanic Membrane?

A

membrane which vibrates according to the frequency of the sound

Commonly known as the “eardrum”

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47
Q

What is the ossicles?

A

structure consisting of three bones that transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window

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48
Q

What is the 3 bones of the ossicles?

A

Bones (smallest in the human body):
Malleus (Hammer)
Incus (Anvil)
Stapes (Stirrup)

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49
Q

What is the oval window?

A

membrane that receives vibrations from the ossicles and sends it to the cochlea

Connects middle and inner ear

inner ear from here on.

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50
Q

What is the cochlea?

A

spiral-shaped and filled with fluid

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51
Q

The cochlea contains?

A

Basilar membrane
Cochlear duct
Organ of corti

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52
Q

What is the Basilar Membrane?

A

membrane below the organ of Corti that assists in translating vibrations into neural activity via action potentials

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53
Q

What is the cochlear duct?

A

endolymph filled cavity inside the cochlea

Sound vibrations create waves in this fluid trigger movement in the hair cells and cilia

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54
Q

What is the organ of corti?

A

tissue containing the hair cells (and cilia) necessary for hearing

Translates the waves in the endolymph into neural activity via action potentials

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55
Q

What are hair cells?

A

Attached to the top of each cell in the basilar membrane

When the basilar membrane vibrates, it causes movement in the hair cells

Each hair cell has many fine filaments called cilia

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56
Q

What is cilia?

A

short, microscopic, hair-like structure extending from hair cells

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57
Q

What does cilia movement do?

A

Movement of the cilia open ion channels causing the release of neurotransmitters to send signals to the brain

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58
Q

Latin for smell?

A

Olfactory

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59
Q

Human can detect how many odours?

A

Humans are only capable of detecting between 2000-4000 different odours

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60
Q

Decreased sense of smell may be an early sign of?

A

Alzheimer’s or Parkinson’s disease

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61
Q

Latin for taste?

A

“Gustation”

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62
Q

Five basic tastes?

A

sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami (savoury)

Taste preferences are primarily culturally determined

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63
Q

What are taste buds called?

A

papillae

taste contains different papillae (taste buds) with different distributions of receptors

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64
Q

What is Somatosensory?

A

our sense of touch, temperature, and pain

Sense of balance

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65
Q

Somatosensory is distinguished via?

A

Skin senses
Internal senses
Vestibular senses

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66
Q

What are skin senses?

A

Nerve endings embedded into the skin send sensory information to the brain

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67
Q

What are free nerve endings?

A

associated with pain and temperature

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68
Q

What are specialized nerve endings?

A

associated with touch and pressure

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69
Q

What are internal senses?

A

Receptors in the bones, joints, and muscles send sensory information to the brain

Tells you where your body parts are with respect to each other

This dramatically decreases when you drink alcohol.

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70
Q

What are vestibular senses?

A

Our sense of equilibrium

Enables us to sense and maintain our balance as we move about

BALANCE

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71
Q

Vestibular senses consist of?

A

Consists of two vestibular sacs and three semicircular canals in the inner ear

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72
Q

What is the purpose of the fluid in the sacs?

A

Our ears aid in balance

We have fluid in the sacs and when we go on roller coasters it moves around and that causes nausea

As we age we get more nauseous in these situations due to the fluid

Fluid in sacs move to warn you that you are falling.

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73
Q

What is threshold?

A

point at which we perceived it as painful

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74
Q

What is the gate control theory?

A

The idea that pain is blocked (or gated) from consciousness by neural mechanisms (ex. distraction- watch favorite movie or buying/eating food.)

Emotional component as well

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75
Q

What is perceptions?

A

the brain’s interpretation of raw sensory inputs

When light hits objects, part of it is absorbed while the rest is reflected off the object

Our perception of an object’s brightness is influenced by how much light is reflected

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76
Q

Psychophysics of Perception?

A

the study of how we perceive sensory stimuli based on their physical characteristics

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77
Q

Ways to measure perception?

A

Absolute threshold
Just noticeable difference (JND)
Signal detection theory

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78
Q

What is absolute threshold?

A

= lowest level of a stimulus needed for the nervous system to detect a change 50% of the time

Ex. frequency hearing test (noticing the change).

Ex. on a dark night w can detect a lit candle from 50km away, past that we cannot see.

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79
Q

What is Just Noticeable Difference (JND)?

A

smallest change in intensity of a stimulus that we can detect

Webster’s Law dictates that there is a constant proportional relationship between JND and the original stimulus intensity

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80
Q

What is Signal Detection Theory?

A

theory regarding how stimuli are detected under different conditions

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81
Q

2 components of Signal Detection Theory?

A

Signal  The stimulus you are trying to perceive (ex. squinting to see something)

Noise  Anything that could distract you from the stimulus

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82
Q

Stages of Perception?

A

Sensation
Perceptual organization
Identification and recognition

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83
Q

What is sensation?

A

External stimuli trigger action potentials of sensory neurons that travel to the brain

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84
Q

What is Perceptual organization?

A

The process of synthesizing (i.e., grouping) sensory features into internal representations of an external stimulus

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85
Q

What is Identification and recognition?

A

The process of creating perception by identifying and assigning meaning to perceived sensations

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86
Q

6 Laws of Perceptual Grouping?

A 
Law of proximity
Law of similarity
Law of continuity
Law of closure
Law of symmetry
Law of figure-ground
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87
Q

What is Law of Proximity?

A

objects physically close to each other tend to be perceived as unified wholes

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88
Q

What is Law of Similarity?

A

we perceive similar objects as composing a whole more than dissimilar objects

This can lead to issue such as prejudice. Racism.

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89
Q

What is Law of Continuity?

A

we perceive objects as wholes, even if other objects block part of them

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90
Q

What is Law of Closure?

A

when partial visual information is present, our brains fill in what is missing

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91
Q

What is Law of Symmetry?

A

we perceive objects that are symmetrically arranged as wholes more often than those that are not

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92
Q

What is Law of Figure-Ground?

A

perceptually, we make an instantaneous decision to focus on what we believe to be the central figure, and largely ignore what we believe to be the background

Ex. Professor is main figure and the screens are the foreground.

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93
Q

What is the types of Perceptual Organization?

A

Bottom-up processing

Top-down processing

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94
Q

What is Bottom-up processing?

A

processing in which a whole is constructed from its parts (ex. you see something in the street and you think it’s an animal so you get closer and its just a plastic bag or Ellen’s epic or fail)

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95
Q

What is Top-down processing ?

A

conceptually driven processing influenced by beliefs and expectations (ex. based on surrounding environment like letters, numbers)

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96
Q

What is a Perceptual Illusion?

A

ability to attend to many sense modalities simultaneously (Ex. picture that shows tree and animals.)

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97
Q

What is Consciousness?

A

a subjective experience of the world, the physical body, and cognitive processes

We are product of our experiences.

As we experience new events our consciousness is molded.

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98
Q

4 Theories for why we sleep?

A

Storing memories
Remembering emotional information
Strengthening our immune system
Conserving energy and restoring our strength

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99
Q

What is Circadian Rhythm?

A

cyclical changes that occur on a roughly 24-hour basis in many biological processes

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100
Q

What is Circadian Rhythm responsible for?

A

Responsible for making us feel drowsy at different times of the day and night

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101
Q

Circadian Rhythm is controlled by?

A

Controlled by our hypothalamus

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102
Q

Circadian Rhythm release what hormone?

A

At night, this structure releases a hormone called melatonin that triggers feelings of tiredness

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103
Q

What can interrupt the Circadian Rhythm?

A

Although this rhythm stays relatively consistent, it can be interrupted by:
Travel
Shift work

These interruptions can result in higher frequency of injuries, fatal accidents, and health problems

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104
Q

5 Stages of sleep?

A

Awake
Stage 1-3
REM

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105
Q

What is the stage awake?

A

Beta (alert) and alpha (relaxed) waves
Low amplitude
High frequency

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3
4
5
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106
Q

What is the Sleep: Stage 1?

A

Light sleep
Theta brain waves
Moderate amplitude
Low frequency

May include:
Hypnagogic imagery
Twitching of limbs
Lasts 5-10 minutes

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107
Q

What happens during stage 1?

A

Brain powers down at least 50% during this time.

If woken up during this stage, often very confused or disoriented.

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108
Q

What is Hypnagogic imagery?

A

scrambled, bizarre, and dream like images that can quickly move in and out of consciousness.

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109
Q

What is stage 2?

A

Deeper light sleep
Brain waves slow down and include:
Sleep spindles
K-complexes

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110
Q

What happens during stage 2?

A

Heart rate and body temperature decrease
Muscles relax
Occupies 65% of sleep

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111
Q

What are Sleep spindles?

A

rapid bursts of brain activity, develop at approx. 6 weeks of age.

Could be responsible to twitching.

As you age, you produce less of these.

Older peoples sleep quality is not as good without these.

112
Q

What are K-complexes?

A

large waves that react to external stimuli.

Ex. noise in room while someone sleeping but these make us stay asleep

Does not occur until 5 months of age

113
Q

What is Sleep: Stages 3 and 4?

A

Deep sleep
Delta brain waves
High amplitude
Low frequency

Necessary stages to feel rested

114
Q

What is Sleep: REM?

A

Rapid Eye Movement

stage of sleep during which the brain is most active and includes vivid dreaming

115
Q

What happens in REM?

A

Occurs periodically after stages 1-4

Associated with dream-like mental activity

Heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing increases

Lasts approx. 10 minutes

Occupies 20-25% of sleep

This is when we are having our most vivid dream.

116
Q

Sleep deprivation is linked to?

A

Obesity
Heart disease
Mental illnesses

117
Q

Sleep deprivation leads to?

A

Increased irritability

Lack of concentration

Impairs cognitive function

REM rebound (the intensity of REM dramatically increases– gives more REM to compensate for loss of sleep.)

118
Q

What is REM Rebound?

A

the amount and intensity of REM increases

When sleep resumes, we often experience:
Increase in dream intensity
Higher frequency of nightmares

119
Q

What should you avoid for a better quality of sleep?

A 
Stimulants (caffeine's, energy drinks, pop)
Alcohol
Large meals
Unnecessary light
Late night exercise
Napping
120
Q

What are dreams?

A

A virtually universal experience

121
Q

What is blind dreaming?

A

Individuals blinded before the age of 4 do not experience visual imagery in dreams

Individuals blinded after the age of 7 do experience visual imagery in dreams

122
Q

What ages are critical to have good development of visual imagery?

A

This suggests that ages 4 to 6 is a critical period for the development of visual imagery in dreams

123
Q

What is lucid dreaming?

A

experience of becoming aware that one is dreaming

REM sleep + wakefulness

It is likely that we have all experienced at least one lucid dream

And, approx. 1/5 reportedly lucid dream on a monthly basis

124
Q

5 reasons why we dream?

A

Processing emotional memories

Integrating new experiences with established memories

Learning new strategies and ways of doing things

Stimulating threatening events so we can better cope

Recognizing and consolidating memories

125
Q

3 theories for dreams?

A

Psychoanalytic theories
Biological theories
Cognitive theories

126
Q

What are Psychoanalytic Theories?

A

Freud believed a dream expressed desires, wishes, and unfilled needs that exist in the unconsciousness

Manifest content
Latent content

127
Q

What is manifest content?

A

covert story line with characters and a setting

128
Q

What is latent content?

A

symbolic dreams hidden with deeper meaning

129
Q

What did Jung believe about Psychoanalytic Theories?

A

Jung believed that dreams were nature’s way of allowing access to the unconscious

Collective conscious

130
Q

What is Collective conscious?

A

primitive ideas and images inherited from one’s ancestors (ex. fear of the dark)

131
Q

What are Biological Theories?

A

Watson believed that dreams and consciousness may have a biological basis with no hidden content or meaning

Activation-Synthesis Theory

132
Q

What is the Activation-Synthesis Theory?

A

dreams reflect brain activation in sleep

133
Q

What are cognitive theories?

A

Dreams reflect the same kind of thinking people engage in when they are awake

Dream express current (rather than past) wishes, desires, and issues

Neurocognitive Theory

134
Q

What is Neurocognitive Theory?

A

dreams are meaningful products of our cognitive capacities

Dream content is relatively stable over time

Complex dreams –> cognitive achievements

135
Q

What did scientists Agee on about dreams?

A

Acetylcholine activates REM sleep

The forebrain plays an important role in dreams

136
Q

The 7 sleep disorders are?

A 
Insomnia
Narcolepsy
Sleep apnea
Night terrors
Sleep paralysis
Sleepwalking
Sleeping beauty syndrome
137
Q

What is insomnia?

A

difficulty falling and staying asleep

Characterized by at least one of the following:
Trouble falling asleep
Waking up too early
Waking up during the night and having trouble falling back asleep

The most common sleep disorder

138
Q

How to treat insomnia?

A

Although sleeping pills can be effective in treating insomnia, researchers have discovered that brief psychotherapy is more effective

In fact, using sleeping aids (e.g., Ambien) can cause odd or even dangerous behaviours

They can also create dependency and make it more difficult to sleep once people stop taking them

139
Q

What is narcolepsy?

A

rapid and often unexpected onset of sleep

This urge to sleep can strike at any moment

Instant onset of REM sleep

May be accompanied by:
Vivid hypnagogic hallucinations
Cataplexy

140
Q

What is Cataplexy?

A

complete loss of muscle tone

When it occurs, people collapse as their muscles become limp

Occurs in ordinary individuals during REM sleep

Those with narcolepsy, however, experience this during the day and remain alert the whole time

141
Q

What can narcolepsy bee caused by?

A

Genetic factors
Chemical imbalance
Brain injury

Each resulting in Orexin deficiency

142
Q

What is Orexin?

A

hormone that regulates arousal, wakefulness, and appetite

143
Q

What is sleep apnea?

A

blockage of the airway during sleep, resulting in daytime fatigue

This blockage results in:
Loud snoring and gasps
Stop breathing 20 + seconds

Can occur hundreds of times a night, leading to poor quality of sleep

144
Q

6 Consequences of Sleep Apnea?

A 
Night sweats
Weight gain
Fatigue
Hearing loss
Irregular heartbeat
Dementia
145
Q

What are night terrors?

A

sudden waking episodes characterized by screaming, perspiring, and confusion followed by a return to a deep sleep

Often more disturbing to onlookers than to sleepers

Only last a few minutes

146
Q

5 Symptoms of Night Terrors?

A 
Screaming
Crying
Perspiring
Confusion
Wide-eyed
147
Q

What is sleep paralysis?

A

state of being unable to move just before falling asleep or right before waking up

Up to 50% of college students have had at least one episode

Caused by a disruption in the sleep cycle

Often associated with anxiety

148
Q

What is sleep walking?

A

walking while fully asleep

Occurs more often in childhood and when sleep deprived

Rarely remember their actions after awakening

Despite urban myths, it is perfectly safe to wake someone who is sleepwalking

149
Q

What is Sleeping Beauty Syndrome?

A

persistent episodic hypersomnia

Each episode can last days, weeks, or even months

Often experience confusion, disorientation, complete lack of energy, and lack of emotions

No evidence of behavioural or physical dysfunction between episodes

May continue for 10 years or more

150
Q

The 5 Altered Consciousness?

A 
Hallucinations
Out-of-body experiences
Near-death experiences
Mystical experiences
Hypnosis
151
Q

What are hallucinations?

A

realistic perceptual experiences in the absence of a stimulus

Occurs only while awake

Ranges from seeing ghost-like apparitions to scenes of splendid beauty

Experienced by approx. 10-14% of the general population

152
Q

Triggers off hallucinations?

A

oxygen deprivation, epilepsy, fevers, migraines, dementia, and stress

153
Q

What are Out-of-Body Experiences?

A

sense of our consciousness leaving our body

Described as floating above your body, calmly observing themselves from above

Experienced by approx. 10% of the general population

154
Q

Triggers for Out-of-Body Experiences?

A

medication, psychedelic drugs, migraines, seizures, and stress

155
Q

What are Near-Death Experiences?

A

out-of-body experience reported by people who have nearly died or thought they were going to die

Differs across people and cultures

25% of individuals who experience a near-death experience also experience an out-of-body experience

156
Q

Triggers off near-death experiences?

A

electrical stimulation in the of the brain’s frontal lobe, oxygen deprivation, psychedelic drugs, and anesthetic

157
Q

What are mystical experiences?

A

feelings of unity or oneness with the world, often with strong spiritual overtones

Last only for a few moments

Can leave lasting, and even lifelong, impressions

Differ across individuals and religions

Rare and unpredictable

158
Q

Features of mystical experiences?

A

Sense of unity or oneness with the world

Transcendence of time and space

Feelings of wonder and awe

159
Q

What is hypnosis?

A

set of techniques that provide people with suggestions for alterations in their perceptions, thoughts, feelings, and behaviours

160
Q

What is hypnosis’ induction method?

A

Suggestions for relaxation, calmness, and well-being

Includes instructions to imagine or think about pleasant experiences

161
Q

Suggestibility of hypnosis?

A 
Low = 15-20% of individuals
Moderate = 60-70% of individuals
High = 15-20% of individuals
162
Q

Clinical applications of hypnosis?

A

Enhances effectiveness of psychotherapies

Useful for treating pain, medical conditions, and habit disorders

Can boost effectiveness of therapies for anxiety, obesity, and other conditions

163
Q

Myths and Misconceptions of hypnosis?

A

Hypnosis produces a trance state in which “amazing” things can happen

Hypnotic phenomena are unique

Hypnosis is a sleeplike state

Hypnotized individuals are unaware of their surroundings

Hypnotized individuals forget what happened during hypnosis

Hypnosis enhances memory

164
Q

What are Psychoactive Drugs?

A

substance that contains chemicals similar to those found naturally in our brains that alter consciousness by changing chemical processes in neurons

Can be used to treat physical and mental illness

165
Q

5 Elements of Drug Use?

A 
Abuse
Tolerance
Withdrawal
Substance dependence
Addiction
166
Q

What is drug abuse?

A

recurrent problems associated with use of the drug

Leads to problems with family, friends, work, responsibilities, and the law

167
Q

What is tolerance?

A

reduction in the effect of a drug as a result of repeated use, requiring users to consume greater quantities to achieve the same effect

Key feature of substance dependence

168
Q

What is withdrawal?

A

unpleasant effects of reducing or stopping consumption of a drug that users had consumed habitually

169
Q

What is substance dependence?

A

more serious pattern of use, leading to clinically significant impairment, distress, or both

170
Q

2 types of substance dependence?

A

Physical dependence

Psychological dependence

171
Q

What is physical dependence?

A

dependence on a drug that occurs when people continue to take it to avoid withdrawal symptoms

172
Q

What is psychological dependence?

A

dependence on a drug that occurs when continued use of the drug is motivated by intense cravings

173
Q

What is addiction?

A

a condition that results when an individual ingests a substance that can be pleasurable but continuation of which becomes compulsive and interferes with ordinary responsibilities and concerns

174
Q

3 types off psychoactive drugs?

A

Depressants
Stimulants
Psychedelics

175
Q

What are depressants?

A

drugs that depress the effects of the central nervous system

Used to reduce tension and anxiety

176
Q

2 types of depressants?

A

Alcohol

Sedative-hypnotics

177
Q

What is alcohol?

A

The most widely used and abused drug

Plays a critical role in social, religious, and medical contexts

In general, it depresses areas of the brain that regulate emotion and behaviour

178
Q

Legal cutoff for alcohol in Canada?

A

In most of Canada, a blood alcohol content (BAC) of .08 is the cutoff for legal intoxication while operating a vehicle

179
Q

BAC levels?

A 
.20-.30 = strong sedation
.40-.50 = may lead to unconsciousness
.50-.60 = may be fatal
180
Q

What are sedative-hypnotics?

A

Depressant drugs

Slows down bodily functions

Considered extremely
dangerous in high doses as they can produce unconsciousness, coma, and even death

181
Q

Types of Sedative-Hypnotics?

A

Barbiturates
Non-barbiturates
Benzodiazepines

182
Q

What are barbiturates?

A

Most common barbiturate  Seconal

Originally used in hypnosis to help client recover repressed memories

Also, used to reduce tension and anxiety by slowing down respiration and heart rate

Produces a state of intoxication similar to alcohol

Highly addictive

Most overdoses are fatal

183
Q

What are Non-Barbiturates?

A

Most common non-barbiturate  Quaalude

Originally marketed as a non-addictive sleeping aid

Also, used to reduce tension and anxiety by slowing down respiration and heart rate

Highly addictive

Overdoses can lead to seizures, coma, or death

184
Q

What is Benzodiazepine?

A

Most common benzodiazepine  Valium

Used to treat seizures, anxiety-related disorders, panic disorder, or sleep disorders

Can also be used as a muscle relaxant or anesthetic

Not as addictive as barbiturates and non-barbiturates

Can increase risk of dementia

185
Q

What are stimulants?

A

drug that increases activity in the central nervous system, including heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure

186
Q

Stimulants include 3 drugs?

A

Nicotine
Cocaine
Crystal Meth

187
Q

What is nicotine?

A

Leading cause of preventable disease and death in Canada

Includes smoking, chewing, dipping, licking, and even drinking

Often used to suppress anxiety and appetite

Potent and addictive

Reaches the brain in a mere 7 seconds when inhaled

188
Q

What is cocaine?

A

The most powerful natural stimulant

Derived from the leaves of the coca plant

Highly addictive

Triggers a release of dopamine and serotonin

High can last from 15 to 60 minutes

189
Q

In 1800’s cocaine was used in?

A

In the late 1800s, doctors claimed that cocaine was a cure-all and prescribed it for a wide range of illnesses

Was used as an ingredient in:
Medicines
Wines
Other alcohol

190
Q

Positive symptoms of cocaine?

A 
Euphoria
Increased confidence
Increased energy
Increased tolerance 
of pain *
Diminished fatigue
191
Q

Negative symptoms of cocaine?

A 
Loss of appetite
Itching
Tachycardia
Hallucinations
Paranoid delusions
Insomnia *
Violent behaviour
Anxiety
192
Q

Withdrawal symptoms of cocaine?

A 
Aggressiveness
Agitation
Exhaustion
Long periods of sleep
Depression
193
Q

Overdose symptoms of cocaine?

A 
Nausea or vomiting
Overheating
Difficulty breathing
Cardiac arrest
Seizures or convulsions
Stroke
Coma
Death
194
Q

What is crystal meth?

A

Methamphetamine

White crystalline drug

Used by 2% of youths in Canada

Highly addictive

Triggers a release of norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin

High can last from 6 to 12 hours

195
Q

Positive symptoms of crystal meth?

A

Euphoria

Diminished fatigue

196
Q

Negative symptoms of crystal meth?

A 
Loss of appetite
Respiratory problems  
Tachycardia
Hallucinations
Paranoid delusions      
Violent behaviour
Mood disturbances
Rotting teeth and gums *
Anxiety
Stroke
197
Q

With-drawl symptoms of crystal meth?

A 
Exhaustion
Depression
Mental confusion
Insomnia
Extreme hunger
Anxiety
198
Q

Overdose symptoms of crystal meth?

A 
Overheating
Difficulty breathing
Cardiac arrest
Seizures or convulsions
Stroke
Coma
Death
199
Q

What are Psychedelics?

A

drugs that produce dramatic alterations in perception, mood, and thought

200
Q

Types of Psychedelics?

A

Ecstasy (MDMA or Molly)
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Psilocybin mushrooms (Shrooms)
Marijuana (Weed)

201
Q

What is ecstasy?

A

Contains a wide mixture of substances

Surfaced as a psychotherapy medication to lower client inhibitions

Increases the activity of neurotransmitter serotonin

Psychological (not physical) dependence

High can last of 4 to 6 hours

202
Q

Positive symptoms of ecstasy?

A 
Euphoria
Increased confidence, emotional empathy, and energy
Increased tolerance to pain
Decreased fatigue
Heightened sense of touch
203
Q

Negative symptoms of ecstasy?

A 
Anxiety
Blurred vision
Loss of appetite
Dehydration
Memory problems
Elevated blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory
204
Q

With-drawl symptoms of ecstasy?

A 
Mood swings
Restlessness
Excessive thirst
Muscle cramping
Depression
Insomnia
205
Q

Overdose symptoms of ecstasy?

A 
Nausea or vomiting
Overheating
Seizures or convulsions
Coma
Death
206
Q

What is LSD?

A

Produces altered perception of visual and auditory stimuli

Noticeable changes in audio, visual, and tactile senses

Increases the activity of neurotransmitter serotonin

Psychological (not physical) dependence

High can last from 6 to 14 hours

207
Q

Positive symptoms of LSD?

A

Euphoria

208
Q

Negative symptoms of LSD?

A 
Loss of appetite
Blurred vision
Tingling fingers or toes
Anxiety
Depression
Disorientation
Paranoid
Hallucinations
209
Q

With-drawl symptoms of LSD?

A

None

210
Q

Overdose symptoms of LSD?

A 
Dilated pupils
Nausea or vomiting
Tachycardia
Fever
Seizures or convulsions
Coma
Death
211
Q

What are shrooms?

A

Hallucinogenic mushrooms that alter a person’s state of mind and consciousness

Noticeable changes in audio, visual, and tactile senses

Psychological (not physical) dependence

High can last for 3 to 8 hours

212
Q

Positive symptoms of shrooms?

A

Euphoria *

Sense of well being

213
Q

Negative symptoms of shrooms?

A 
Mood swings
Increased heart rate
Panic attacks
Depression
Delusions
Hallucinations
Suicidal tendencies
214
Q

With-drawl symptoms of shrooms?

A

None

215
Q

Overdose symptoms of shrooms?

A 
Dilated pupils
Loss of appetite
Nausea or vomiting
Difficulty breathing
Paranoia
Seizures or convulsions
Coma
Death
216
Q

What is Marijuana?

A

Most common recreational drug in Canada

Derived from the cannabis plant

Contains an active ingredient called THC

Psychological (not physical) dependence

High can last for 3 to 4 hours

217
Q

Positive symptoms of Marijuana?

A

Relaxation

Pain-relief

218
Q

Negative symptoms of Marijuana?

A 
Increased appetite
Slow reaction time
Dizziness
Short-term memory problems
Tachycardia
Decreased libido and fertility
Suicidal thoughts
219
Q

With-drawl symptoms of Marijuana?

A

None

220
Q

Overdose symptoms of Marijuana?

A 
Anxiety
Depression
Hallucinations
Delusions
Paranoia
Seizures or convulsions
221
Q

What is learning?

A

change in an organism’s behaviour or thought as a result of experience

222
Q

3 types of conditioning?

A

Classical conditioning
Operant conditioning
Observational learning

223
Q

What is Habituation?

A

process of responding less strongly over time to repeated stimuli

The simplest and earliest form of learning

224
Q

What is Sensitization?

A

process of responding more strongly over time to repeated stimuli

225
Q

What is Classical Conditioning?

A

form of learning in which animals come to respond to a previously neutral stimulus that had been paired with another stimulus that elicits an automatic response

226
Q

Elements of classical conditioning?

A 
Unconditioned stimulus (UCS) 
Unconditioned response (UCR)
Conditioned stimulus (CS) 
Conditioned response (CR)
227
Q

What is Unconditioned stimulus (UCS)?

A

stimulus that elicits an automatic response without prior conditioning

228
Q

What is Unconditioned response (UCR)?

A

automatic response to a non-neutral stimulus that does not need to be learned

229
Q

What is Conditioned stimulus (CS)?

A

initially neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a response due to association with an unconditioned stimulus

230
Q

What is Conditioned response (CR)?

A

response previously associated with a non-neutral stimulus that is elicited by a neutral stimulus through conditioning

231
Q

Key components of classical conditioning?

A

Strength
Timing
Frequency
Predictability

232
Q

What is strong strength? (classical conditioning)

A

when an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., steak) is likely to elicit the unconditioned response (e.g., salivation)

233
Q

What is weak strength? (classical conditioning)

A

when an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., steak) is unlikely to elicit the unconditioned response (e.g., salivation)

234
Q

What is timing? (classical conditioning)

A

An unconditioned stimulus (e.g., steak) must be paired with a conditioned stimulus (e.g., metronome) close enough in time for the two to be associated for conditioning to occur

235
Q

What is frequency? (classical conditioning)

A

Occasional pairings of a neutral stimulus (e.g., metronome) with an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., steak) do not typically result in conditioning

236
Q

What is predictability? (classical conditioning)

A

If the unconditioned stimulus (e.g., steak) can be readily predicted by the conditioned stimulus (e.g., metronome), the conditioning can be achieved rapidly

237
Q

Phases of classical conditioning?

A

Acquisition
Extinction
Spontaneous recovery

238
Q

What is acquisition? (classical conditioning)

A

learning phase during which a conditioned response is established

The closer in time the pairing of the unconditioned stimulus and conditioned stimulus, the faster learning occurs

239
Q

What is extinction? (classical conditioning)

A

gradual reduction and eventual elimination of the conditioned response after the condition stimulus is presented repeatedly without the unconditioned stimulus

240
Q

What is spontaneous recovery? (classical conditioning)

A

sudden re-emergence of an extinct conditioned response after a delay following an extinction procedure

Maybe reappear hours or days later

241
Q

The two phenomenas of classical conditioning?

A

Stimulus generalization

Stimulus discrimination

242
Q

What is Stimulus generalization?

A

process by which conditioned stimuli similar (but not identical) to the original conditioned stimulus elicit a conditioned response

243
Q

What is Stimulus discrimination?

A

process by which organisms display a less pronounced conditioned response to stimuli that differ from the original conditioned stimulus

244
Q

What is latent inhibition?

A

difficulty in establishing classical conditioning to a conditioned stimulus we have repeatedly experienced alone, that is, without the unconditioned stimulus

245
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

learning controlled by the consequences of the organism’s behaviour

Typically shaped by rewards

Behaviour must be elicited voluntarily

246
Q

Components of operant conditioning?

A

Reinforcement

Punishment

247
Q

What are reinforcements?

A

outcome or consequence of a behaviour that strengthens the probability of the behaviour

248
Q

What are punishments?

A

outcome or consequence of a behaviour that weakens the probability of the behaviour

249
Q

What is the law of effect?

A

principle asserting that if a stimulus followed by a behaviour results in a reward, the stimulus is more likely to give rise to the behaviour in the future

250
Q

Disadvantages of punishment?

A

Emphasizes what not to do, instead of what to do

Often creates anxiety

May encourage subversive behaviour

May provide a model of aggressive behaviour

251
Q

What is insight learning?

A

grasping the underlying nature of a problem

252
Q

What is skinner box?

A

small animal chamber constructed to allow sustained periods of conditioning to be administered and behaviours to be recorded and supervised

253
Q

What is reinforcement?

A

patterns of reinforcing a behaviour

254
Q

Types of reinforcement?

A

Continuous

Partial

255
Q

What is continuous reinforcement?

A

reinforcing a behaviour every time it occurs

256
Q

What is partial reinforcement?

A

reinforcing a behaviour intermittently

257
Q

What is strength? (Operant conditioning)

A

the greater the reward, the harder, longer, and faster the organism will work to complete a task

258
Q

What is timing? (Operant conditioning)

A

he shorter the interval between rewards, the greater the likelihood the behaviour will be learned

259
Q

What is reinforcement schedules?

A

Fixed ratio
Fixed interval
Variable ratio
Variable interval

260
Q

What is a fix ratio?

A

pattern in which we provide reinforcement following a regular number of responses

ex. The rat is rewarded food after every 10 presses on the lever

261
Q

What is a fixed interval?

A

pattern in which we provide reinforcement for the first response following a specified time interval

ex. The rat is rewarded food every 1 hour

262
Q

What is a variable ratio?

A

pattern in which we provide reinforcement after a variable number of responses

ex. The rat is rewarded food after 6, 12, 1, and 21 presses on the lever

263
Q

What is the variable interval?

A

pattern in which we provide reinforcement for the first response following a variable time interval

ex. The rat is rewarded food every 20 mins, 45 mins, 2 hours, and 15 minutes

264
Q

Operant conditioning Differs from Classical Conditioning in two ways?

A

The behaviour is voluntary rather than reflexive

A consequence follows rather than occurring simultaneously with the behaviour

265
Q

Phases of operant conditioning?

A

Acquisition
Extinction
Spontaneous recovery

266
Q

What is acquisition? (operant conditioning)

A

learning phase during which an operant response is established

267
Q

What is extinction? (operant conditioning)

A

= gradual reduction and eventual elimination of the operant response when reinforcement of that response is no longer present

268
Q

What is spontaneous recovery? (operant conditioning)

A

sudden re-emergence of an extinguished operant response after a delay following an extinction procedure

May reappear hours or days later

269
Q

Operant conditioning pheenomeenas?

A

Stimulus generalization

Stimulus discrimination

270
Q

What is Stimulus generalization? (operant conditioning)

A

process by which operant stimuli similar (but not identical) to the original operant stimulus elicits an operant response

271
Q

What is Stimulus discrimination? (operant conditioning)

A

process by which organisms display a less pronounced operant response to stimuli that differ from the original operant stimulus

272
Q

What is observable learning?

A

learning by watching others

Allows us to learn without reinforcement

Occurs continuously, some argue automatically

273
Q

What is the bobo doll experiment?

A

Children (ages 3 to 5)

Two conditions:
Children observed adults playing quietly and ignoring the Bobo doll
Children observed adults punching, kicking, and yelling at the Bobo doll

Following, children were left alone in the room with the Bobo doll

Children previously exposed to the aggressive model demonstrated significantly more aggression towards the Bobo doll than children exposed to the non-aggressive model

Confirming that children can learn aggression through observational learning

274
Q

What is the key components of observable learning?

A

Type of model
Personality
Situation

275
Q

What is Type of model?

A

models similar to the learner and that the learner aspires to will have a greater impact on the learner’s behaviour

276
Q

What is Personality?

A

learners that lack critical thinking and independence engage in observational learning more often

277
Q

What is Situation?

A

the similarity and familiarity of the situation can differentially influence observational learning

Psychology 102 (2 decks)

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