Psychiatry - Paediatric & Law Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the key clinical features of ADHD.

A
  • triad: inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity
  • difficulty in relationships, reckless / dangerous behaviour, poor problem solving
  • increased psych co-morbidity and substance misuse
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2
Q

Name the key risk factors for ADHD [3].

A

Triad: genetic disposition, perinatal precipitants, psychosocial adversity

  • genetic: dopamine and serotonin transporter linked
  • perinatal: tobacco / alcohol use in pregnancy, FAS, prematurity, hypoxia, long labour, foetal distress, low forceps, eclampsia
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3
Q

Describe the neurobiological changes seen in ADHD [2].

A
  • decreased function in frontal lobe (reasoning, planning, impulse, judgement, initiation of action, social/sexual behaviour)
  • increased dopamine removal, decreased NA (stress, attention), decreased 5-HT (mood, social behaviour, sleep, memory)
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4
Q

Describe the assessment and management of ADHD.

A
  • school observation, questionaires, developmental history
  • historical concerns from family
  • gets in the way of life (e.g., work, education, driving, relationships)
  • parent training, social skills training, sleep, diet supplements
  • classroom behaviour management
  • 1st line: methylphenidate, dexamfetamine (blocks DA reuptake)
  • 2nd line: SSRIs, alpha agonists, antidepressants
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5
Q

Name the conditions under the umbrella of ‘autism spectrum disorders’.

A

asperger’s, rett’s, childhood autism, pervasive developmental disorder, PDD NOS

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6
Q

Describe the pathology and neurochemistry of ASD.

A
  • higher male: 5:1
  • in females, reduced SHBG means increased free testosterone
  • may be caused by rubella, tuberous sclerosis, fragile X, encephalitis, untreated PKU, umbilical cord complication, foetal distress, brain injury / trauma, multiple birth, SGA etc.
  • increased function of amygdala: anxiety, social and communication skills
  • glutamate (neuronal damage), GABA (cell migration, neuron differentation, maturation), serotonin (neuron development)
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7
Q

Name the key clinical features of ASDs.

A

Triad: social communication, social imagination, social interaction (+ repetitive behaviours)

  • communication: difficulty in grasping underlying meanings, narrow interests, difficulty sharing thoughts/feelings
  • imagination: difficulties thinking flexibly, takes things literally
  • interaction: difficulty picking up nonverbal cues, lacks empathy (when just trying to figure out social situations)
  • repetitive behaviours: inflexible adherence to routine, abnormally intense interests
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8
Q

Describe the management options for ASDs.

A
  • non-pharmacological: psychoeducation, SALT, behaviour analysis, social skills training
  • pharmacological: rispiradone (severe aggression), AEDs, stimulants, antipsychotics, mood stabilisers, SSRI/SNRIs, melatonin
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9
Q

Define ‘intellectual activity’, and give the categories based on IQ.

A
  • a condition of arrested / incomplete development of the mind, characterised by impairment of skills, level of intelligence, and cognitive / language / motor / social ability
  • borderline 70-84
  • mild 50-69
  • moderate 35-49
  • severe 20-34
  • profound <20
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10
Q

Describe the assessment of intellectual disorders and the Flynn effect [6].

A
  • conversation with parents/carers then a psychometric assessment
  • may be immediately evident
  • history of special schooling
  • behavioural communication
  • observation of behaviour in limited communication
  • Flynn effect: average rate of IQ increase about 3 points/decade
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11
Q

Describe the management of intellectual disorders and the O’Brien principle.

A
  • O’Brien: learning disabled people continue to grow/develop given an appropriate environment
  • manage co-morbidities (epilepsy, mental illness, hypothyroidism, DM etc.)
  • provide a therapeutic environment, psychoeducation, social needs, communication (hearing aids, glasses etc.)
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12
Q

Define and describe consent and capacity.

A
  • consent: permission for something to happen, or agreement to do something
  • capacity: ability to make a decision. a patient must
    • understand/retain relevant information
    • use and weigh information to make a decision
    • communicative that decision
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13
Q

Describe the criteria required to conduct a procedure without capacity or consent.

A
  • it must benefit the patient
  • such benefit cannot be reasonably be achieved without the intervention
  • take account of past and present wishes
  • consult with other reasonable persons
  • encourage use of residual capacity.
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14
Q

Describe the adults with incapacity act, and when it would be used.

A

if an adult cannot action, make, communicate, retain, or understand a decision in relation to mental disorder or inability to communicate by physical disability
not necessarily refusing the procedure, but not able to fully make / communicate their decision

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15
Q

Define the following terms:

  • power of attorney
  • guardianship
  • advance statement
  • named person
A
  • power of attorney: gives someone else power to act as continuing financial and/or welfare attorney, in case capacity is later lost
  • guardianship: a person makes specific decisions for another person over time
  • advance statement: a written statement signed, witnessed, nd dated when the patient is well, describing how the patient would want (/not) to be treated
  • named person: supports patient and their interests; same rights to be notified, attend, represent etc.
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16
Q

Describe SIDMA.

A
  • significantly impaired decision making ability
  • as a result of a mental disorder, ability to make decisions about medical management is impaired
  • e.g., she is reluctant to remain in hospital as a result of paranoid delusional beliefs that she is being monitored by others, affecting her ability to weigh up advantages/disadvantages of treatment.
17
Q

Describe the three main types of detention under the mental health act.

A
  • emergency detention (s36): likely to have mental disorder, significantly impaired decision making, risk to safety to self or others
  • short term detention (<28days) for both assessment and management; likely mental disorder w/ two medical professional approvals
  • compulsory treatment order (CTO): requires diagnosis, approval from practitioner + MHO, care plan etc., requires mandatory tribunal
18
Q

Describe what constitutes ‘significant risk’ under the MHA.

A
  • health, safety, welfare
  • suicide, self-harm
  • wandering, vulnerability
  • deterioration in mental state
  • starvation / dehydration
  • poor self care
  • aggression