Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

A 79-year-old woman with a diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease is causing concern
as she is constantly getting lost on the way back from the local shop to her home,
which is only a short walk and one that she has done nearly every day for 20 years.
What sort of memory disturbance does this represent?

A. Autobiographical memory
B. Episodic memory
C. Procedural memory
D. Semantic memory
E. Topographical memory

A

E. Topographical memory

Autobiographical (A) relates to memories of your own life, such as the date of your birth, this is analogous to Episodic memory (B).

Topographical memory (E) is a common failure in dementia and is concerned with the ability to orientate yourself in place.

Procedural memory (C) is the unconcious memories we access that are how we know how to carry out previously learnt tasks, such as tying shoelaces.

Semantic memory (D) is esentially your general knowledge.

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2
Q

A 72-year-old woman who suffers from Alzheimer’s disease is asked who the
Prime Minister was during the Second World War, to which she replies ‘Winston
Churchill’. She is then asked where she lived during the war, to which she answers
‘Winston Churchill’. What phenomenon is being described here?

A. Confabulation
B. Déjà vu
C. Ganser’s syndrome
D. Jamais vu
E. Perseveration

A

E. Perseveration

Perserveration (E) is an almost exclusive feature of organic brain disease, such as dementia. It is the giving of an appropriate answer to a question but then repeating that answer to subsequent questions inappropriately. This can also be seen in motor responses.

Confabulation (A) - is where false memories occur and this results in incorrect answers being given. It can result in a suffere trying to compensate for not knowing an answer, or it may apear as deliberate attempts to decieve, in organic brain disease sufferers can be seen to invent fantastical answers (tricky to differentiate from delusions).

Déjà vu (B) - ‘to see again’, is a scenario where a person feels they have encountered an event before but it is a new experience, It can be a feature of temporal lobe epilepsy, but it is a normal experience for most people and non-pathological.

Ganser’s syndrome (C) - is a phenomena where a person gives approximate answers to questions. So when asked how many months of the year they might answer 13. There is debate as to this phenomenon’s status as a sign of organic brain disease or a dissociative disorder.

Jamais vu (D) is essentially the opposite of Déjà vu, the person has a sensation of a familar place of event hasn’t been encountered before. Think Gandalf in the mines of Moria… ‘I have no memory of this place’

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3
Q

A young woman wakes from a nightmare and sees her dressing gown hanging
from the door, which she mistakes as an assailant. What is being described here?

A. Affect illusion
B. Completion illusion
C. Pareidolic illusion
D. Tactile hallucination
E. Visual hallucination

A

A. Affect illusion

An illusion is the misinterpretation of a real stimuli,whereas a hallucination is the experience of a new perception with no ligitimate stimulus.

Illusions ae usually not pathological.

An affect illusion (A) is where a perception is altered in line with the affect of the person experiencing it. In this case the frightened woman sees an attacker where there is only clothes.

A completion illusion (B) is where we fail to notice something that s incorrect or out of place when we are not paying attention. We might, for example skip over a repeated word in a typed sentence.

A pareidolic illusion (C) is where we see shapes or complex form within a chaotic pattern, seeing animal shapes in clouds is a good example.

Tactile (D) and visual (E) hallucinations are de novo sensations of felling a touch or seeing something that isn’t there, respectively.

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4
Q

A young man with schizophrenia describes how he can hear the secret service
in their base in Finland discussing their plans to assassinate him. What is this
phenomenon known as?

A. Extracampine hallucination
B. Functional hallucination
C. Hypnagogic hallucination
D. Hypnopompic hallucination
E. Reflex hallucination

A

A. Extracampine hallucination

an Extracampine hallucination (A) is one that occurs beyond the normal range of perception, as is the case here, there is no way this man can hear people in Finland.

This is clearly a hallucination as he report hearing these voices as oppossed to this just being a belief /delusion.

A functional hallucination (B) is one that only occurs alongside a stimulus in the same modality. So for example, hearing voices referencing you, but only when you listen to the radio.

A hypnagogic hallucination (C) is one that occurs on falling asleep, such as the feeling of falling. Similarly a Hypnopompic hallucination (D0 is one that occurs shortly after waking.

A reflex hallucination (E) is similar to functional, except that the stimulus and hallucination are in different modalities. So an example might be hearing voices everytime you see a volkswagen golf.

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5
Q

A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with schizophrenia, with the belief that he has
been targeted for extermination by a religious cult who have implanted tiny
electrical ‘ants’ into his fingernails. When asked when he knew this, he said he had
seen a magazine story 3 months ago on ‘retiring to the country’ and immediately
felt this was a covert message from the cult that he should be ‘retired’. There was
no evidence of delusions prior to this. What is being described here?

A. Autochthonous (primary) delusion
B. Autoscopy
C. Delusional atmosphere
D. Delusional memory
E. Delusional perception

A

E. Delusional perception

  • A delusional perception (E) occurs when a normal perception (e.g. seeing a magazine cover) is invested with a delusional meaning (a cult is trying

to kill me). The perception is given a whole new false, and usually bizarre,
meaning that is specific to the patient and nearly always of monumentous
importance.

  • An autochthonous delusion (A) is one that arises out of the blue (and unlike delusional perception is not attached to a real stimulus). It should be distinguished from secondary delusions in which the beliefs are understandable in the context of the sufferer’s mood or history (e.g. a mood-congruent depressive delusion). A primary delusion is by definition un-understandable in any context.
  • Autoscopy (B) refers to the sensation of seeing oneself, although its aetiology and precise psychopathology is controversial.
  • Delusional atmosphere (C), also known as delusional mood, refers to the state of perplexity or bewilderment in which sufferers feel that something is ‘going on’ but without being able to state exactly what. It often occurs prior to a delusion forming and the sufferer will often describe feeling odd and that everything around them has new ‘meanings’ and significance to them in particular.
  • Delusional memory (D) is when a patient recalls an event from the past and interprets it with a delusional meaning. Although this may seem similar to the answer ‘E’, the difference is that the event at the time will not have been invested with a delusional interpretation; it is only afterwards that this occurs.
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6
Q

A 48-year-old man with poorly controlled schizophrenia is admitted to the ward.
He appears confused and he is difficult to interview. On asking him why he is in
hospital, he replies, ‘Jealousy, the Collaborative, collaborate and dissipate. What’s
in my fridge? It isn’t my time’. How would you describe this type of thinking?

A. Circumstantial
B. Derailment
C. Flight of ideas
D. Pressure of speech
E. Thought blocking

A

B. Derailment

Derailment (B) is a type of formal thought disorder where there are no meaningful connections between the thoughts. It is a common finding in schizophrenia.

Circumstantial thinking (A) is where the person talks around a subject

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia as described
by Schneider?

A. Delusional perception
B. Persecutory delusions
C. Running commentary
D. Somatic passivity
E. Thought alienation

A

B. Persecutory delusions

Although persecutaroy delusions (B) are seen in schizophrenia, they are not a first rank symptom as described by Schneider.

The other symptom here are first rank, but they are not exclusive to schizophrenia and are seen in other psychiatric conditions. Equally not everyone with schizophrenia has one of the first rank symptoms.

The first rank symptoms as dsescribed by Schneider;

  • Auditory hallucinations

Hearing voices conversing with one another
Voices heard commenting on one’s actions (hallucination of running commentary)
Thought echo (a form of auditory hallucination in which the patient hears his/her thoughts spoken aloud)

  • Passivity experiences (in which the individual has the experience of the mind or body being under the influence or control of some kind of external force or agency;delusions of control or of being controlled)
  • Thought withdrawal (the delusional belief that thoughts have been ‘taken out’ of the patient’s mind)
  • Thought insertion (thoughts are ascribed to other people who are intruding into the patient’s mind)
Thought broadcasting (also called thought diffusion)
Delusional perception (linking a normal sensory perception to a bizarre conclusion, e.g. seeing an aeroplane means the patient is the president)
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8
Q

A 72-year-old man with Parkinson’s dementia is seen in clinic. He is asked how
he is feeling, to which he replies, ‘I feel fantastic…tic…tic…tic…tic…’. What is the
name for this type of speech abnormality?

A. Alogia
B. Dysarthria
C. Echolalia
D. Logoclonia
E. Neologism

A

D. Logoclonia

Logoclonia (D) refers to the symptom of repeating the last syllable of a word repeatedly, it is often seen in parkinson’s disease.

Alogia (A) is the phenomenon of ‘not having any words’ and referes to extreme poverty of speech. It is seen most commonly in negative schizophrenia or dementia.

Echolalia (C) referes to the symptom where a person repeats what is said to them, essentially parroting what they hear. They will sometimes repeat this continously or incessantly. I can have an organic brain pathology such as injury or dementia, it can also be seen in schizophrenia and catatonia.

Neologism (E) is the creation of new words that have specific meaning relevant to them and thier delusional scenario. It is different to metonymy where a normal word is used in a different way.

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9
Q

A 26-year-old man is seen by his GP. For the last few months, he has become
increasingly concerned about a mole on his cheek, which he feels has got bigger
and people are noticing it more. Over the last week he has become convinced
that people are laughing at it when he passes them. He has a thought in his head
of ‘you’re so ugly, look at the size of that mole’. The patient does not feel he
knows where the thought comes from, but it does not seem to be his. He wonders
if someone has planted the thought there. The GP does not feel the mole is in
any way abnormally sized or has other unusual features. What is the most likely
aetiology of these symptoms?

A. Compulsion
B. Delusion
C. Hallucination
D. Rumination
E. Somatization

A

B. Delusion

The (likely incorrect) belief that people are looking at him, combined with these intrusive thoughts which are not recognised as his own makes this more likely to be a delusion (B).

In rumination (D) the patient would recognise the thoughts as his own.

It is not a hallucination (C) as none of this perception takes place outside of the self - the thoughts are not being heard aloud.

A compulsion (A) would be a repetitive act that the person felt they needed to do, driven by an anxiety of some description.

Somantization (E) refers to physcal symptoms that occur as a result of anxiey with no actual physical explaination,

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10
Q

Which of the following is not a core symptom of depression as defined by ICD-10?

A. Anergia
B. Anhedonia
C. Anorexia
D. Hyperphagia
E. Insomnia

A

D. Hyperphagia

Hyperphagia (D) refers to the increased consumption of food and it is seen in atypical depression, but it is not one of the core ICD-10 symptoms.

from the ICD10;

in typical depressive episodes of all three varieties described below (mild (F32.0), moderate (F32.1), and severe (F32.2 and F32.3)), the individual usually suffers from depressed mood, loss of interest and enjoyment [anhedonia (B)], and reduced energy [anergia (A)] leading to increased fatiguability and diminished activity. Marked tiredness after only slight effort is common. Other common symptoms are:

  • (a)reduced concentration and attention;
  • (b)reduced self-esteem and self-confidence;
  • (c)ideas of guilt and unworthiness (even in a mild type of episode);
  • (d)bleak and pessimistic views of the future;
  • (e)ideas or acts of self-harm or suicide;
  • (f)disturbed sleep [Insomnia (E)]
  • (g)diminished appetite [anorexia (C)].

With any depressive episode the symptoms must be for Two weeks or more

in Mild depression - 2 of the primary symptoms (anhedonia, anenergia, low mood) plus 2 of a-g (above)

In Moderate depression - 2 primary symptoms plus 3 of the other symptoms

In Severe depression - all 3 of the primary symptoms plus at least 4 of the other symptoms.

There is a sub category of Severe depression with psychotic symptoms - where the criteria for severe depression are fullfilled but there is the addition of psychotic symptoms such as; visual or auditory hallucinations (often insulting or accusatory), delusions of sin, or imminent disaster, depressive stupour, or even a cottard delusion (where the sufferer thinks they are dead) or other nihilistic delusions.

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11
Q

A 42-year-old man sees his GP after witnessing a horrific motorway pile-up. For
the last 6 weeks he has been experiencing recurrent and intrusive images of the
event where he relives what happened, both at night and during the day. At night
he is also having vivid nightmares about the crash which is now stopping him
from going to sleep. He has not driven his car since, although he himself was not
involved in the crash. Every time a car starts he jumps and becomes extremely
upset. His mood is low and he feels disconnected from his wife and children and he has been thinking about killing himself. What symptom is not being described here?

A. Avoidance
B. Detachment
C. Insomnia
D. Increased arousal
E. Night terrors

A

E. Night terrors

Avoidance (A) - avoiding the traumatic stimulus or things linked to it, this patient is avoiding driving.

Detachment (B) - Feeling discoonected from his wife and kids. There can also be a feeling of derealisation or depersonalisation where the sufferer feels removed from the world around him or even from his own body.

Insomnia (C) - is described here with the nightmares stoping him going to sleep

Increased arousal (D) - is described by the reaction to the ordinary stimulus of a car starting.

What isn’t described here is night terrors (E) - these are distinct from nightmares in that they do not occur in REM sleep, they usually affect children. The sufferer will wake from sleep in a state of terror and confusion, often shouting and lashing out.

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12
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in the case described in the previous question? [42yo male experiencing nightmares and daytime images of a car acident he witnessed 6 weeks ago, some detachment, increased arousal and avoidance also]

A. Acute stress reaction
B. Adjustment disorder
C. Depressive episode
D. Dissociative fugue
E. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A

E. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Criteria for diagnosis of PTSD (E); exposure to a potentially life threatening event, re-experiencing the event in various ways (nightmares or flashbacks), avoidance of stimuli that recall the event, and increased arousal such as hypervigilance, increased startle reaction, insomina and sometimes irritibilty and anger. THese symptoms need to persist for greater than 1 month for the diagnosis of PTSD.

An acute stress reaction (A) must subsided within hours or days

An adjustment disorder (B) - is in response to a significant and stresful change in life circumstances (such as a bereavement). Te symptoms with that are depression and anxiety along with an inability to cope with daily tasks.

A dissociative fugue (D) - is a conversion disorder in which the body or mind in some way lose thier integration. This will usually resolve in weeks to months.In a dissociative fugue the sufferer will travel for a long way (often much longer than a usual distance) and there is a period of amnesia. They often appear normal to people they meet on thier fugue journey.

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13
Q

A 49-year-old woman with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit in a
mute state. She is staring blankly ahead and not responding to any commands.
She is not eating or drinking and looks dehydrated. Which of the following is the
least likely to be observed in catatonia?

A. Catalepsy
B. Clanging
C. Echolalia
D. Negativism
E. Stupor

A

B. Clanging

Clanging (B) is a form of thought disorder where words are selected based on thier rhyming with each other. Essentially a sufferer will start talking like Dr Seuss. It is a feature of schizophrenia but it is not typical of catatonia.

The typical criteria for catatonia can be found in the Bush-Francis rating scale.

Catatonia can present as a state predominated by stupour (E), or by excitation. It’s cause is unclear and it has associations with many conditions other than schizophrenia.

It can be associated with catalepsy (A) which is ridgid limbs, as seen in the phenomenan of ‘waxy flexibility’.

Echolalia (C) is where the catatonic patient repeats words or phrases, there can also be echopraxia where they repeat movements.

Negativism (D) is where the catatonic patient will attempt to do the opposite of what they are asked to do, it is more complex than just defiance.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the two classification systems in
psychiatry (ICD-10 and DSM-IV) is false? Note this refers specifically to the section
in ICD-10 related to psychiatry and mental health.

A. Dementia cannot be classified in either of the two systems
B. DSM-IV uses a multiaxial system
C. Homosexuality is no longer a diagnostic category in the two systems
D. ICD-10 was developed by the World Health Organization (WHO)
E. The first categories in ICD-10 are those related to organic disorders

A

A. Dementia cannot be classified in either of the two systems

Dementa can certainly be classified in the two systems (A), there is more difficulty with classifying the sub-types of dementia though.

DSM-IV uses 5 axes (B);

  1. Clinical disorders
  2. Personality disorders and learning disability
  3. acute medical conditions and physical disorders
  4. psychosocial and enviromental factors contributing to the disorder
  5. global assesment of functioning

Homosexuality (C) was still in the ICD until 1990 and in the DSM until 1986

ICD-10 was developed by the WHO (D) and places conditions in a heirachy, with organic pathology considered before psychiatric (E).

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15
Q

Which of the following would be the best definition of the term ‘loosening of
associations’?

A. A decrease in the amount of words produced by a patient
B. An incompleteness of the development of ideas or thoughts, leading to
a lack of logical relationship between them

C. Difficulty in verbalizing names of objects, despite being able to describe
their function
D. Talking in a roundabout manner before finally answering a question
E. The creation of a new word with particular meaning to the patient

A

B. An incompleteness of the development of ideas or thoughts, leading to
a lack of logical relationship between them

Loosening of association (B) is a form of thought disorder seen in schizophrenia

A - is poverty of speech , Alogia, and is sen in may conditions including chonic schizophrenia

C - is Nominal Aphasia, seen in demntia, stroke and other organic pathology

D - is circumstantiality, often sen in hypomanic states.

E - is neologisicim, and is seen in schizophrenia

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16
Q

A man is admitted to accident and emergency after being found semi-conscious
in the street. He is unkempt and does not have any information on his person; he
appears to be street homeless. In accident and emergency he has a tonic clonic
seizure which is self-limiting after 3 minutes. The man is post-ictal for a short
time but soon becomes restless, tremulous and sweaty. His speech is rambling,
and he complains about the bed sheets being filthy and ‘filled with mites’. He
is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 186/114 mmHg. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A. Alcoholic hallucinosis
B. Delirium tremens
C. Cocaine withdrawal
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
E. Opiate overdose

A

B. Delirium tremens

DT (B) is a sndrome caused by alcohol withdrawal in patients with alcohol dependence. It is a medical emergency as it results in autonomic instibility, nausea nad voiting, altered mental state (the delirium), tremor (tremens), and can sometime lead to seizures. Symptoms appear 6-12 hours after the last drink and peak at 24-48hrs.

The visual hallucinations here of insectsare also classic for this syndrome. This needs to be recognised as distinct from formication, which is the sensation of insects under the skin, and is seen in cocaine intoxication, and rarely in cocaine withdrawal (C). However (C) is unlikely as cocaine witdrawal doesn’t cause autonomic symptoms, and it’s unlikely a homeless man could afford a massive coke habit.

Alcoholic hallucinosis (A) is syndrome also caused by alcohol withdrawal, it is usually ment to describe auditory of visual hallucinations in a context of clear consciousness.

DKA (D) would have some clue in the history of acidosis, hyperglycaemia or ketonuria. The patient would apear dehydrated, there would be decreased conciousness, rarely with fits.

Opiate overdose (E) would cause respiratory and CNS depression.

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17
Q

You order a full set of bloods on this man. Which of the following results would
be most indicative of the underlying cause of his delirium? [presntation of Delirum tremens]

A. Elevated serum glucose
B. Elevated serum potassium
C. Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
D. Low serum vitamin B12
E. Raised platelets

A

D. Low serum vitamin B12

You would expect a deficiency in B12 in chronic alcohol abuse, due to deficient dietary intake and toxic effects of alcohol. This low B12 leads to a macrocytic anemia, not a microcytic (C).

Alcohol also leads to a thrombocytopenia due to B12/folate deficiency and toxic effects of alcohol), not a thrombocytosis (E).

Alcohol often causes hypoglycaemia, not an increased level of glucose (A)

Hypokalaemia is another feature of alcohl abuse, not hyperkalaemia (B)

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18
Q

A 73-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with an infective exacerbation of
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Apart from COPD and hypertension she has no other medical problems. On the third day of her admission, she becomes acutely confused. During the night she is awake, shouting constantly for her husband, claiming that the nurses are prison guards and that they are keeping her against her will. She is slightly calmer the day after. You are the FY1 on call and are asked to come and see her over the weekend as the nurses are worried it will happen again at night. What should your initial management be?

A. Prescribe clozapine 25 mg bd regularly
B. Prescribe haloperidol 2 mg intravenously immediately
C. Prescribe lorazepam 0.5 mg orally just before bedtime

D. Prescribe lorazepam 0.5 mg orally twice daily regularly
E. Prescribe nothing at this stage

A

E. Prescribe nothing at this stage

When managing deliurium, as this clearly is, it is important to only prescribe sedation of there is a clear risk of harm to the patient or others. The first stage of management is conservative, with intensive nursing intervention. Examples of what that entails include nursing the patient in a side room, ensuring natural light, clocks and windows to aid orientation to time, minimising moving the patient and consistent staff members caring for them.

If the pateint continues to be in a state of delirium, then guidelines suggest low dose anti-sychotics such as haloperidol, but the route would be PO not IV, unless the patient was refusing (B).

For deleriumbenzos (C and D) are second line treatments as they can cause respiratory depression or paradoxical excitation. The exception is if the delirium is delirium tremens or benzo withdrawal, then benzos are the first line treatment.

Clozapine (A) is a last line treatmetn for schizophrenia.

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19
Q

Which of the following medications is most likely to be associated with an organic
depressive disorder?

A. Prednisolone
B. Sertraline
C. Thyroxine
D. Tramadol
E. Tryptophan

A

A. Prednisolone

Although steroid use (A) is well known to be linked to steroid induced psychosis, they may also cause depressive disorders, this is probably less common than the steroid induced mania (steroid psychosis), but they can exist together.

None of the other medications here have a link to depressive episodes;

Sertraline (B) is an SSRI and there is some evidence of an increase in suicidal thoughts, but this is unclear, but there is no increase in depressive features.

Thyroxine (C) is used to treat hypothyroidism (which is linked to depression).

Tramadol (D) is an opiate analgesic, and there is evidence that it can have an anti-depressive effect as there is central release of serotonin with opiates.

Tryptophan (E) is an essential amino acid and the precursor of serotonin it is sometimes used as an augment in treatment resistant depression.

20
Q

A 27-year-old man is involved in a road traffic accident. During rehabilitation
his family have become very upset as they feel he has ‘changed’. They report
that his concentration is poor and at times he is saying very hurtful things to his
wife, which they say is extremely out of character. He has also begun eating large
quantities of junk food, whereas before he was extremely fit and careful with his
diet. Which part of the brain is most likely to have suffered an injury?

A. Basal ganglia
B. Frontal lobe
C. Limbic structures
D. Parietal lobe
E. Occipital lobe

A

B. Frontal lobe

We have modern Phineas Gauge in this scenario!

Like the aforementioned there has been damage to the frontal lobe (B), these frontal lobe syndromes can lead to personality changes as we see here. The changes in personality include;

  • Inappropriate or ‘fatuous’ affect
  • Lability and irritability of mood
  • Hypersexuality
  • Hyperphagia
  • ‘Childishness’ or pranks, known as Witzelsucht.

There is no insight into the change in behaviour, there is also a bizzare phenomenon where patients will use items in front of them regardless if they need to. for example getting undressed and getting into bed when enetering a bedroom, regardless of time of day. THis is known as forced utilisation.

There is also a loss of inhibition generally, gambling, sexuality, eating and saying things not considered appropriate.

Basal ganglia (A) damage can cause slowing of motor function, and sometimes obsessional behaviour,

Limbic system (C) insults can result in amnesic syndromes.

parietal lobe (D) damage is associated with visual-spacial defects such agnosia (inability to recognise objects) or dyspraxia.

Gerstmann’s syndrome is a syndrome of the parietal lobe with four components;

  1. left-right disorientation
  2. Dyscalculia (problems with arithmetic)
  3. Finger agnosia (unable to distinguish the fingers of the hand)
  4. Agraphia (inability to write)

Occipital lobe (E) damage can lead to complex visual disturbances. A strange example is Anton’s syndrome where, as a result of bilateral occipital lobe injuy teh patient is cortically blind but lacks insight into that fact and is adamant they can see.

21
Q

A 28-year-old woman is admitted to hospital systemically very unwell, with
a reduced level of consciousness, headache, fever, nausea and vomiting and
dysphasia. This is followed by several seizures. Initial cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
analysis shows the CSF is clear, with raised protein, raised mononuclear cell count,
no polymorphs and normal glucose. Her partner says that for the preceding few
days she had been acting strangely, seeing things that were not there, accusing him of leaving the gas on and getting very agitated. She then became drowsy and he called the ambulance. Your initial management should be based on which being the most likely diagnosis?

A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Herpes simplex encephalitis
C. Neuropsyphilis
D. Sporadic Creutzfeld–Jakob disease (CJD)
E. Temporal lobe epilepsy

A

B. Herpes simplex encephalitis

Althought there is nothing here that makes you certain this is a HSV encepalitis (B) there are clinical findings consistent with an encephalitis.The fatality rate of non treated HSV encephalitis is around 70% and the management of IV aciclovir is rather benign, as such there should be low threshold for empirical treatment.

HSV always targets the temporal lobe and orbitofrontal structures, explaining the symptomology here of unusual behaviour and psychotic symptoms.

The CSF results here suport a viral picture, not a bacterial one (A), where we would expect turbulent/purulent CSF with high protein, very low glucose, and polymorphonuclear cells.

neurosyphilis (C) would be very rare in a woman as young as this, but not impossible. The history is too quick to fit with late neurosyphilis though, and it is unlikely to be a syphilis meningitis for the same reasons as a bacterial above.

Sporadic CJD (D) would be a rapid onset dementia with mood symptoms, spacsticity and blindness. Given the wording of the question, as this is an untreatable condition it would be a low ranked diagnosis.

Temporal lobe epilepsy (E) would present as abscence seizure or autmatisms (unusual and unconcious motor behaviours).There may also be auras which prceed the seizure, these can resemble psychotic symptoms.This extreme deterioration over a few days would not fit with seizures.

22
Q

A 76-year-old man with squamous cell lung carcinoma attends accident and
emergency with his wife who is his full-time carer. She has become concerned as
he has become extremely depressed over the last couple of weeks, along with being extremely thirsty and having little energy. Up until then he was coping very well with his diagnosis. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. Hypercalcaemia
B. Hypocalcaemia
C. Hyperkalaemia
D. Hypokalaemia
E. Hypophosphataemia

A

A. Hypercalcaemia

Hypercalcaemia (A) is a common complication of small cell carcinoma, this can be due to the tumour releasing large amounts of parathyroid-related peptide leading to increased bone turnover.

Classically it presents with;

  • ‘Stones’ - Renal calculi
  • ‘Bones’ - Bone pain
  • ‘Groans’ - constipation
  • ‘Psychic moans’ - depession, aesthenia, confusion
  • ‘Thrones’ - polyuria

Thirst is also common as it results from an osmotic diureis, there can also be nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Don’t assume the cancer patient with depression doesn’t have an underlying physical reason for the low mood.

Hypocalcaemia (B) would present with peripheral neurological signs such asd tendon reflex hyperactibility. This si seen in Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs.

Hyperkalaemia (C) does not tend to have psychiatric signs but is seen with difuse muscle fatigue.

Hypokalaemia (D) can also cause muscle weakness, there can be depression with this also. But htis is not the most likely reason in this case as there is an identified reason for hypercalcaemia.

Hypophosphataemia (E) can result in a delirium like picture.

23
Q

A 14-year-old boy, with no prior psychiatric or medical history, is noted to be
seriously slipping in his A-level course work, after previously being a ‘Grade A’
student. He has also started behaving recklessly, going out late whereas previously he had been shy with few friends. He is getting into frequent fights at school. Other changes include the onset of tremor and strange writhing movements in his arms. His mother has also noticed that his skin appears to have taken on a yellow tinge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Huntington’s disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Multiple system atrophy
D. Wilson’s disease
E. Young-onset Parkinson’s disease

A

D. Wilson’s disease

Wilson’s (D) is a disorder of copper metabolism, leading to accumulation of coper in various tissues. The depositon in the liver causes the jaundice seen here, and deposition in the nervous system causes the beahvioural changes. Wilson’s is linked to agression, risky behaviour,disinhibition, and sometimes self-harming behaviours. There can be neurlogical problems such as the tremor and writhing described here.

Given that there is no mention of Huntingdon’s (A) in the family, the age of onset would be in the 4th or 5th decade (huntingdon’s affects progressively younger people in the affected family line, this is known as anticipation).

MS (B) would affect different focal pathology a different times and would not cause these personality changes. The age of onset wuld be abnormally young here.

Multiple system atrophy (C) Is a rare disease of unknown cause, it has some common symptoms with Parkinson’s, but there is different foci of neuro damage and no lewy bodies.

The presentation doesn’t fit with the exremely rare condition of young-onset PD (E).

24
Q

Which of the following is the most common psychiatric manifestation following
stroke?

A. Anxiety symptoms
B. Delusions
C. Depressive symptoms
D. Hallucinations
E. Obsessive–compulsive (OCD) symptoms

A

C. Depressive symptoms

Depression is extremely common in stroke (C) it is estimated to affect around a 1/3 of stroke sufferers.

Hallucinations and delusions (D, B) re rare in stroke patients, around 12%

Anxiety disorders (A) are common and thought to occur in around a quarter of stroke patients.

Obsessive-compulsive symptoms (E) are not well studied, but anecdotally they are rare.

25
Q

A 38-year-old man is admitted with a several week history of rapidly deteriorating
memory, which he covered to some extent with extensive confabulation. He was
also found to be sleeping, drinking and eating excessively. On examination he
was pyrexial. His blood work showed a markedly raised serum osmolality. An MRI
shows an intracranial mass. Where is the most likely anatomical location for this
lesion?

A. Around the third ventricle
B. Cerebellum
C. Corpus callosum
D. Frontal lobe
E. Pons

A

A. Around the third ventricle

Symptoms of amnesia and confabulation are typical of tumours involving the wall or floor of the third ventricle (A). The prescence of the hypothalamus and thalamus in this area also explain the symptoms of hypersomnia, hyperphagia, pyrexia and polydipsia.

The raised serum osmolality suggests a cranial diabetes insipidus secondary to the tumour interefering with the hypothalamus.

Cerebella tumours (B) would not present with significant psychiatric symptoms, but raised ICP would be possible eading to a dementia like syndrome. The other symptoms here point to involvement of thalamic/hypothalamic structures.

Corpus callosum (C) tumours can cause prfound psychiatric symptoms that lead to rapidly deteriation of higher functions.

Frontal lobe (D) tumours tend to present with personality changes, and can cause symptoms mistaken for dementia.Neurological symptoms tend to be rare.

Tumours affecting the pons (E) tend o bresent similarly to cerebella tumours. They can also cause hydrocephalus due to interference of drainage of CSF.

26
Q

A 34-year-old woman presents to accident and emergency claiming that the
devil has returned to earth and is hunting her through her neighbours, who are
recording her every movement. The psychiatric assessment shows florid delusions
and auditory hallucinations. She has no past psychiatric history. Her husband tells
you that she was fine up until 2 weeks ago. Her hands have also been shaking
and she has complained that the devil has been torturing her muscles. She has
widespread lymphadenopathy and an enlarged spleen. An unusual rash is present
across her cheeks and nose, which she says is the brand of the devil. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

A. Behçet’s disease
B. CREST syndrome
C. Graves’ disease
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
E. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis)

A

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

SLE (D) is an autoimmune connective tissue disorder that can have neropsychiatric symptoms, often at teh onset of the condition prior to symptomatic involvement of other organ systems. There can be unexplained psychotic symptoms, which can closely resemble schizophrenia, there may also be adementia type or affective disorder.

The neurological signs here make a diagnosis of non-organic pathology unlikely. This woman has physical signs of SLE, widespread muscle pain, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and the classic malar rash.

Behcet’s (A) is an autoimmune disorder with reccurent oral and penile ulcers and uveitis. There is an uncommon finding of neurological or psychiatric presentations in the late stages.

CREST (B) is a systemic scleroderma with five features; Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal atresia, sclerodactyly, and telangectasia. There is little knowledge about psychiatric complications.

Grave’s (C) is an autoimmune thyroiditis leading to hyperthyroidism, there can be asociated anxiety states.

GPA (E)is an autoimmune vasculitis, typically affecting the lungs, kidneys, and nervous system. Typically presents with dyspnoea, cough, haemoptysis, nasal ulceration, sinusitis, systemic sypmtoms, haematuria, and neuro symptoms (peripheral neuropathy, stroke and sometimes seizures). Psychiatic copmplications are not typically described.

27
Q

Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is most likely to lead to a triad of
gastrointestinal disturbance, dermatological symptoms and a heterogeneous
constellation of psychiatric symptoms?

A. Niacin
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin D

A

A. Niacin

Niacin deficiency (A) is pellagra, it was a serious issue amoungst the first european settlers in America becasue they were too arogant to listen to the native americans. Interesting story to read.

It classically manifests with GI symptoms (diarrhoea, anorexia, and gastritis), dermatological manifestations (symetrical, bilateral, bullous lesions in sun-exposed areas), and psychiatric symptoms. These psychiatric symptoms start with apathy and depression or irritibility and then develops into florid delirium, psychosis and a Korsakoff-like presentation,

Vitamin A (B) deficiency leads to night blindnesm dry skin and anaemia

Vitimin B1 (C) deficiency is known as beri beri; neuropathy and heart failure. An acute depletion of B1 leads to Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

Vitamin C (D) deficiency leads to scurvy, charecterised by anorexia, diarrhoea, irritability, anaemia, gingival haemorrhage, poor wound healing, leg pain and swelling over teh long bones.

Vitamin D (E) deficiency is rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. There is some speculation about it’s role in seasonal affective disorder also.

28
Q

Which of the following statements regarding neuropsychiatric manifestations of
epilepsy is correct?

A. Automatisms in epilepsy are usually pre-ictal
B. Epilepsy is usually associated with enduring personality difficulties
C. Psychosis is negatively correlated with epilepsy
D. Rates of suicide are higher in people with epilepsy than people not
suffering with epilepsy
E. Temporal lobe epilepsy is usually associated with tonic clonic seizures

A

D. Rates of suicide are higher in people with epilepsy than people not
suffering with epilepsy

Rates of suicide amoungst epileptics are higher (D)

Automatisms (A) (complex subconcious motor movements) are associated with complex partial seizures.

There is no link to enduring personality disorders (B)

Psychotic symptoms are positively correlated with epilepsy (C)

Temporal lobe epilepsy (E) is asssociated with psychiatric and psychological symptoms.

29
Q

Which of the following regarding early-onset dementia (or young-onset dementia
(YOD)) is correct?

A. Alzheimer’s disease in younger patients is not associated with a family
history
B. Alzheimer’s disease is an uncommon cause of YOD
C. Dementia is under-represented in Down’s syndrome
D. Pick’s disease is classically associated with personality changes
E. YOD is usually caused by prion diseases

A

D. Pick’s disease is classically associated with personality changes

Pick’s disease (D) is a relatively uncommon dementia, it is a frontotemporal dementia. It commonly presents in the 6th decade of life (so it is earlier than a typical dementia). Because it affects the frontotemporal area it is linked to personality changes,

30
Q

A 19-year-old white woman presents to accident and emergency with abdominal
pain, arm weakness and diminished reflexes. She is also extremely agitated and is
responding to auditory hallucinations. You are unable to get a history from her,
and you call her GP – there is little of note in her history, although she has only
been in the practice for a few months as she is a first year student. The only recent
entry is a new prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A. Acromegaly
B. Acute intermittent porphyria
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Heroin intoxication
E. Sickle cell anaemia

A

B. Acute intermittent porphyria

AIP (B) is an inherited disorder of haem metabolism that usually occurs in the 2nd to 4th decades. This build up of porphyrins (haem metabolism byproducts) cause the array of symptoms.

Attacks are precipitated by many triggers such as; the OCP, menstruation, alcohol, poor nutrition an some drugs. Abdominal pain in a semingly psychiatric presentation should raise suspicion of porphyria.

Acromegaly (A), and DKA (C) do not have psychiatric symptoms.

Heroin intoxication (D) would be a depression of conciousness and respiration

Sickle cell (E) is unlikely in a white indvidual, it could present as abdominal pain but it is not easy to think why it would have remained undiagnosed until 19.

31
Q

A 24-year-old student presents with a 3-month history of social withdrawal and
low mood. She is difficult to interview because she talks about random themes
and has difficulty answering questions. She has vague paranoid ideation. She is
childish and pulls faces at you during the interview. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
B. Catatonic schizophrenia
C. Paranoid schizophrenia
D. Residual schizophrenia
E. Simple schizophrenia

A

A. Hebephrenic schizophrenia

Hebephrenic (A) is a disorganised schizophrenia, it is charecterised with a preponderance of affective symptoms and thought disorder. Social withdrawal is a common feature, as is a fatuous and childlike affect.

The delusions and halucinations )usually present) are fragmented and not particularly striking. Negative symptoms tend to develop early and quickly.

Catatonic schizophrenia (B) is defined by a preponderance of motor retardation and other catatonic symptoms.

Paranoid subtype (C) is arguably the ‘classic’ type. It is dominated by hallucinations with less strong pattern of thought disorders.

Residual schizophnia (D) refers to teh late stage diminishig of positive symptoms and the perserverance of negative symptoms.

Simple schizophrenia (E) is defined as oddities of conduct and inability to meet social demands. THere is not normally overt psychosis.

32
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia in the UK?
A. 0.01 per cent
B. 0.1 per cent
C. 0.4 per cent
D. 4 per cent
E. 10 per cent

A

C. 0.4 per cent

33
Q

A 19-year-old identical twin is diagnosed with schizophrenia. His mother makes
an appointment to see you at the GP practice and asks what the likelihood is of
his twin developing schizophrenia. What should you tell her?

A. It is inevitable that schizophrenia will develop in the brother
B. There is no increased risk of developing schizophrenia
C. The risk is about one in 100
D. The risk is about one in 10
E. The risk is about one in two

A

E. The risk is about one in two

The genetic component of schizophrenia means that there is 50% mono-zygotic concorrdance risk (E)

34
Q

A 19-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to accident and emergency by
his sister as he has become unwell over the last few days. He has recently been
started on risperidone. He is confused, sweaty and tremulous. On examination
the signs include tachycardia, low blood pressure, pyrexia and lead-pipe rigidity.
His Glasgow Coma Scale score is decreased at 12/15. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A. Acute dystonia
B. Malignant hyperthermia
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Serotonin syndrome
E. Tyramine reaction

A

C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

35
Q

A 23-year-old man is diagnosed with schizophrenia. He has had florid
persecutory beliefs and auditory hallucinations for the past 3 months. In
terms of medical history he has poorly controlled insulin-dependent diabetes
and is obese. On admission to hospital he was so distressed he required
intramuscular rapid tranquilization. On administration of 5 mg of haloperidol,
he developed an acute dystonia in his neck muscles which was excruciatingly
painful. What would be the most appropriate drug to commence to control
his schizophrenia?

A. Aripiprazole
B. Clozapine
C. Olanzapine
D. Oral haloperidol
E. Sertraline

A

A. Aripiprazole

36
Q

A 24-year-old man with a diagnosis of schizophrenia, last admitted 6 months ago
under Section, is brought in by police to the Mental Health Unit under Section 136.
He has been harassing his ex-girlfriend with constant threatening phone calls and
turning up at her house. He says he believes she is twisting his bones at night,
preventing him sleeping and causing him massive pain, through witchcraft. He
states that he is going to kill her if it goes on one more night and has purchased a
special knife from a ‘witchcraft’ shop on the internet. He is experiencing auditory
hallucinations directing him in the best way to use the knife against her. Against
the advice of his consultant he has recently stopped his medication, which usually
keeps him well. His symptoms typically follow these themes of violence and the
supernatural when unwell. He claims that being in hospital will just allow her to
target him more easily and will not stay voluntarily. What Section of the Mental
Health Act (MHA) is most likely to be appropriate in this case?
A. Section 135
B. Section 2
C. Section 3
D. Section 4
E. Section 5(2)

A

C. Section 3

37
Q

The man described above is admitted under Section 3 of the Mental Health Act. On admission to the ward, he is acutely disturbed and becomes violent towards others and himself. He has slapped a member of staff. Staff try to calm him down but it is felt that the risks are escalating. He was prescribed 2 mg lorazepam orally which he has spat into the nurse’s face. He has no prior recorded adverse drug reactions. What is the most appropriate pharmacological management of the patient?

A. Haloperidol decanoate (depot) 50 mg intramuscular
B. Haloperidol 10 mg orally
C. Lorazepam 2 mg intramuscular
D. Lorazepam 2 mg slow intravenous injection
E. Propofol 120 mg intravenous injection

A

C. Lorazepam 2 mg intramuscular

38
Q

A 22-year-old man with paranoid schizophrenia has been treated with three
different antipsychotics and remains unwell. His team decide to prescribe clozapine which he has now been on for 3 weeks. He comes in for his regular blood test and the nurse in the clozapine clinic asks the junior doctor to see him as he appears unwell. On examination, he is sweaty and tachycardic with a temperature of 38.5°C. He has no chest pain but is coughing purulent sputum. What would the most likely isolated abnormality be on blood testing?
A. High eosinophil count
B. High platelet count
C. Low haemoglobin
D. Low lymphocyte count
E. Low neutrophil count

A

E. Low neutrophil count

39
Q

A 54-year-old man with schizophrenia has been on depot antipsychotics for the
last 27 years as he hates taking tablets and has stopped them in the past. He has
not been unwell in terms of his schizophrenia for the last decade. His community
psychiatric nurse notices that he has developed odd movements around his mouth
over the last few months, where he purses and smacks his lips. It is causing him
difficulty speaking and it is distressing for him and his family. Which is the most
appropriate course of action for managing this symptom?

A. Gradual decrease in depot medication
B. Offer emotional support
C. Start anticholinergic such as procyclidine
D. Start ‘second-generation’ antipsychotic such as olanzapine
E. Stop depot immediately to prevent further deterioration

A

A. Gradual decrease in depot medication

40
Q

A 22-year-old single man is diagnosed with schizophrenia. This is followed by
a very rapid psychotic breakdown characterized by well-defined persecutory
delusions. There is no mood component to his symptoms. He has shown a poor
response to treatment. Which of the following indicates a positive prognostic
feature of this man’s illness?

A. Absence of mood symptoms
B. Being male
C. Being young
D. Poor initial response to treatment
E. Rapid onset of symptoms

A

E. Rapid onset of symptoms

41
Q

A 38-year-old single woman is arrested outside the house of a celebrity TV chef
after shouting outside all night. On interview she claims that the man has declared
his love for her several times but is being prevented from seeing her by his wife
who is keeping him handcuffed inside. She states it is he that has made several
advances to her by sending her special messages when he is cooking on television. What syndrome or symptom is being described here?

A. Capgras syndrome
B. de Clérambault’s syndrome
C. Folie à deux
D. Othello syndrome
E. Querulant delusions

A

B. de Clérambault’s syndrome

42
Q

A 27-year-old man has been started on haloperidol, a ‘first-generation’
antipsychotic, for control of his symptoms of schizophrenia. A few weeks later
he comes to his GP in a highly embarrassed state, claiming that the CIA are
experimenting on him, turning him into a woman. When the GP asks how he
knows this, the man states that he has noticed his chest growing into ‘breasts’ and
he can no longer get an erection with his girlfriend. What is the most likely cause
of these symptoms?

A. Alpha-blockade
B. Drug-induced hepatitis
C. Hyperprolactinaemia
D. New-onset diabetes
E. Prostatic hypertrophy

A

C. Hyperprolactinaemia

43
Q

Which of the following is not recognized as a diagnostic feature of schizophrenia
according to ICD-10?

A. Formal thought disorder
B. Grandiose delusions
C. Running commentary
D. Symptoms lasting at least 1 month
E. Thought broadcasting

A

B. Grandiose delusions

44
Q

A 28-year-old woman presents in the GP surgery. She is over-talkative and overfamiliar with you. It is difficult to get a full history, but it seems for the last
4 weeks she has been elated and experiencing voices telling her that her mother
was a descendant of the Virgin Mary and that she is a female ‘second coming’. This was the result of an experiment by the Nazi party who genetically engineered her grandparents. She believes that remnants of the Nazi party are now controlling her arms and legs, which results in her alternately trying to hug you and then kicking out at the desk. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
B. Induced delusional disorder
C. Paranoid schizophrenia
D. Schizoaffective disorder
E. Schizoptypal disorder

A

D. Schizoaffective disorder

45
Q

Which of the following is the least likely to be a side effect of antipsychotic
treatment?
A. Akathisia
B. Convulsions
C. Hypotension
D. Renal failure
E. Tachycardia

A

D. Renal failure